1. Trauma and Injury Severity Score (TRISS) includes:
A. GCS + BP + RR
B. RTS + ISS + Age
C. RTS + ISS + GCS
D. RTS + GCS + Age
Answer: B
2. Treatment of choice for stab injury caecum ?
A. Caecostomy
B. Ileo-transverse anastomosis
C. Transverse colostomy
D. Sigmoid colostomy
Answer: B
3. Brain abscess in cyanotic heart disease is commonly located in
A. Cerebellar hemisphere
B. Thalamus
C. Temporal lobe
D. Parietal lobe
Answer: D
4. All are true about carcinoma palate, except
A. Slow growing
B. Bilateral lymphatic spread
C. Adenocarcinoma
D. Presents with pain
Answer: D
5. Epulis arises from
A. Enamel
B. Root of teeth
C. Gingiva
D. Pulp
Answer: C
6. Commonest site of carcinoma tongue
A. Apical
B. Lateral borders
C. Dorsum
D. Posterior 1/3
Answer: B
7. In case of benign mixed parotid tumours T/t of choice is
A. Superficial Parotidectomy
B. Total parotidectomy
C. Leave facial nerve and remove all gland
D. Radical Parotidectomy
Answer: A
8. True regarding cystic hygroma is
A. Non transilluminant
B. Lined by columnar epithelium epithelium
C. Develops from jugular lymphatic sequestration
D. All
Answer: C
9. The best treatment for cystic hygroma is
A. Surgical excision
B. Radiotherapy
C. Sclerotherapy
D. Chemotherapy
Answer: A
10. Sistrunk’s operation is used in
A. Parotid tumour
B. Thyroglossal fistula
C. Thyroglossal cyst
D. b and c
Answer: D
11. Adson’s test is positive in
A. Cervical rib
B. Cervical spondylosis
C. Cervical fracture
D. Cervical dislocation
Answer: A
12. Neuroblastomas – good prognositc factor is ?
A. N-myc amplification
B. RAS oncogene
C. Hyperdiploidy
D. Translocations
Answer: C
13. Opsoclonus – Myoclonus is a phenomenon seen in ?
A. Wilms tumor
B. Neuroblastoma
C. Meningioma
D. Cortical tuberculoma
Answer: B
14. In thymoma, all are seen except
A. Hypogamma globulinemia
B. Hyperalbuminemia
C. Red cell aplasia
D. Myaesthenia Gravis
Answer: B
15. Interlobar sequestration of lung takes its blood supply from
A. Internal mammary artery
B. Descending abdominal aorta
C. Pulmonary artery
D. None of the above
Answer: B
16. Foreign body aspiration in supine position causes which of the following parts of the lung commonly to be affected
A. Apical left lobe
B. Apical lobe of right lung
C. Apical part of the lower lobe
D. Posterobasal segment of left lung
Answer: C
17. IVC filter is used in following except
A. To reduces symptoms
B. Negligible size of emboli
C. To prolong life
D. To prevent progress of native blood vessel disease
Answer: B
18. Empyema necessitans is defined as so when ?
A. Plural empyema is under pressure
B. Pleural empyema has ruptured into bronchus
C. Pleural empyema has ruptured into the pericardium
D. Pleural empyema is showing extension to the subcutaneous tissue
Answer: D
19. All of the following about Gastrointestinal carcinoid tumors are true, Except:
A. Small intestine and appendix account for almost 60% of all gastrointestinal carcinoid
B. 5 year survival for carcinoid tumors is >60%
C. Rectum is spared
D. Appendicial carcinoids are more common in females than males
Answer: C
20. Radiation exposure during infancy has been linked to which one of the following carcinoma
A. Breast
B. Melanoma
C. Thyroid
D. Lung
Answer: C
21. Smoking may be associated with all of the following cancers, except:
A. Ca Larynx
B. Ca Nasopharynx
C. Ca Bladder
D. None
Answer: D
22. What is the treatment of choice in desmoid tumors ?
A. Irradiation
B. Wide excision
C. Local excision
D. Local excision following radiation
Answer: B
23. The commando operation is
A. Abdomino-perineal resection of the rectum for carcinoma
B. Disarticulation of the hip for gas gangrene of the leg
C. Extended radical mastectomy
D. Excision of carcinoma of the tongue, the floor of the mouth, part
