151. Peritonsillar abscess is caused most commonly by ?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Beta hemolytic streptococcus
D. H. influenzae
Answer: C
152. Strawberry oppearance is seen in ?
A. Lupus vulgarsis
B. Rhinoscleroma
C. Rhinosporidiosis
D. Angiofibroma
Answer: C
153. True about central nystagmus ?
A. Changing direction
B. Not suppressed by optic fixation
C. Horizontal or vertical
D. All of the above
Answer: D
154. Potato tumor is
A. Rhinosporidiosis
B. Hypertrophied sebaceous gland
C. Nosopharyngeal angiofibroma
D. Tubercular infection
Answer: B
155. Early tonsillectomy is not done in?
A. Thyroid storm
B. Suspected malignancy
C. Peritonsillar abscess
D. Rheumatic fever
Answer: A
156. Most common cause of retropharyngeal abscess in adults?
A. TB
B. Tooth extraction
C. Tonsillitis
D. Lymphadenitis
Answer: A
157. Otosclerosis affects which bone?
A. Stapes
B. Incus
C. Malleus
D. None
Answer: A
158. Endolymphatic sac decompression is done in?
A. Menieres disease
B. Otosclerosis
C. Otitis media
D. Vestibular schwannoma
Answer: A
159. In type-4 thyroplasty, vocal cord is ?
A. Medially displaced
B. Laterally displaced
C. Lengthened
D. Shortened
Answer: C
160. Fenestration operation is which type of tympanoplasty?
A. Type-2
B. Type-3
C. Type-4
D. Type-5
Answer: D
161. Bullous myringitis is caused by?
A. Pseudomonas
B. Mycoplasma
C. Pneumococcus
D. Candida
Answer: B
162. All are absolute indications of tonsillectomy except
A. Suspicious malignancy
B. Peritonsillar abscess
C. Chronic tonsillits
D. Tonsils causing obstructive sleep apnea
Answer: C
163. Retraction of tympanic membrane touching promontory. What is sade’s grade?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C
