Q- During ecological succession
(a) types and numbers of animals remain constant
(b) establishment of a new biotic community is fast in its primary phase
(c) predictable and gradual changes in species composition take place in a given area
(d) changes lead to a community that is in near equilibrium with the environment and is
referred to as pioneer community
Answer: (c)
Q- This ecosystem has the maximum biomass
(a) Grassland ecosystem
(b) Pond ecosystem
(c) Lake ecosystem
(d) Forest ecosystem
Answer: (d)
Q- These are the primary producers of the deep-sea hydrothermal vent ecosystem
(a) blue-green algae
(b) coral reefs
(c) chemosynthetic bacteria
(d) green algae
Answer: (c)
Q- This is a characteristic feature of cropland ecosystem
(a) Absence of weeds
(b) Ecological succession
(c) least genetic diversity
(d) absence of soil entities
Answer: (c)
Q- At the producer level, if 20J of energy is trapped, then how much energy will be available to a peacock as food in the subsequent chain?
Plant -> Mice -> Snake -> Peacock
(a) 0.2 J
(b) 0.02 J
(c) 0.002 J
(d) 0.0002 J
Answer: (b)
Q- Limitations of ecological pyramids involve all these statements, except
(a) they assume a simple food chain and do not consider food webs
(b) in the ecological pyramids, saprotrophs are not given any place
(c) they do not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels
(d) they do not represent relationships between organisms at different trophic levels
Answer: (d)
Q- This entity will be the first one to colonize a bare rock
(a) Herbs and shrubs
(b) Annual plants
(c) Lichens
(d) Perennial plants
Answer: (c)
Q- In an ecosystem, which one of the following types of entities occupies more than one trophic level?
(a) Frog
(b) Phytoplankton
(c) Zooplankton
(d) Fish
Answer: (d)
Q- The rate at which food energy is assimilated at the trophic level of consumers is known as
(a) Gross primary productivity
(b) Net primary productivity
(c) Secondary productivity
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)
Q- Mostly, the flesh of fruit is made of
(a) Collenchyma
(b) Parenchyma
(c) Meristem
(d) Schlerids
Answer: (b)
Q- Prosenchyma is a type of
(a) Chlorenchyma
(b) Collenchyma
(c) Sclerenchyma
(d) Parenchyma
Answer: (d)
3. The tissue where cells are thin-walled, living, isodiametric along with intercellular spaces is
(a) Arenchyma
(b) Prosenchyma
(c) Collenchyma
(d) Parenchyma
Answer: (d)
Q- The plant tissue with the following characteristics is –
– Oval/round-shaped cells
– Cells have a living protoplasm and are dense
– Cell wall is made of cellulose or hemicellulose
– Thin-walled cells
(a) Parenchyma
(b) Collenchyma
(c) Scherenchyma
(d) Epidermis
Answer: (a)
Q- The main purpose that the aerenchyma serves in Parenchyma is
(a) Offers flexibility
(b) Renders Buoyancy
(c) Provides structural framework
(d) Provides mechanical support
Answer: (b)
Q- Which of this is not a function that Parenchyma performs
(a) Stores nutrients and food
(b) Aids in regeneration, healing and repairs wounds
(c) Provides foundation and support
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
Q- The tissue that provides maximum mechanical strength to the plant is
(a) Xylem
(b) Phloem
(c) Parenchyma
(d) Collenchyma
Answer: (a)
Q- Parenchyma cells in the spongy mesophyll exhibit large intercellular spaces promoting:
(a) To become nutrients for the future germinating embryo
(b) Greater exposure to carbon dioxide
(c) To distribute pressure evenly through the structure
(d) No specific reason
Answer: (b)
Q- Vessels are found in
(a) Most of the angiosperms and few gymnosperms
(b) All angiosperms and some gymnosperms
(c) All angiosperms, all gymnosperms and some pteridophytes
(d) All pteridophytes
Answer: (a)
Q- The main difference between parenchyma, collenchyma and sclerenchyma is that
(a) Parenchyma is involved in photosynthesis, secretion and storage
(b) Collenchyma is involved in support and transportation of nutrients
(c) Sclerenchyma is involved in support, protection, transportation of nutrients and water
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
Q- This statement is true about Thalassemia
(a) There is a type of thalassemia depending on the number of mutations in genes
(b) It is caused by mutations in the DNA of cells which make up the haemoglobin
(c) Mild thalassemia may not need treatment
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
Q- This is not a symptom of Thalassemia disease
(a) Abdominal cramps
(b) Weakness and slow growth
(c) Dark urine
(d) Facial bone deformities
Answer: (a)
Q- This type of thalassemia disease is Cooley anaemia
(a) Alloimmunization
(b) Beta-thalassemia
(c) Alpha-thalassemia
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
Q- Name the blood test which can detect if a person is a carrier of thalassemia
(a) Prenatal testing
(b) A complete blood count (CBC)
(c) A Reticulocyte Count
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
Q- Treatment that can be given to thalassemia patients
(a) Stem cell or bone marrow transplant
(b) Blood transfusions
(c) Iron chelation
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
Q- Possible complications of thalassemia
(a) Infection
(b) Iron overload
(c) Only B
(d) Both A and B
Answer: (d)
Q- The complications that can occur in severe thalassemia is
(a) Enlarged spleen
(b) Bone deformities
(c) Problems with the heart
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
Q- Factors leading to an increase in the risk of thalassemia disease
(a) Certain ancestry
(b) Family history of thalassemia
(c) Only B
(d) Both A and B
Answer: (d)
Q- This about alpha-thalassemia is correct
(a) Number of gene mutations decide the severity of the condition
(b) Haemoglobin fails to produce enough alpha protein in alpha-thalassemia
(c) Alpha-thalassemia is common in South-east Asia, southern Asia, India etc
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
Q- This about beta-thalassemia is true
(a) two genes are necessary to make beta-globin chains
(b) Mutation of genes decide the severity of the condition
(c) Beta thalassemia is a common condition in West Asia, North Africa and the Mediterranean islands
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
Q- Amniocentesis, chorionic villi and alpha-fetoprotein sampling are performed to determine_____.
(a) The most likely date of birth of the foetus
(b) Whether the baby will be normal or abnormal
(c) Whether the mother has a genetic abnormality
(d) A and B
Answer: (b)
Q- Which of the following tests cannot be examined by Amniocentesis procedure?
(a) Chromosome analysis
(b) Detecting genetic defects
(c) Maturity of fetal lungs
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
Q- The fluid sample required for performing the Amniocentesis test is ________.
(a) The amnion
(b) The placenta
(c) The liquid surrounding the immediate fetus
(d) All of the above
Answer: (c)
Q- How many days are required for the Amniocentesis tests results?
(a) 1 day
(b) 1-2 days
(c) 1-2 weeks
(d) 3-4 weeks
Answer: (d)
Q- The amniocentesis procedure is not done before the _________ week after conception.
(a) 4th-5th
(b) 6th-8th
(c) 10th-12th
(d) 15th-16th
Answer: (d)
Q- Which of these procedures has the least risk for an unborn child?