of the jaw and lymph nodes enbloc
Answer: D
24. Corpora amylaciae is seen in
A. Thymus
B. Lymph node
C. Spleen
D. Prostate
Answer: D
25. Stereotactic radiosurgery is done for
A. Glioblastoma multiforme
B. Medulloblastoma spinal cord
C. Ependymoma
D. AV malformation of brain
Answer: D
26. In which one of the following conditions is gas under diaphragm not seen
A. Perforated duodenal ulcer
B. Typhoid perforation
C. After laparotomy
D. Spontaneous rupture of oesophagus
Answer: D
27. All of the following are true regarding fluid resuscitation in burn patients except:
A. Consider intravenous resuscitation in children with burns greater than 15% TBSA
B. Oral fluids must contain salts
C. Most preferred fluid is Ringer’s lactate
D. Half of the calculated volume of fluid should be given in first 8 hours
Answer: A
28. The following is the commonest site for venous ulcer: [March 2013 ]
A. Lower third of leg and ankle
B. Instep of foot
C. Lower 2/ 3rd of leg
D. Middle 1/3rd of leg
Answer: A
29. Which of the following is spared in lumbar sympathectomy: [September 2009]
A. L1
B. L2
C. L3
D. L4
Answer: A
30. Brodie-Trendelenburg test is positive in:
A. Deep vein thrombosis
B. Sapheno-femoral incompetence
C. Thromboangiitis obliterans
D. Below-knee perforators incompetence
Answer: B
31. Cullen’s sign is seen in: [March 2004]
A. Acute cholecystitis
B. Acute hepatitis
C. Acute pancreatitis
D. Blunt injury abdomen
Answer: C
32. Acute pancreatitis causes all of the following except: [March 2005, March 2013 (g)]
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Increased amylase level
C. Subcutaneous fat necrosis
D. Hyperlipidemia
Answer: A
33. Charcot’s triad is defined by all of the following except: [September 2007, March 2009]
A. Fever
B. Gall stones
C. Jaundice
D. Pain
Answer: B
34. Most sensitive and specific for acute pancreatitis amongst the following is: [September 2008]
A. S.amylase
B. S.Alanine transaminase
C. S.lipase
D. C-reactive protein
Answer: C
35. Treatment of an incidentally detected Appendicular carcinoid measuring 2.5 cm is: [September 2002]
A. Right hemicolectomy
B. Limited resection of the right colon
C. Total colectomy
D. Appendicectomy
Answer: A
36. Heller’s myotomy is done for: [September 2007, 2009, 2010]
A. Esophageal carcinoma
B. Pyloric hypertrophy
C. Achalasia cardia
D. Inguinal hernia
Answer: C
37. All of the following testicular tumours are germ cell tumours EXCEPT: [March 2013 ]
A. Seminoma
B. Teratoma
C. Choriocarcinoma
D. Sertoli cell tumour
Answer: D
38. Cobra head appearance on excretory urography is suggestive of: [March 2010]
A. Horseshoe kidney
B. Duplication of renal pelvis
C. Simple cyst of kidney
D. Ureterocele
Answer: D
39. Orchidopexy for incompletely descended testis is done after the age of: [September 2011]
A. At birth
B. 1 year
C. 2 years
D. 5 years
Answer: B
40. MC site for thyroglossal cyst is:
A. Beneath the foramen caecum
B. Floor of mouth
C. Above hyoid
D. Subhyoid
Answer: D
41. True about Branchial cyst is: [March 2013 (h)]
A. Cysts are more common than sinuses
B. Mostly arises from 2nd branchial system
C. Causes dysphagia and hoarseness
D. Sinus should always be operated
Answer: B
42. All of the following are false for Gall Bladder carcinoma except: [March 2005]
A. Carries a good prognosis
B. Gallstones may be a predisposing factor
C. Commonly squamous cell carcinoma
D. Jaundice is rare
Answer: B
43. Cryoprecipitate contains: [March 2009]
A. Factor II
B. Factor V
C. Factor VIII
D. Factor IX
Answer: C
44. Adson test is positive in: [September 2007]
A. Cervical spondylosis
B. Cervical rib
C. Cervical vertebra fracture
D. Superior vena cava syndrome
Answer: B
45.Drugs for paralytic ileus for bowel resection surgery are all except ?