164. Posterosuperior retraction pocket if allowed to progress will lead to?
A. SNHL
B. Secondary cholesteatoma
C. Tympanosclerosi
D. Primary cholesteatoma
Answer: D
165. Treatment of choice for atticoantral type of CSOM?
A. Antiboiotics
B. Tympanoplasty
C. Modified radical mastoidectomy
D. None
Answer: C
166. Retraction of tympanic membrane touching the promontory. It is called ?
A. Mild retraction
B. Severe retraction
C. Atelectasis
D. Adhesive otitis
Answer: C
167. All are true about Rinne’s test except ?
A. Positive in normal ear
B. Positive in sensorineural hearing loss
C. Minimum 15-20 dB air bone gap is required in conductive deafness
D. Bone conduction is better in sensorineural hearing loss
Answer: D
168. Stimulation of horizontal semicircular canal causes nystagmus in which directions ?
A. Vertical
B. Horizontal
C. Rotary
D. Any of the three
Answer: B
169. Bilateral past-pointing is due to defect in ?
A. Brainstem
B. Cerebellum
C. Vestibular system
D. Basal ganglia
Answer: C
170. Major contribution in the formation of nasal septum is by all except ?
A. Septal cartilage
B. Vomer
C. Ethmoid
D. Nasal bone
Answer: D
171. All are true about conductive deafness except ?
A. Rinne’s test is negative
B. Absolute bone conduction is normal
C. Weber is lateralized to poorer ear
D. There is decay in threshold tone
Answer: D
172. Ethmoidal polyp is ?
A. Due to infection
B. Single
C. Recurrent
D. Occurs in children
Answer: C
173. Most common cause of oroantral fistula ?
A. TB
B. Penetrating injury
C. Tooth extraction
D. latrogenic
Answer: C
174. Killian dehiscence is in ?
A. Superior constrictor
B. Inferior constrictor
C. Middle constrictor
D. None
Answer: B
175. Saddle nose is ?
A. Depressed nose
B. Crooked nose
C. Deviated nose
D. C-shaped
Answer: A
176. Tonsillar fossa is bounded anteriorly by ?
A. Pharyngobasilar fascia
B. Palatopharyngeal fold
C. Buccopharyngeal fascia
D. Palatoglossal fold
Answer: D
177. Passavants ridge is formed by ?
A. Palatoglossus
B. Superior constrictor
C. Salpingopharyngeus
D. Palatopharyngeus
Answer: D
178. Hot potato voice is characteristic of ?
A. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
B. Glottic carcinoma
C. Subglottic carcinoma
D. Supraglottic carcinoma
Answer: D
179. All are early complications of tracheostomy except?
A. Hemorrhage
B. Pneumothorax
C. Injury to esophagus
D. Tracheal stenosis
Answer: D
180. Nasopharynx is lined by which epithelium ?
A. Stratified squamous nonkerationized
B. Stratified squamous keratinized
C. Ciliated columnar
D. Cuboidal
Answer: C
181. Vidian neurectomy is done for ?
A. Allergic rhinitis
B. Atrophic rhinitis
C. Vasomotor rhinitis
D. Chronic hypertrophic rhinitis
Answer: C
182. Lymphatic drainage of orpharynx is mainly through?
A. Superficial cervical lymph nodes
B. Submandibular nodes
C. Jugulodigastric node
D. Jugulo-omohyoid nodes
Answer: C
183. All are true about otitic barotrauma except ?
A. Conductive deafness
B. Retracted tympanic membrane
C. Catheterization can be used
D. Occurs during sudden ascent in aircraft
Answer: D
184. Tear drop sign is seen in ?
A. Fracture zygomatic arch
B. Fracture maxilla
C. Fracture mandible
D. Blow out fracture
Answer: D
185.Inverted papilloma of nose arise from ?
A. Nasal septum
B. Roof of the nose
C. Tip of the nose
D. Lateral wall of the nose
Answer: D
.
186. True about external nose ?
A. Upper 2/3 is bony
B. Lower 1/3 is cartilaginous
C. Single lateral cartilage
D. Two nasal bones
Answer: D
187. Indication of BAHA (Bone-anclored hearing aid)
A. Bilateral hearing loss
B. Sensorineural hearing loss
C. Congenital canal atresia
D. All of the above
Answer: C
188. Muller’s manoeuver is used ?
A. To findout opening of mouth
B. To remove laryngeal foreign body
C. To find degree of obstruction in sleep disordered breathing
D. To remove foreign body from ear
Answer: C
189. Rosen’s incision is used for ?
A. Septoplasty
B. SMR
C. Stapedectomy
D. Tonsillectomy
Answer: C
190. Submandibular nodes are classified as ?
A. Level IA neck nodes
B. Level IB neck nodes
C. Level II neck nodes
D. Level III neck nodes
Answer: B
191. Hyponasal voice is seen in all except ?
A. Adenoids
B. Nasal polyp
C. Cleft palate
D. Habitual
Answer: C
192. Schatzki’s Ring is present at ?
A. Upper end of trachea
B. Lower end of trachea
C. Upper end of esophagus
D. Lower end of esophagus
Answer: D
193. “Rising sun” appearance is seen in
A. ASOM
B. CSOM
C. Glomus tumor
D. Acoustic neuroma
Answer: C
194. Cart-wheel appearance of tympanic membrane in ASOM is due to ?
A. Perforation of tymparic membrane
B. Edema of tympanic membrane
C. Congested blood vessels along malleus
D. Granulation tissue on tympanic membrane
Answer: C
195. In noice induced hearing loss, audiogram shows a typical notch at
A. 1000 Hz
B. 2000 Hz
C. 3000 Hz
D. 4000 Hz
Answer: D
196. In sensorineural hearing loss, weber’s test is lateralized to
A. Normal ear
B. Defective ear
C. Not lateralized
D. May alternate
Answer: A
197. Which of the following is responsible for localization of sound ?
A. Cochlear nerve
B. Cochlea
C. Superior olivary nucleus
D. Cochlear nuclei
Answer: C
198. Endolymph resembles ?
A. CSF
B. ICF
C. ECF
D. Plasma
Answer: B
199. All are intracranial complications of otitis media except?
A. Lateral sinus thrombophlebitis
B. Facial nerve palsy
C. Brain abscess
D. Hydrocephalus
Answer: B
200. Most commonly used tuning fork in ear examination?
A. 128 Hz
B. 256 Hz
C. 512 Hz
D. 1024 Hz
Answer: C
201.Modified radical neck dissection includes which level of cervical lymph nodes?