(a) Amniocentesis
(b) Alpha-fetoprotein sampling
(c) Chorionic villi sampling
(d) All have the same risk level
Answer: (b)
Q- Amniocentesis is a prenatal diagnostic test, which can also determine whether an unborn child will have __________ or not.
(a) Obesity
(b) Diabetes
(c) Down’s syndrome
(d) All of the above
Answer: (c)
Q- Which of the following sentence is true for the chorion?
(a) The organ in the uterus connected to the fetus by the umbilical cord
(b) The sac or pouch-like organ within uterus containing the amniotic fluid surrounding the fetus
(c) A membrane developing around an embryo, contributing to the formation of the placenta
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)
Q- Which of the following procedure is involved in injecting a small flexible plastic tube into the uterus through the vagina?
(a) Amniocentesis
(b) Alpha-fetoprotein screening
(c) Chorionic villi sampling
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)
Q- Which of the following medical conditions are responsible for producing incorrect Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) screening results and indicating a fetus has genetic defects?
(a) The mother is anaemic
(b) The mother has Rh-negative blood
(c) The date of conception has been miscalculated
(d) All the above
Answer: (b)
Q-Compared to genus, which of the following is less general in characters?
(a) Family
(b) Species
(c) Division
(d) Class
Answer: (b)
Q- For wheat, which of the following combinations is correct?
(a) Genus Triticum, family Poaceae, order Poales, Class Monocotyledonae
(b) Genus Triticum, family Poaceae, order Poales, Class Dicotyledonae
(c) Genus Triticum, family Poaceae, order Sapindales, Class Monocotyledonae
(d) Genus Triticum, family Anacardiaceae, order Poales, Class Monocotyledonae
Answer: (a)
Q- Regulation of cells’ activity takes place through
(a) Flow of substances
(b) Flow of energy
(c) Flow of hormones
(d) Flow of smoke
Answer: (b)
Q- Assertion(a): “Biological species” concept helps to ask how species are formed
Reason(r): Concept of biological species is centred around the question of how reproductive isolation comes about
(a) Both (a) and (r) are correct, but (r) is not the explanation for (a)
(b) Both (a) and (r) are correct, (r) is the correct explanation for (a)
(c) (a) and (r) both are incorrect
(d) (a) is true, (r) is incorrect
Answer: (d)
Q- The correct sequence of taxonomic categories is:
(a) Species -> genus -> order -> phylum
(b) Species -> order -> genus-> kingdom
(c) Genus -> species -> order -> kingdom
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
Q- Taxonomic hierarchy refer to
(a) Classification of species based on the fossil record
(b) A list of botanists or zoologists who have worked on the taxonomy of a species or group
(c) a group of senior taxonomists who decide the nomenclature of animals and plants
(d) Stepwise arrangement of all categories for classification of animals and plants
Answer: (d)
Q- Which one of these categories has real existence?
(a) Species
(b) Genus
(c) Kingdom
(d) Phylum
Answer: (a)
Q- A true species comprises of a population
(a) Interbreeding
(b) Sharing the same niche
(c) Reproductively isolated
(d) Feeding over the same food
Answer: (c)
Q- Nicotiana sylvestris flowers only during long days while N.tabacum flowers only during short days. Under different photoperiods, they can be induced to flower at the same time and can be cross-fertilized to produce self-fertile offsprings. What is the best reason for considering Nicotiana sylvestris and N.tabacum as separate species?
(a) They are reproductively distinct
(b) They fail to interbreed in nature
(c) They are physiologically different
(d) They are distinct morphologically
Answer: (b)
Q- One of the first acts in taxonomy is
(a) Identification
(b) Description
(c) Naming
(d) Classification
Answer: (a)
Q- The level of taxonomic study related to biological aspects of taxa, inclusive of intraspecific populations, speciation, evolutionary trends and rates is
(a) theta taxonomy
(b) alpha taxonomy
(c) beta taxonomy
(d) gamma taxonomy
Answer: (d)
Q- The process wherein the labellum in Orchidaceae surfaces at the anterior side via the twisting of the ovary through 180 degree
(a) Articulation
(b) Adnation
(c) Attenuation
(d) Resupination
Answer: (d)
Q- The organization of taxonomic information in logical classification is known as
(a) Phenetic
(b) Systematics
(c) Dendogram
(d) Phylogenetic
Answer: (b)
Q- One of these is not a plant fossil
(a) Rhynia
(b) Lepidocarpon
(c) Lepidodendron
(d) Archaeopteryx
Answer: (d)
Q- The primary advantage of Bentham and Hookers classification is
(a) It is a system whose basis is on evolutionary concepts
(b) It is a natural system of classification of all plant groups
(c) Deemed to be the phylogenetic aspect as well
(d) The taxa description is based on the actual examination of the specimens
Answer: (d)
Q- Α taxonomy pertains to
(a) Chemotaxonomy
(b) Phylogeny
(c) Classical taxonomy
(d) Experimental taxonomy
Answer: (c)
Q- To comprehend general plant relationships, this is one of the best methods
(a) Experimental Taxonomy
(b) Numerical Taxonomy
(c) Cytotaxonomy
(d) Chemotaxonomy
Answer: (d)
Q- The condition of Polyadelphous can be found in
(a) Rutaceae
(b) Leguminosae
(c) Compositae
(d) Liliaceae
Answer: (a)
Q- Linnaeus is credited with the following
(a) Law of Limiting factor
(b) Binomial nomenclature
(c) Concept of inheritance
(d) Theory of heredity
Answer: (b)
Q- The reason why the system of plant classification proposed by Carolus Linnaeus was artificial is
(a) Because it considered the physiological facts along with the morphological traits
(b) Because it was based on the similarities and differences in floral and other morphological characters only
(c) Because it was on the basis of evolutionary relationships of plants
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
Q- The main hormone secreted by the Thyroid gland
(a) T4
(b) T3
(c) (a) and (b) Both
(d) TSH
Answer: (C)
Q- Iodine deficiency can cause
(a) Goitre
(b) Thyroid cancer
(c) Solitary thyroid nodules
(d) Thyroiditis
Answer: (a)
Q- Grave’s disease or Basedow’s disease is due to
(a) Hyperactivity of adrenal cortex
(b) Hypoactivity of the thyroid gland
(c) Hyperactivity of thyroid gland
(d) Hypoactivity of islets of Langerhans
Answer: (c)
Q- The four small glands in the thyroid gland are known as
(a) Adrenal gland
(b) Pineal gland
(c) Parathyroid gland
(d) Endocrine and exocrine gland
Answer: (c)
Q- Sometimes, the thyroid symptoms are mistaken for which condition?
(a) Menopause
(b) Posttraumatic stress
(c) Pregnancy
(d) Crohn’s disease
Answer: (a)
Q- Medications for hypothyroidism include treatment that:
(a) Replaces insulin
(b) Replaces ADH
(c) Replaces TH
(d) Replaces surfactant
Answer: (c)
Q- Which of these diseases is not related to thyroid glands?