A. Alvinopam
B. Dihydroergotamine
C. Naloxone
D. Methylnaltrexone
Answer: C
46. An adult hypertensive male presented with sudden onset severe headache and vomiting. On examination, there is marked neck rigidity and no focal neurological deficit was found. The symptoms are most likely due to:
A. Intracerebral parenchymal hemorrhage
B. Ischemic stroke
C. Meningitis
D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Answer: D
47. Gasless abdomen seen in
A. Ulcerative colitis
B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Intussusception
D. Necrotising enterocolitis
Answer: B
48. Dohlman procedure for
A. Meckel’s diverticulum
B. Zenker’s diverticulum
C. Dermatomyositis
D. Menetrier’s disease
Answer: B
49. If a mother is donating kidney to her son is an example
A. Isograft
B. Allograft
C. Autograft
D. Xenograft
Answer: B
50. Uvula vesicae is produced by which prostate lobe?
A. Anterior lobe
B. Post lobe
C. Median lobe
D. Lateral lobe
Answer: C
51. True about Barrett’s esophagus are all of the following except:
A. Causes adenocarcinoma
B. Patient is usually asymptomatic
C. Histology of the lesion shows mucus secreting goblet cells
D. Chronic gastroesophageal reflux is a predisposing factor
Answer: A
52. Parathyroid auto implantation takes place in which of the muscle?
A. Biceps
B. Triceps
C. Brachioradialis
D. Sartorius
Answer: C
53. Bell’s palsy is associated with the lesion in which of the nerve?
A. 11th cranial nerve
B. 7th cranial nerve
C. 9th cranial nerve
D. 3rd cranial nerve
Answer: B
54. Cushing ulcer is seen in case of
A. Burns
B. Head injury
C. Cell necrosis
D. Stress
Answer: B
55. Most common indication for liver transplant in children
A. Biliary atresia
B. Cirrhosis
C. Hepatitis
D. Drug reactions
Answer: A
56. Most common type of gallstone is
A. Mixed stones
B. Pure cholesterol stones
C. Pigment stones
D. Calcium bilirubinate
Answer: A
57. Serpiginous ulcer distal esophagus
A. CMV
B. Herpes
C. Pill
D. Corrosive
Answer: A
58. Omphalocele is caused by?
A. Duplications of intestinal loops
B. Abnormal rotation of the intestinal loop
C. Failure of gut to return to the body cavity from its physiological herniation
D. Reversed rotation of the intestinal loop
Answer: C
59. Which of the following is true about coeliac plexus block?
A. Located retroperitoneally at the level of L3
B. Usually done unilaterally
C. Useful for the painful conditions of lower abdomen
D. Most common side effect is diarrhea and hypotension
Answer: D
60. Most commonly performed and acceptable method of bariatric surgery is:
A. Biliopancreatic diversion
B. Biliopancreatic diversion with ilcostomy
C. Laparoscopic gastric banding
D. Roux-en-Y gastric bypass.
Answer: D
61. A patient after road traffic accident presented with tension pneumothorax. What is the first line of management?
A. Insert wide bore needle in 2nd intercostal space
B. Immediate chest X-ray
C. CT scanEmergency thoracotomy
D. Emergency thoracotomy
Answer: A
62. Prehn sign is positive in
A. Acute epidydimoorchitis
B. Chronic orchitis
C. Testicular torsion
D. None
Answer: A
63.Definitive surgery is a part of which stage of damage control surgery?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