A. I-Ill
B. I-IV
C. I-V
D. I-Vil
Answer: C
202. All are seen in treacher collin syndrome except
A. Conductive deafness
B. Cleft palate
C. Mandibular hypoplasia
D. Choanal atresia
Answer: D
203. True about penderd’s syndrome ?
A. Blindness
B. Conductive deafness
C. Sensorineural deafness
D. All of the above
Answer: C
204. Endoscopic sinus surgery prerequisite?
A. MRI of paranasal sinus
B. CT of PNS
C. Mucocilliary clearing testing
D. Acoustic tests
Answer: B
205. X-ray findings in chronic otitis media ?
A. Honeycombing of mastoid
B. Sclerosis with cavity in mastoid
C. Clear-cut distinct bony partition between cells
D. None of the above
Answer: B
206. What is not true about use of intranasal steroids in nasal polyposis?
A. Reduce recurrence
B. Reduce obstruction
C. Effective in eosinophilically predominant polyp only
D. May cause epistaxis
Answer: C
207. Referred ear pain may travel through all except?
A. Trigeminal nerve
B. Glossopharyngeal nerve
C. Abducens nerve
D. Vagus nerve
Answer: C
208. Acute retropharyngeal abscess, not true ?
A. Due to lymphadenitis
B. Common in adults
C. Swelling on one side of midline
D. Incision & drainage
Answer: B
209. Proof puncture is done through ?
A. Superior meatus
B. Middle meatus
C. Inferior meatus
D. Sphenoethmoidal recess
Answer: C
210. Inspiratory stridor is found in what kind of lesions:
A. Supraglottic
B. Subglottic
C. Tracheal
D. Bronchus
Answer: A
211. The most common site of the branchial cyst is:
A. Posterior border of sternocleidomastoid
B. Anterior border of sternocleidomastoid
C. Digastric muscle
D. Omohyoid muscle
Answer: B
212. Lower limit of retropharyngeal space is at ?
A. C 7
B. Bifurcation of trachea
C. 4th esophageal constriction
D. None
Answer: B
213. Retroauricular incision is also known as?
A. Rosen’s incision
B. Lempert’s -I incision
C. Lempert’s-II incision
D. Wilde’s incision
Answer: D
214. Electrode of cochlear implant is placed at ?
A. Horizontal semicircular canal
B. Scala media
C. Scala tympani
D. Scala vestibuli
Answer: C
215. Threshold of hearing in a young normal adult is ?
A. 0 dB
B. 10 dB
C. 20 dB
D. 30 dB
Answer: A
216. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma seen in which occupation?
A. Asbestos industry
B. Cement industry
C. Wood workers
D. Chimney workers
Answer: C
217. Investigation of choice for nasopharyngeal angiofibroma?
A. X-ray
B. MRI
C. Plane-CT
D. CT- contrast
Answer: D
218. True about tubercular otitis media are all except?
A. Spreads through eustachian tube
B. Causes painless ear discharge
C. May cause multiple perforations
D. Usually affects both ears
E. None
Answer: D
219. Feature of Granulomatosis with polyangiitis:
A. Nasal polyp
B. Perforated Nasal septum
C. Persistant sinus
D. Crusting of nasal mucosa
E. Collapse of nasal bridge
Answer: B:C:D
220. Tensor tympani is attached at ?
A. Malleus
B. Incus
C. Stapes
D. Tympanic membrane
Answer: A
221. Vesicles on external ear are seen in
A. Otitis externa
B. Malignant otitis externa
C. Herpes zoster
D. Clear cell carcinoma
Answer: C
222. First line treatment for mild retraction pocket in the ear is
A. Observation
B. Antibiotics
C. Tympanostomy tube
D. Surgical excision
Answer: B
223. Cristae are seen in?
A. Utricle
B. Saccule
C. Semicircular canal
D. Otolith membrane
Answer: C
224. Function of saccule is?
A. Linear acceleration
B. Angular acceleration
C. Senses position of head
D. Rotational movement
Answer: A:C
225. Earliest age for doing BERA is?
A. In utero – before birth
B. At birth
C. 3 months
D. 6 months
Answer: B
226. Most common malignancy of middle ear is
A. Glomus tumor
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Adenocarcinoma
D. Sarcoma
Answer: B
227. Most common benign tumor of ear canal is
A. Osteomas
B. Sebaceous adenoma
C. Papilloma
D. Ceruminoma
Answer: A
228. Diplacusis is
A. Hearing sound with diminished intensity
B. Hearing sounds of two different tones
C. Hearing extremely loud sound
D. Perceiving light on production of sound
Answer: B
229. Which semi circular canal is most commonly involved in BPPV?
A. Horizontal
B. Posterior
C. Superior
D. All of the above
Answer: B
230. Most common ossicle affected due to trauma
A. Malleus
B. Incus
C. Stapes
D. All affected similarly
Answer: B
231. Singapore ear is
A. Hypertrophy of sweat glands
B. Hypertrophy of sebaceous glands
C. Otitis externa
D. Excoriation of external ear skin
Answer: C
232. A diabetic patient presents with foul smelling ear discharge, fever and severe pain in the ear. On examination there is thick yellow coloured discharge from the ear and granulation tissue in the canal. Which of the following is the appropriate management for this patient?