(a) Cretinism
(b) Myxoedema
(c) Goitre
(d) Acromegaly
Answer: (d)
Q- In chronically deficient patients, this abnormality is directly related to the enlargement of the thyroid gland
(a) Impaired conversion of T3 and T4
(b) Reduced activity of thyroperoxidase
(c) Elevated levels of TSH
(d) An antibody that binds to the TSH receptor in the thyroid gland
Answer: (c)
Q- ____________ encloses thyroid, responsible for its movement during swallowing
(a) Prevertebral fascia
(b) Pretracheal fascia
(c) Investing layer of the deep cervical fascia
(d) Superficial fascia
Answer: (b)
Q- This condition of chronic inflammation of the thyroid leading to under-activity is
(a) Thyroiditis
(b) Goitre
(c) Hypothyroidism
(d) Hyperthyroidism
Answer: (a)
Q- Which of these is the most advanced phylogenetically among the dicotyledonous families?
(a) Scrophulariaceae
(b) Acanthaceae
(c) Umbelliferae
(d) Compositae
Answer: (d)
Q- The substitute for the newly collected specimen when the original type material is missing in a herbarium is entitled as
(a) Holotype
(b) Neotype
(c) Lectotype
(d) Isotype
Answer: (b)
Q- If all the puddles and ponds are destroyed, the entities likely to be destroyed are
(a) Plasmodium
(b) Ascaris
(c) Leishmania
(d) Trypanosoma
Answer: (a)
Q- In the five-kingdom system of classification, into which kingdom would you classify nitrogen-fixing organisms and archaea?
(a) Fungi
(b) Plantae
(c) Protista
(d) Monera
Answer: (d)
Q- This is considered as a demerit of the ‘Engler and Prantl’ in the system of classification
(a) Gymnosperms are placed between monocotyledons and dicotyledons
(b) Dicotyledons are placed after monocotyledons
(c) Dicotyledons are placed before monocotyledons
(d) Gymnosperms are placed among Dicotyledons
Answer: (b)
Q- Phenetic classification is based on
(a) Observable characteristics of existing entities
(b) The ancestral lineage of existing organisms
(c) Dendrograms based on DNA characteristics
(d) Sexual characteristics
Answer: (a)
Q- Difference between the natural system of plant classification and artificial system of classification is
(a) Considers only one vegetative character
(b) Considers all the similarities between plants
(c) Considers only one floral character
(d) All of the above
Answer: (b)
Q- This system of classification was used by Linnaeus
(a) Phylogenetic system
(b) Natural system
(c) Artificial system
(d) Asexual system
Answer: (c)
Q- Pick the right sequence of taxonomic categories
(a) division-class-family-tribe-order-genus-species
(b) division-class-family-order-tribe-genus-species
(c) division-class-order-family-tribe-genus-species
(d) division-order-class-family-genus-tribe-species
Answer: (c)
Q- ‘New Systematics’ term was coined by
(a) Linnaeus
(b) Bentham and Hooker
(c) A.P. de Candolle
(d) Juliane Huxley
Answer: (d)
Q- Coronary artery disease (CAD) can be determined by this test
(a) Cardiac catherization
(b) Electrocardiogram
(c) Treadmill stress test
(d) all of these
Answer: (d)
Q- The modifiable risk factor associated with coronary artery disease is
(a) Age
(b) Obesity
(c) Heredity
(d) Gender
Answer: (b)
Q- This is one of the symptoms of Coronary artery disease
(a) Sleep problems
(b) Headache
(c) Diarrhoea
(d) Pain or discomfort in the chest, lower jaw or arms
Answer: (d)
Q- If a stent is not used in a few cases who have coronary angioplasty done, the artery tends to narrow down or get blocked again in 6 months. This is more likely to happen if:
(a) one smokes
(b) one has unstable angina before the procedure
(c) one has diabetes
(d) all of these
Answer: (d)
Q- Coronary angioplasty, part of CAD’s treatment involves:
(a) A new part of artery replaces the blocked section
(b) to expand artery, medication is used
(c) inflation of a tiny balloon inside an artery
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
Q- Doctors place a stent inside the artery during angioplasty. A stent is a
(a) A new fragment of the artery
(b) A wire mesh tube
(c) A cotton tube
(d) A slow-release medicine capsule
Answer: (b)
Q- The __________ branches into Circumflex artery and left anterior descendary artery
(a) Left main coronary artery
(b) right marginal artery
(c) Posterior descendary artery
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
Q- One of these is not a symptom of acute coronary syndrome
(a) ST Segment elevation myocardial infarction
(b) Non ST segment elevation myocardial infarction
(c) unstable angina
(d) No episodes of dyspnea
Answer: (d)
Q- Ischemia is
(a) restriction of blood supply to tissues
(b) Overflow of blood to tissues
(c) Inadequate deoxygenated blood carrying veins
(d) the medical term for shortness of breath
Answer: (a)
Q- This is the role of the coronary artery
(a) to carry blood away from the heart muscles
(b) to supply blood to heart muscles
(c) to supply blood to all parts of the body
(d) none of these
Answer: (b)
Q- ECG (Electrocardiogram) was developed first by
(a) Wilhelm His
(b) Steward
(c) Hubert Mann
(d) Willem Einthoven
Answer: (d)
Q- This is the classic ECG change in MI (myocardial infarction)
(a) ST-segment elevation
(b) T-wave inversion
(c) Development of an abnormal Q wave
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
Q- In which of these conditions can widen QRS and Tall-tented T waves be observed?