Answer: D
64. Which of the following is not true about Boerhaave syndrome?
A. Perforation of the esophagus due to barotrauma
B. Most common site is left posteromedial aspect 3 – 5 cms above the gastroesophageal junction
C. Pain is the early manifestation
D. Most cases follow a bout of heavy eating or drinking
Answer: B
65. All of the following are indications for bariatric surgery except
A. BMI>40 kg/m2
B. BMI> 35 kg/m2 with atleast one comorbidity
C. BMI>30 with long standing diabetes
D. Failure of other methods of weight loss
Answer: C
66. Indications for emergency thoracotomy are all of the following except
A. Major tracheobronchial injuries
B. Cardiac tamponade
C. Penetrating injuries to anterior chest
D. Tension Pneumothorax
Answer: D
67. A female undergone surgery for left breast cancer 3 yrs back now developed blue nodule on same side
A. Lymphangiosarcoma
B. Recurrence
C. Hemangioma
D. Cellulitis
Answer: A
68. Blood loss in class III hemorrhagic shock
A. < 750 ml
B. 750 – 1500 ml
C. 1500-2000 ml
D. > 2000 ml
69. Most common cancer in men is
A. Bladder cancer
B. Colorectal cancer
C. Prostate cancer
D. Oral cancer
Answer: C
70.A nerve injured in radical neck dissection leads to loss of sensation in medial side of the arm, nerve injured is?
A. Long thoracic nerve
B. Thoracodorsal nerve
C. Dorsal scapular nerve
D. Medial cutaneous nerve of arm
Answer: D
71. Gold standard investigation for chronic pancreatitis?
A. MRI
B. ERCP
C. Pancreatic function tests
D. Fecal fat estimation
Answer: B
72. Most accurate method for the diagnosis Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD) is
A. Histological study
B. Manometry
C. 24-hour pH recording and electrical impedance measurement
D. Barium swallow studies
E. Upper GI endoscopy
Answer: C
73. All are features of SIRS except
A. RR> 24 & Paco2 <22mm hg
B. WBC >11 or <4
C. Temperature <36 and >38
D. PR >90
Answer: A
74. Which of the following primarily governs the uptake of Tc-99m MDP in body?
A. Amount of osteogenic activity
B. Amount of iodine uptake
C. Amount of calcium uptake
D. Amount of catecholamine activity
Answer: A
75. Technitium-99m pertechnetate labelled methylene diphosphonate is structurally similar to
A. Calcium phosphate
B. Phosphorus
C. Sodium bicarbonate
D. Magnesiumsulfate
Answer: A
76. Neuroimaging features of neurocysticercosis are considered as criteria for definitive diagnosis
A. Major
B. Minor
C. Probable
D. Absolute
Answer: A
77. Laproscopic procedure patient develops shoulder pain due to
A. Subphrenic abscess
B. Positional pain during surgery
C. Subdiaphragmatic migration of gas
D. Injury to liver
Answer: C
78. A patient comes with a complaint of shoulder pain after laparoscopic surgery. What should be the next step in management?
A. Oral paracetamol for 2 – 3 days
B. USG of shoulder region
C. Diagnostic shoulder arthroscopy
D. Intraarticular lignocaine injection
Answer: A
79. Which of the following should be done for an acute onset painful scrotal swelling in 12 years old male?
A. Doppler stethoscope evaluation
B. Administer analgesics
C. Advise bed rest
D. Administer antibiotics
Answer: A
80. Which of the following electrolyte abnormalities can be seen after brain injury?
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypomagnesemia
D. All the above
Answer: A
81. Earliest hematological change following splenectomy is
A. Leukocytosis and thrombocytosis
B. Presence of Heinz bodies
C. Evidence of Howell Jolly bodies
D. Poikilocytosis
Answer: A
82. Percuteneous chemical lumbar sympathectomy is practised using
A. Phenol
B. Ethanol
C. Formalin
D. Acetic acid
Answer: A
83. Typical of rectus sheath hematoma is
A. Severe tenderness
B. Bluish discoloration
C. Firm painful mass
D. Ecchymosis
Answer: C
84. Burr hole is done for
A. Chronic SDH
B. EDH
C. SAH
D. Contusion
Answer: A
85.Following road traffic accident patient suffers polytrauma and is evaluated in the emergency section of the hospital. His pulse rate is 116, respiratory rate is 24, blood pressure of 122/78 mm of Hg and patient is mildly anxious. What is the approximate blood loss patient has following trauma?