A. Surgical debridement
B. Antibiotic therapy
C. Cryotherapy
D. Laser removal of granulation tissue
Answer: B
233. Topodiagnosis of facial nerve has all the tests except
A. Schirmer test
B. Bing test
C. Taste test
D. Salivary flow test
Answer: B
234. Which of the following is the function of tensor tympani muscle?
A. Dampen very loud sound
B. Tenses tympanic membrane
C. Tenses pharyngotympanic tube
D. Prevent noise trauma to the inner ear
Answer: B
235. Pink reflex through intact tympanic membrane in active otosclerosis is known as
A. Schwabach’s sign
B. Schwartz sign
C. Lyre’s sign
D. Chvostek’s sign
Answer: B
236. SADE classification classifies
A. Retraction of tympanic membrane
B. Extension of Glomus tumor
C. Mortality after heart disease during pregnancy
D. Extent of CSF rhinorrhea
Answer: A
237. A 10 year old child presents with non foul purulent smelling discharge, which is painless. Patient reports that he is able to hear better in the presence of discharge than when the ear is dry. The most probable diagnosis is
A. CSOM
B. Serous otitis media
C. Cholesteatoma
D. Mastoiditis
Answer: A
238. Treatment of central safe perforation of tympanic membrane includes all except
A. Aural toilet
B. Ear drops
C. Avulsion of aural polyp
D. Myringoplasty
Answer: C
239. Agger nasi is
A. Mucosal flap covering the nasolacrimal duct
B. Opening of the sinuses
C. Depression in front of middle turbinate
D. Elevation anterior to middle turbinate
Answer: D
240. Quadrungular septum is seen in which of the following?
A. Larynx
B. Nose
C. Cranium
D. Palate
Answer: B
241. Nasal vestibule is
A. Lateral part of nasal cavity
B. Antero – inferior part of nasal cavity
C. Supero – medial part of nose
D. Posterior aperture of nose
Answer: B
242. Which of the following terms is used to describe the most prominent point of nasal tip?
A. Pronasale
B. Alare
C. Nasion
D. Columella apex
Answer: A
243. Epistaxis after ligating external carotid artery is due to which vessel?
A. Anterior ethmoidal artery
B. Superior labial artery
C. Sphenopalatine artery
D. Greater palatine artery
Answer: A
244. Killian’s polyp is a/an
A. Antrochoanal polyp
B. Ethmoidal polyp
C. Frontal polyp
D. Maxillary polyp
Answer: A
245. Which of the following is the predisposing factor for ethmoidal carcinoma
A. Smoking
B. Alcohol
C. Chronic infection
D. All of the above
Answer: A
246. Most common sinus predisposed to malignancy which of the following?
A. Ethmoid
B. Maxillary
C. Frontal
D. Sphenoid
Answer: B
247. Most common benign tumor of paranasal sinuses?
A. Papilloma
B. Osteoma
C. Warts
D. Fibroma
Answer: B
248. Treatment of nasal bone fracture includes all except
A. Hematoma drainage
B. Topical vasoconstrictor
C. Closed reduction
D. Immediate rhinoplasty
Answer: D
249. All of the following are true about parapharyngeal abscess except?
A. Mastoid process divides the space into anterior and posterior
B. Also known as pharyngomaxillary space infection
C. Tonsil is pushed medially
D. Occurs after tooth extraction
Answer: A
250. Lining epithelium of vocal cord is
A. Stratified squamous epithelium
B. Non stratified squamous epithelium
C. Ciliated columnar epithelium
D. Non ciliated columnar epithelium
Answer: A
251. Which of the following sites of Ca larynx has the best prognosis?
A. Glottic
B. Supraglottis
C. Subgottis
D. All have poor prognosis
Answer: A
252. Laser used in tracheal neoplasm is
A. Argon
B. KTP – 532
C. CO2
D. Nd – YAG
Answer: C