(a) Hyponatremia
(b) Hyperkalemia
(c) Hyperglycemia
(d) Hyperphosphatemia
Answer: (b)
Q- Hypokalemia is the condition of low potassium levels in your blood. Hypokalemia ECG changes are observed by
(a) ST segment elevation
(b) U wave (a position deflection after the T wave)
(c) Tall peaked T waves
(d) Widening of the QRS complex and increased amplitude
Answer: (b)
Q- A normal ECG report must consist of the following information
(a) Rhythm, cardiac axis
(b) Conduction intervals
(c) Description of the ST segments, QRS complexes, T-waves
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
Q- For the normal heartbeat, depolarization stimulus originates in
(a) His-bundle areas
(b) Epicardium
(c) Sinoatrial (SA)node
(d) Atrioventricular (AV) node
Answer: (c)
Q- The characteristics – slurring of the initial QRS deflection, shortened PR interval, and prolonged QRS duration are of this condition
(a) Atrial tachycardia
(b) Left bundle branch block
(c) WPW (Wolff-Parkinson-White) syndrome
(d) Myocardial ischemia
Answer: (c)
Q- P wave indicates
(a) Depolarization of right ventricle
(b) Depolarization of left ventricle
(c) Depolarization of both atria
(d) Atria to ventricular conduction time
Answer: (c)
Q- Ventricular muscle depolarization is indicated by
(a) PR interval
(b) P wave
(c) U wave
(d) The QRS complex
Answer: (d)
Q-ECG identified by the PR interval tends to become longer with every succeeding ECG complex until there is a P wave not followed by a QRS is observed in
(a) Third-Degree Atrioventricular Block
(B) Second-Degree Atrioventricular Block, Type II
(C) Second-Degree Atrioventricular Block, Type I
(D) First-Degree Atrioventricular Block, Type II
Answer: (c)
Q- One of the ways scientists suggest to find a treatment for muscular dystrophy is
(a) replacing muscles
(b) create customized diets for them to be healthier and stronger
(c) attempt to correct defective genes so it creates the right proteins
(d) none of these
Answer: (c)
Q- Define muscular dystrophy
(a) Diseases which destruct the muscles of the body
(b) diseases which cause the muscles to get disproportionate
(c) born with too many or too little muscles
(d) diseases which do not allow muscles to grow
Answer: (a)
Q- Muscular dystrophy can affect
(a) Only humans
(b) Only animals
(c) Both animals and humans
(d) Only plants
Answer: (c)
Q- Another way that scientists propose as a treatment to cure muscular dystrophy is
(a) Removal of defective genes
(b) Replacing defective genes after removing with parents genes again
(c) Discovering chemicals which can substitute the missing chemical
(d) none of these
Answer: (c)
Q- _____________ is not a form of muscular dystrophy
(a) Lunar dystrophy
(b) Myotonic dystrophy
(c) Duchenne muscular dystrophy
(d) Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy
Answer: (a)
Q- The protein whose production gets affected in Duchenne muscular dystrophy is
(a) Actin
(b) Myotropin
(c) Dystrophin
(d) Leucovorin
Answer: (c)
Q- The gene responsible for causing Duchenne muscular dystrophy is found on
(a) Y chromosome
(b) X chromosome
(c) Autosomal chromosome number 5
(d) Autosomal chromosome number 8
Answer: (b)
Q- The enzyme, whose blood levels is increased in patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy is
(a) Carbonic anhydrase
(b) Dystrophin kinase
(c) Adenosine triphosphate
(d) Creatinine phosphokinase
Answer: (d)
Q- Duchenne muscular dystrophy can be cured with
(a) Allopurinol
(b) Creatinine phosphokinase inhibitors
(c) Corticosteroids
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
Q- The involvement of this muscle affects the breathing in Duchenne muscular dystrophy
(a) Triceps
(b) Biceps
(c) Diaphragm
(d) Quadriceps
Answer: (c)
Q- The evolutionary advantage of meiosis can be best explained by which of these statements?
(a) Meiosis alternates with mitosis from one to the next generation
(b) Meiosis is essential for sexual reproduction
(c) Passing of the same genetic system from one to next generation
(d) Genetic recombination is possible from one to next generation
Answer: (d)
Q- One of these events does not take place during meiosis
(a) One successive division without any DNA replication
(b) Chiasmata formation and crossing over
(c) Segregation of homologous chromosomes
(d) Separation of sister chromatids
Answer: (a)
Q- The meiotic division takes place in
(a) Meristematic cells
(b) Conductive cells
(c) Reproductive cells
(d) Vegetative cells
Answer: (c)
Q- Name the event wherein the paternal and maternal chromosomes change their material with each other in cell division
(a) Crossing over
(b) Synapsis
(c) Dyad forming
(d) Bivalent forming
Answer: (a)
Q- The reason for daughter cells to differ from parent cells and also each other in meiosis is;
(a) Segregation and crossing over
(b) Segregation and independent assortment
(c) Segregation, crossing over and independent assortment
(d) Independent assortment and crossing over
Answer: (c)
Q- Continuous variations are due to
(a) Mutation
(b) Crossing over
(c) Polyploidy
(d) Chromosomal aberrations
Answer: (b)
Q- Synapsis takes place between
(a) Spindle fibre and centromere
(b) mRNA and ribosomes
(c) a female and a male gamete
(d) Two homologous chromosomes
Answer: (d)
Q- Mendelian factor (Aa) is segregated during
(a) Anaphase I
(b) Anaphase II
(c) Diplotene
(d) Zygotene/Pachytene
Answer: (a)
Q- The stage of prophase I wherein crossing over occurs is
(a) Zygotene
(b) Diplotene
(c) Leptotene
(d) Pachytene
Answer: (d)
Q- Meiosis I is reductional division and meiosis II is equational division because of
(a) Separation of chromatids
(b) Crossing over
(c) The disjunction of homologous chromosomes
(d) The pairing of homologous chromosomes
Answer: (a)
Q- Which of this bacteria is resistant to penicillin as it lacks a cell wall?
(a) Spirochetes
(b) Cyanobacteria
(c) Mycoplasmas
(d) Bdellovibrios
Answer: (c)
Q- What is a cluster of polar flagella called?
(a) Petritrichous
(b) Monotrichous
(c) Amphitrichous
(d) Lophotrichous
Answer: (d)
Q- Which of these is a cocci occurring in single or pairs?
(a) Diplococci
(b) Streptococci
(c) Tetracocci
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)
Q- Flagella in bacteria enable them to
(a) reproduce
(b) locomote
(c) Thrive in nutrient agar
(d) Adhere to tissue surfaces
Answer: (b)
Q- This about cell wall of gram-positive bacteria is true
(a) cell wall comprises of many layers
(b) the cell wall is thicker than the associated gram-negative bacteria
(c) Cell wall comprises of teichoic acids
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
Q- What is Chemotaxis?
(a) Swimming towards a bacteria
(b) Swimming away of a bacteria
(c) In the presence of a chemical compound, swimming towards or away of a bacteria
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
Q- Which of these is exposed on the outer surface of a gram-negative bacterium?
(a) Braun lipoprotein
(b) O-antigen of lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
(c) Polysaccharide portion of lipoteichoic acid (LTA)
(d) Electron transport system components
Answer: (b)
Q- The covalent bond which links the cell walls of gram-positive bacteria containing two modified sugars – N – acetylmuramic acid (NAM) and N-acetyl glucosamine (NAG) is
(a) glycosidic bond
(b) 1,4-glycosidic bond
(c) 1,6-glycosidic bond
(d) glycosidic bond
Answer: (b)
Q- Which one of these has a Chinese letter arrangement?
(a) Clostridium tetani
(b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(c) Bacillus anthracis
(d) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Answer: (d)
Q- This is analogous to mesosomes of bacteria
(a) Golgi apparatus of eukaryotes
(b) Lysosomes of eukaryotes
(c) Mitochondria of eukaryotes
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)
Q- Monascus purpureus is utilized in the production of
(a) citric acid
(b) ethanol
(c) statins
(d) streptokinase
Answer: (c)
Q- The type of fermentation observed in yeasts is
(a) acrylic fermentation
(b) lactic acid fermentation
(c) pyruvic fermentation
(d) alcoholic fermentation
Answer: (d)
Q- In lactic acid fermentation, the final electron acceptor is:
(a) Lactic acid
(b) Pyruvate
(c) Oxygen
(d) NAD
Answer: (b)
Q- Which of these is not a product of fermentation?
(a) Lactate
(b) Oxygen
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Ethanol
Answer: (b)
Q- Which of the following is not a vegetable or fruit-based fermented product?