A. <750 ml
B. 750 – 1500 ml
C. 1500 – 2000 ml
D. >2000 ml
Answer: B
86. Sebaceous cyst occurs occur in all the following locations in body except
A. Palms and soles
B. Axilla
C. Back
D. Pubic area
Answer: A
87. Cortisol levels remain elevated for how many week/s following hemorrhage?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A
88. A child swallowed a watch battery containing alkaline content. What next
A. Immediate X-ray measurements
B. Remove surgically immediately
C. CT abdomen
D. Laxatives
Answer: A
89. Surgical treatment of congenital hydrocele recommended if it fails to resolve by what age?
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 4 years
Answer: B
90. What percentage of gall stones are radio opaque?
A. 10- 20
B. 30 – 40
C. 50 – 60
D. 70 – 80
Answer: A
91. Hemorrhage commonly seen with trivial trauma in elderly
A. Subdural hemorrhage
B. Extradural hemorrhage
C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
D. Intraparenchymal hemorrhage
Answer: A
92. Which of the following provides excellent details about the chemodectomas?
A. Xray
B. CT angiography
C. MRI
D. PET SCAN
Answer: C
93. Acral lentigines type of malignant melanoma occurs in
A. Face
B. Nape of neck
C. Mucosa
D. Sun exposed areas
Answer: C
94. Hoarseness of voice in lung carcinoma is due to invasion of which structure?
A. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
B. Internal laryngeal nerve
C. Glossopharyngeal nerve
D. Vagus nerve
Answer: A
95. Percentage of renal stones that are radio-opaque
A. 20
B. 40
C. 60
D. 80
Answer: D
96. Indications of thoracotomy in blunt chest trauma include all except
A. Initial drainage of > 500 ml of fresh blood
B. Rupture of bronchous
C. Continued bleeding of > 200 ml/ hr for >/= 3hrs
D. Unsuccessful attempt at drainage of cardiac tamponade
Answer: A
97. Visual examination is used as screening test for
A. Melanoma
B. Breast cancer
C. Thyroid cancer
D. Testicular cancer
Answer: A
98. Embolisation of tumors is done using
A. Polyvinyl alcohol
B. Autologous blood clots
C. Absolute ethanol
D. All the above
Answer: D
99.Upto Level III lymph node dissection is done for which nodal status of oropharyngeal cancer?
A. N1
B. N2
C. N3
D. N4
Answer: A
100. Breast surgery is considered under what category of cardiac risk?
A. > 10 %
B. 5 – 10 %
C. 1 – 5 %
D. <1%
Answer: D
101. What is the order of disorientation, which a person goes through after an event of trauma to head?
A. First time, then place followed by person
B. First place, then time followed by person
C. First person, then time followed by place
D. First time, then person followed by place
Answer: A
102. Which of the following is the preferred route of access for total parenteral nutrition in a patient who requires the same for <14 days and there is otherwise no indication for use of central catheter?
A. Internal jugular vein
B. External jugular vein
C. Periphaeral vein
D. PICC line
Answer: C
103. Which of the following is not true about use of graft in vascular surgery
A. Autologous saphenous vein achieves superior patency rates to prosthetic materials especially in femorodistal bypass
B. The patency of the PTFE grafts may be improved by interposition of a vein cuff at proximal anastomosis
C. Doppler ultrasound assessment is the method of choice for quality assurance on completion of operative procedure
D. In the absence of specific contraindications aspirin should be prescribed for all the patients of peripheral vascular disease
Answer: B