(a) Wine
(b) Sauerkraut
(c) Beer
(d) Vinegar
Answer: (d)
Q- One of the most commonly used fermented cereal amongst these is
(a) Wheat
(b) Bread
(c) Rice
(d) Yoghurt
Answer: (b)
Q- Glucose molecule during the process of glycolysis is broken down into
(a) Four pyruvic acid
(b) Three pyruvic acid
(c) Two pyruvic acid
(d) One pyruvic acid
Answer: (c)
Q- Fermentation occurs in the
(a) presence of oxygen
(b) absence of oxygen
(c) presence of nitrogen
(d) presence of carbon
Answer: (b)
Q- The least yield of ATP is observed in
(a) aerobic respiration
(b) anaerobic respiration
(c) fermentation
(d) same in (a), (b), and (c)
Answer: (c)
Q- Anaerobic respiration by yeast produces
(a) CO2
(b) Wine and Beer
(c) Alcohol
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
Q- Which of these is the fibre obtained from the coconut’s husk
(a) Perlite
(b) Vermiculture
(c) Coir
(d) Rockwool
Answer: (c)
Q- The form of hydroponics that does not require a growing medium at all is
(a) Aquaculture
(b) Static solution culture
(c) Medium culture
(d) Aeroponics
Answer: (d)
Q- Plants with larger roots can be cultivated with which of the following types of hydroponics
(a) Ebb and flow system
(b) Drip system
(c) Nutrient Film technique
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
Q- Hydroponics is a method of cultivation of plants without the use of
(a) water
(b) air
(c) soil
(d) sunlight
Answer: (c)
Q- Which of the following is not true about hydroponics?
(a) Requires high investment
(b) Technical knowledge required
(c) Can be misused to cultivate banned crops
(d) Plants through hydroponics cannot be cultivated everywhere
Answer: (d)
Q- Salts and water in hydroponic plants are absorbed by
(a) Leaves
(b) Stem
(c) Roots
(d) Outer Layer of plants
Answer: (d)
Q- The scientist who used nutrient culture solution in hydroponic cultures was
(a) Knop
(b) Sachs
(c) Wallace
(d) Webster
Answer: (a)
Q-Deficiency of mineral nutrition does not cause which of these
(a) Chlorosis
(b) Etiolation
(c) Necrosis
(d) Shortening internode
Answer: (b)
Q- Roots of a plant in hydroponics are submerged in a solution of dissolved _________
(a) fertilizers
(b) oxygen
(c) mineral salts
(d) chemicals
Answer: (a)
Q- Which of these plants may not be suitable for cultivation through hydroponics
(a) Tomatoes
(b) Carrot
(c) Cucumber
(d) Strawberries
Answer: (b)
Q- The process by which fruits are developed without fertilization is called _________.
(a) Apomixis
(b) Parthenocarpy
(c) Parthenogenesis
(d) Self-pollination
Answer: (b)
Q- In which of the plant species, parthenocarpy takes place?
(a) Mango
(b) Banana
(c) Peach
(d) Jackfruit
Answer: (b)
Q- Which of these plants will lose their economic value if its fruits are as a result of induced parthenocarpy?
(a) Banana
(b) Orange
(c) Grape
(d) Pomegranate
Answer: (d)
Q- Which of the following plant hormones stimulates the development of parthenocarpic fruit?
(a) Auxin
(b) Cytokinin
(c) Gibberellins
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
Q- Which of the following statement is false about parthenocarpy?
(a) Fruits developed are seedless
(b) The Ovary is stimulated with pollination
(c) The process is used as it yields high quality and consistency
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)
Q- The fruit in tomato is classified into _____.
(a) Pepo
(b) Pome
(c) Drupe
(d) Berry
Answer: (d)
Q- Which of the following statement is false about Fabaceae?
(a) It was earlier mentioned to as Papilionoideae
(b) It is widely distributed across the world
(c) It is common to find plants with fibrous root system here
(d) It is a subfamily of family Leguminosae
Answer: (c)
Q- Which of the following statement is false about Hilum?
(a) Hilum lies underneath micropyle
(b) Ccar over the seed coat
(c) Growing seeds are attached to the fruit through the hilum
(d) All of the above
Answer: (a)
Q- What is the fruit of wheat and rice called?
(a) Follicle
(b) Caryopsis
(c) Siliqua
(d) Achene
Answer: (b)
Q- Which of the following is not an agricultural product?
(a) Rice
(b) Jute
(c) Alum
(d) Cotton
Answer: (c)
Q- This factor contributes to the carbon cycle
(a) fossil fuel combustion
(b) respiration
(c) photosynthesis
(d) all of these
Answer: (d)
Q- The source of carbon to plants in the carbon cycle is
(a) fossil fuels
(b) carbonate rocks
(c) atmospheric carbon dioxide
(d) all of the above
Answer: (c)
Q- The role of bacteria in the carbon cycle is
(a) Breakdown of organic compounds
(b) Chemosynthesis
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) Assimilation of nitrogen compounds
Answer: (a)
Q- In the carbon cycle, the human body returns carbon to the atmosphere through this way:
(a) formation of glucose
(b) waste products
(c) photosynthesis
(d) cellular respiration
Answer: (d)
Q- Respiration and photosynthesis are central to this process
(a) nitrogen cycle
(b) phosphorous cycle
(c) carbon cycle
(d) sulphur cycle
Answer: (c)
Q- The difference between the phosphorous cycle and carbon cycle lies in the fact that
(a) the phosphorous cycle does not include a gaseous phase but the carbon cycle does
(b) phosphorous does not enter living entities but carbon enters
(c) the phosphorous cycle includes a solid phase, the carbon cycle does not
(d) primary reservoir of the phosphorous cycle is the atmosphere, but rocks are the primary reservoirs for carbon cycle
Answer: (a)
Q- Most of the global warming is due to the perturbation of which of these cycles?
(a) Global nitrogen cycle
(b) Global carbon cycle
(c) Global water cycle
(d) All of these cycles equally contribute
Answer: (b)
Q- This carbon isotope is radioactive and very rare
(a) Carbon – 11
(b) Carbon – 12
(c) Carbon – 13
(d) Carbon – 14
Answer: (d)
Q- By this method, the majority of carbon moves from the lithosphere to the atmosphere
(a) erosion
(b) deposition
(c) weathering
(d) fossil fuel burning
Answer: (d)
Q- These entities sequester most carbon from the atmosphere
(a) Plants
(b) Archaea
(c) Bacteria
(d) Insects
Answer: (a)
Q- Haemophilia is caused by
(a) Bacteria
(b) Virus
(c) Genetic mutation
(d) Cause unknown
Answer: (c)
Q- This is a complication of haemophilia
(a) Bleeding in the head
(b) joint swelling
(c) death
(d) all of these
Answer: (d)
Q- In patients with haemophilia, which of these can increase the risk of cerebral microbleeds?
(a) cardiovascular risk factors
(b) increased age
(c) Hepatitis C infection
(d) all of these
Answer: (d)
Q- This disease falls under the same category as colourblindness in man
(a) Presbyopia
(b) Night blindness
(c) Diabetes insipidus
(d) Haemophilia
Answer: (d)
Q- This is ineffective against antibiotics
(a) bacterial infected gonorrhoea
(b) bacterial infected wound
(c) haemophilia
(d) bacterial infected throat
Answer: (c)
Q- This lacks in patients with haemophilia A
(a) X chromosome
(b) Calcium
(c) Antihemophilic factor
(d) Plasma thromboplastin
Answer: (c)
Q- Rarely females experience the physiological defect of haemophilia as they do so only when they are
(a) carrier for the defect
(b) wives of haemophilic husbands
(c) homozygous for the defect
(d) heterozygous for the defect
Answer: (c)
Q- Haemophilia is
(a) X – linked
(b) Y – linked
(c) Z – linked
(d) Autosomal
Answer: (a)
Q- Haemophilia is as a result of a lack of
(a) STH
(b) ADH
(c) AHF
(d) ACTH
Answer: (c)
Q- The reason why haemophilia is more commonly observed in human males than in females is due to
(a) the disease is due to Y-linked recessive mutation
(b) the disease is due to X-linked recessive mutation
(c) as a huge population of girls die in infancy
(d) the disease is due to X-linked dominant mutation
Answer: (b)
Q- This fungi division includes ‘Club fungi’
(a) Zygomycota
(b) Deuteromycota
(c) Basidiomycota
(d) Ascomycota
Answer: (c)
Q- This group is used to represent pathological fungi
(a) Penicillium
(b) Truffles, mushrooms and morels
(c) Smuts, rusts and moulds
(d) All of the above
Answer: (c)
Q- The fungi which derive their food directly from dead organic matter are known as
(a) Predators
(b) Decomposers
(c) Mutualists
(d) Parasitic fungi
Answer: (b)
Q- What is the name of the special hyphal tips through which parasitic fungi absorb nutrients directly from the cytoplasm of the living host?
(a) Haustoria
(b) Mildew
(c) Constricting ring
(d) All of the above
Answer: (a)
Q- Which of these entities is an indicator of the SO2 pollution of air?
(a) Puffballs
(b) Mushrooms
(c) Mosses
(d) Lichens
Answer: (d)
Q- The fungal disease – the black rust of wheat is caused by
(a) Melampsora lini
(b) Claviceps purpurea
(c) Puccinia graminis tritici
(d) Albugo candida
Answer: (c)
Q- What does ‘Perfect stage’ of a fungus indicate?
(a) indicates that it can reproduce asexually
(b) indicates that it is perfectly healthy
(c) indicates that it is able to form perfect sexual spores
(d) All of the above
Answer: (c)
Q- Death angel/death cap (amanita) and Jack O Lantern mushroom are all examples of
(a) Poisonous mushrooms
(b) Edible mushrooms
(c) None of the above
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: (a)
Q- Covered smut of Sorghum is caused by
(a) Sphacelotheca sorghi
(b) Sphacelotheca cruenta
(c) Sphacelotheca reiliana
(d) Tolyposporium ehrenbergii
Answer: (a)
Q- Oyster mushroom is an example of predator fungi that attacks
(a) Tapeworms
(b) Pinworms
(c) Platyhelminthes
(d) Roundworms
Answer: (d)
Q- Which of the following factors promotes the opening of the stomatal aperture?
(a) A decrease in guard cell turgidity
(b) When the outer walls of the guard cells contracts
(c) Radial orientation of the cellulose microfibrils in the cell wall of the guard cells
(d) The longitudinal orientation of the cellulose microfibrils in the cell wall of guard cells
Answer: (c)
Q- Which of the following is made of dead cells?
(a) Phloem
(b) Phellem
(c) Collenchyma
(d) Xylem parenchyma
Answer: (b)
Q- Which of the following statement are true about the Tyloses – the balloon-shaped structures?
(a) Characterise the sapwood
(b) Original in the lumen of vessels
(c) Are linked to the ascent sap through xylem vessels
(d) Are extensions of the xylem parenchyma cells into vessels
Answer: (d)
Q- Which of the following events takes place in a ring girdled plant?
(a) The eath of the root first
(b) The death of the shoot first
(a) The shoots and the root dies first
(d) Neither the shoot nor the root will die
Answer: (c)
Q- This is one of the most recent and valid explanations for stomatal movements.
(a) Starch hydrolysis
(b) Transpiration
(c) Guard cell photosynthesis
(d) Potassium efflux and the influx
Answer: (d)
Q- Which of the following are the primary water-conducting elements of xylem in gymnosperms?
(a) Fibres
(b) Vessels
(c) Tracheids
(d) Transfusion tissue
Answer: (c)
Q- Which of the following is not a lateral meristem?
(a) Phellogen
(b) Cork cambium
(c) Intercalary meristem
(d) Interfascicular cambium
Answer: (c)
Q- In monocots, grafting is not possible as _________
(a) They show parallel venation
(b) they have scattered vascular bundles
(c) they lack cambium
(d) they are herbaceous
Answer: (c)
Q- Vascular bundles are closed in monocots as:
(a) presence of vascular cambium between xylem and phloem
(b) presence of xylem and phloem
(c) absence of vascular cambium
(d) xylem and phloem occur in separate bundles
Answer: (c)
Q- Difference between heartwood and sapwood is that heartwood
(a) shows the presence of fibres and rays
(b) has dead and non-conducting elements
(c) lacks parenchyma and vessels
(d) is susceptible to pathogens and pests
Answer: (b)
Q- A DNA molecule in which both strands have radioactive thymidine is permitted to replicate in an environment that contains non-radioactive thymidine. What is the right number of DNA molecules which possess some radioactive thymidine post three duplications?
(a) one such molecule
(b) two such molecules
(c) four such molecules
(d) eight such molecules
Answer: (b)
Q- If the DNA strand has nitrogenous base sequence ATTGCC, the mRNA will have?
(a) ATTGCA
(b) UGGACC
(c) UAACGG
(d) ATCGCC
Answer: (c)
Q- The type of coiling in DNA is
(a) Zig-zag
(b) Left-handed
(c) Opposite
(d) Right-handed
Answer: (d)
Q- Tryptophan synthetase of E.coli, a typical bifunctional oligomeric enzyme consists of
(a) a protein A and one subunit A
(b) a protein designated A
(c) two proteins designated A and B
(d) a protein designated B
Answer: (c)
Q- This statement about enzymes is true
(a) enzymes accelerate reactions by lowering the activation energy
(b) enzymes are proteins whose three-dimensional form is key to their function
(c) enzymes do not alter the overall change in free energy for a reaction
(d) all of these
Answer: (d)
Q- The enzyme COX-1 is vital for human health in this way:
(a) it is a chemical derivative of aspirin
(b) catalyzes the hormone-production which maintains the stomach lining
(c) critical for the biosynthesis of DNA
(d) helps in the transportation of carbon dioxide in the blood
Answer: (b)
Q- The hot spots of biodiversity are characterized by:
(a) low endemicity and low threat of extinction
(b) low endemicity and high threat of extinction
(c) high endemicity and low threat of extinction
(d) high endemicity and high threat of extinction
Answer: (d)
Q- Presence of plants organised into well defined vertical layers based on their heights can be best observed in
(a) grassland
(b) tropical savannah
(c) tropical rain forest
(d) temperate forest
Answer: (c)
Q- Which of these is related to Ex-situ conservation of threatened plants and animals?
(a) Biodiversity hotspots
(b) Wildlife safari parks
(c) Amazon rainforest
(d) Himalayan region
Answer: (b)
Q- The region of biosphere reserve that is protected legally, where no human activity takes place is known as
(a) transition zone
(b) buffer zone
(c) core zone
(d) restoration zone
Answer: (c)
Q- Pick the correct match
(a) Stratification – Population
(b) Aerenchyma – Opuntia
(c) Age Pyramid – Biome
(d) Parthenium hysterophorus – a threat to biodiversity
Answer: (d)
Q- The National aquatic animal of India is
(a) Sea horse
(b) River Dolphin
(c) Blue whale
(d) Gangetic shark
Answer: (b)
Q- The nature of an enzyme is
(a) Lipid
(b) Vitamin
(c) Carbohydrate
(d) Protein
Answer: (d)
Q- In alcoholism, this enzyme is elevated
(a) acid phosphatase
(b) hepatitis
(c) serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase
(d) glutamyl transpeptidase
Answer: (d)
Q- With regards to enzyme action, this statement is incorrect
(a) Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase
(b) the substrate binds with the enzyme at its active site
(c) the non-competitve inhibitor binds the enzyme at a site distinct from that binding the substrate
(d) addition of a lot of succinates does not reverse the inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate
Answer: (d)
Q- What is the count of genes that determine the synthesis of one enzyme?
(a) One
(b) Four
(c) Eight
(d) Sixteen
Answer: (a)
Q- This enzyme was first isolated and purified in the form of crystals
(a) Urease
(b) pepsin
(c) Amylase
(d) Ribonuclease
Answer: (a)
Q- Macromolecule chitin is
(a) a simple polysaccharide
(b) sulphur containing polysaccharide
(c) phosphorous containing polysaccharide
(d) nitrogen containing polysaccharide
Answer: (d)
Q- Enzyme-driven metabolic pathways can be made more efficient by
(a) grouping enzymes into multienzyme free-floating complexes
(b) concentrating enzymes with specific cellular compartments
(c) fixing enzymes into membranes so they are adjacent to each other
(d) all of these
Answer: (d)
Q- DNA fingerprinting recognizes the differences in
(a) satellite DNA
(b) bulk DNA
(c) Repetitive DNA
(d) both (a) and (c)
Answer: (d)
Q- This force can stabilize a DNA double-helix
(a) Hydrophilic sugar-phosphate groups are found on the exterior of the helix where interaction with water occurs
(b) Hydrophobic bases are present in the interior of the helix, each base-pair is stabilized by the same number of hydrogen bonds
(c) covalent base stacking interactions may take place between neighbouring bases within the same strand in the helix
(d) non-covalent N-glycosidic bonds may form between nitrogenous bases in opposite strands in the helix
Answer: (a)
Q- In this type of DNA replication, of the two newly formed molecules, one is purely a new one and the other is an old one
(a) dispersive
(b) conservative
(c) semiconservative
(d) both (b) and (c)
Answer: (c)
Q- The process of DNA replication is affected by an enzyme known as
(a) Mutase
(b) Ligase
(c) Polymerase I
(d) Ribonuclease
Answer: (c)
Q- In DNA, the enzyme which breaks the H2 bonds is
(a) Ligase
(b) Helicase
(c) Topoisomerase
(d) Polymerase
Answer: (b)
Q- The total DNA comprises what amount of cytoplasmic DNA in cells?
(a) 95-99%
(b) 65-75%
(c) 45-50%
(d) 1-5%
Answer: (d)
Q- The bases are held together in a DNA double helix by hydrogen bonds. These bonds are
(a) Ionic bonds
(b) Covalent bonds
(c) Non-covalent bonds
(d) Van der Waals forces
Answer: (c)
Q- The most important reason for biodiversity loss in today’s age is
(a) over-exploitation
(b) co-extinctions
(c) alien species invasions
(d) fragmentation and habitat loss
Answer: (d)
Q- Biodiversity loss can lead to everything except this
(a) increased resistance to the environmental perturbance
(b) a decline in plant production
(c) increased variability in water use
(d) increased variability in pest and disease cycle
Answer: (a)
Q- Which of these is not a reason accounting for greater biodiversity of tropics?
(a) more niche specialization
(b) availability of more solar energy
(c) more time for species diversification
(d) large seasonal variations in environmental factors
Answer: (d)
Q- The main difference between the ‘Sixth extinction’ and the previous five extinctions is that, the sixth extinction
(a) mainly affects plants
(b) mainly occurs on islands
(c) occurs at a faster rate
(d) is exclusive of human activities
Answer: (c)
Q- Calculate the velocity of the light ray in the medium, if the critical angle for TIR from medium to the vacuum is 30°.
(a) 2 x 108 m/s
(b) 1.5 x 108 m/s
(c) 0.75 x 108 m/s
(d) 3 x 108 m/s
Answer::: (b) 1.5 x 108 m/s
Q- Which of the following is the combination that is used in the formation of achromatic lenses?
(a) 1 convex and 1 plane mirror
(b) 2 convex lenses
(c) 1 convex and 1 concave lens
(d) 2 concave lenses
Answer:: (c) 1 convex and 1 concave lens
Q- How does magnifying power change for an objective lens if the focal length of the objective lens is increased?
(a) The microscope will decrease but for the telescope, it will increase
(b) The microscope will increase but for the telescope, it decreases
(c) The microscope and telescope will increase
(d) The microscope and telescope will decrease
Answer:: (a) The microscope will decrease but for the telescope, it will increase
Q- What is the magnification produced by the plane mirror?
(a) Zero
(b) +1
(c) -1
(d) Between 0 and +∞
Answer:: (b) +1
Q- What happens to the refractive index on heating the liquid?(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains unchanged
(d) Increases or decreases depending on the rate of heating
Answer:: (b) Decreases
Q- Calculate the speed of light in water if the refractive index of water is 1.33(a) 4 x 108 m/s
(b) 2.25 x 108 m/s
(c) 1.33 x 108 m/s
(d) 3 x 108 m/s
Answer:: (b) 2.25 x 108 m/s
Q- What is hypermetropia?
(a) Bad vision due to age
(b) Short-sightedness
(c) Long-sightedness
(d) Formation of a layer on the eye
Answer:: (c) Long-sightedness
Q- Rainbow is an example of which phenomenon?
(a) Refraction and scattering
(b) Refraction and total internal reflection
(c) Dispersion and reflection
(d) Dispersion and total internal reflection
Answer:: (d) Dispersion and total internal reflection
Q- What does the internal resistance of a cell mean?
(a) The resistance of the material used in the cell
(b) The vessel of the cell
(c) The electrodes of the cell
(d) The electrolyte used in the cell
Answer:: (d) The electrolyte used in the cell
Q- A potentiometer is considered a versatile and accurate device to make an electrical measurement of EMF. Why?
(a) Because the method involves a combination
(b) There are cells involved
(c) Because of potential gradients
(d) As there is no flow of current through the galvanometer
Answer:: (d) As there is no flow of current through the galvanometer
Q- Consider copper and aluminium wire whose length and resistance are the same. Also, the specific resistance of aluminium is more than copper. Select the correct statement
(a) Copper and aluminium mass are the same
(b) Copper wire has more mass than the aluminium wire
(c) Copper wire has less mass than the aluminium wire
(d) The information given is incomplete
Answer:: (d) The information given is incomplete
Q- Following is the graph which represents the thermo EMF of two different metals which are joined end to end. One end of the metal is kept at a constant temperature while the other end is heated at very high temperature.
Answer:: (d)
Q- Select the graph which depicts the variation in thermoelectric power and the temperature difference between the hot and cold junction in the thermocouples
Answer:: (a)
Q- Which of the following represents the relationship between the current flowing, i through the electric heater and the time taken, It.
Answer:: (b)
Q- Consider three voltmeters A, B, and C with resistance R, 1.5R, and 3R respectively. Potential difference is applied across the points X and Y, the voltmeter readings are VA, VB, and VC.
(a) VA = VB ≠ VC
(b) VA ≠ VB ≠ VC
(c) VA = VB = VC
(d) VA ≠ VB = VC
Answer:: (c) VA = VB = VC
Q- What is the ratio of power dissipated if two electric bulbs are connected in series and the ratio of their resistance is 1:2?
(a) 1:4
(b) 1:2
(c) 2:1
(d) 1: 1
Answer:: (b) 1:2
Q- What is the principle behind thermocouple
(a) Joule effect
(b) Thomson effect
(c) Seebeck effect
(d) Peltier effect
Answer:: (c) Seebeck effect
Q- According to Faraday’s laws of electrolysis, to which of the following is the amount of decomposition proportional to?
(a) The electrochemical equivalent of the substance
(b)1time for which current passes
Answer:: (a) The electrochemical equivalent of the substance
Q- Lenz law is based on which of the following conservation>
(a) Charge
(b) Mass
(c) Momentum
(d) Energy
Answer:: (d) Energy
Q- What will be the acceleration of the falling bar magnet which passes through the ring such that the ring is held horizontally and the bar magnet is dropped along the axis of the ring?
(a) It depends on the diameter of the ring and the length of the magnet
(b) It is equal due to gravity
(c) It is less than due to gravity
(d) It is more than due to gravity
Answer:: (c) It is less than due to gravity
Q- An observer is seeing the setup of an aluminium ring B facing an electromagnet A. The current I through A can be altered if
(a) B is independent of an increase or decrease of I
(b) If I increases, A will attract B
(c) If I increase, A will repel B
(d) If I decrease, A will repel B
Answer:: (c) If I increase, A will repel B
Q- What is the equivalent inductance of the following circuit if the pure inductance is 3.0H
(a) 9H
(b) 3H
(c) 1H
(d) 2H
Answer:: (c) 1H
Q- What is the need for laminating the core of a transformer?
(a) To reduce the resistance in the winding
(b) To reduce the eddy currents
(c) To reduce the hysteresis
(d) None of the above
Answer:: (b) To reduce the eddy currents
Q- Which of the following represent the variation of induced EMF with respect to time t if a short bar magnet is moved along its axis and has a constant velocity.
Answer:: (b)
Q- A wire loop is rotated in a magnetic field such that the frequency of change of direction of the induced emf is
(a) Six times per revolution
(b) Four times per revolution
(c) Twice per revolution
(d) Once per revolution
Answer:: (c) Twice per revolution
Q- Which of the following is the equivalent quantity of mass in electricity?
(a) Current
(b) Charge
(c) Potential
(d) Inductance
Answer:: (d) Inductance
Q- What is the unit of inductance?
(a) Volt/ampere
(b) Joule/ampere
(c) Volt-ampere/sec
(d) Volt-sec/ampere
Answer:: (d) Volt-sec/ampere
Q- What is the angle made by the plane of eddy currents with the plane of magnetic lines of force?
(a) 0°
(b) 40°
(c) 90°
(d) 180°
Answer:: (c) 90°
Q- Which of the following graph depicts the variation in the potential energy for a particle executing SHM at the origin x = 0?
Answer:: (d)
Q- Which of the following graph represents the variation in the potential energy as a function of time t and displacement x if the displacement of the particle is x = A cos⍵t
(a)I,IV
(b) II, III
(c) I,III
(d) II,IV
Answer:: (c) I,III
Q- Calculate the amplitude for a SHM using the equation x = 3sin2pt + 4cos3pt
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 7
Answer:: (b) 5
Q- What is the constant of propotionality of an oscillator if the damping force is directly propotional to the velocity
(a) kg.s-1
(b) kg.m.s-1
(c) kg.s
(d) kg.m.s-2
Answer:: (a) kg.s-1
Q- What is the phase difference between the prongs of the tuning fork
(a) 5π
(b) π
(c) 2π
(d) 3π
Answer:: (b) π
Q- What is the change in the phase if a wave is reflected from a denser medium
(a) 3π
(b) 0
(c) π
(d) 2π
Answer:: (c) π
Q- The observer hears a sound from the source which is moving away from the observer who is stationary. Determine the frequency of the sound
(a) It is halved
(b) It remains the same
(c) It reaches infinity
(d) It gets doubled
Answer:: (a) It is halved
Q- The length of the pendulum which is displaying SHM is increased by 21%. Calculate the percentage increase in the periodic time of the pendulum.
(a) 21%
(b) 10%
(c) 11%
(d) 42%
Answer:: (b) 10%
Q- Which of the following does not exhibit polarization
(a) Longitudinal wave in a gas
(b) Transverse wave in a gas
(c) Neither (a) nor (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:: (a) Longitudinal wave in a gas
Q- Name the law that states the force between electric charges
(a) Ohm’s law
(b) Coulomb’s law
(c) Faraday’s law
(d) Ampere’s law
Answer:: (b) Coulomb’s law
Q- What happens to the force acting between the charged particles, if the distance between these charged particles is halved?
(a) It increases by four times
(b) It gets doubled
(c) It becomes half
(d) It reduces by one-fourth
Answer:: (a) It increases by four times
Q- What is the electric potential of the points A, B, and C which are in a uniform electric field?
(a) The electric field is the same at all three points A, B, and C
(b) Maximum at A
(c) Maximum at B
(d) Maximum at C
Answer:: (c) Maximum at B
Q- What is the minimum charge on a particle?
(a) 1 Coulomb
(b) 1.6 x 10-19 Coulomb
(c) 3.2 x 10-19 Coulomb
(d) 6.6 x 10-19 Coulomb
Answer:: (b) 1.6 x 10-19 Coulomb
Q- For a hollow spherical shell, potential, V changes with respect to distance, r from the centre. Which graph from the following represents this?
Answer:: (b)
Q- What is the graphical representation of an electric field due to the uniformly charged sphere of radius R which is a function of distance from the centre?
Answer:: (a)
Q- The capacity of parallel plate condenser is dependent on the
(a) The separation between the plates
(b) The metal used for the construction
(c) The thickness of the plate
(d) The potential applied across the plates
Answer:: (a) The separation between the plates
Q- What does an electric dipole experience when it is kept in the non-uniform electric field?
(a) Only a force
(b) Only torque
(c) Force and torque both
(d) Neither force nor torque
Answer:: (c) Force and torque both
Q- The capacitance of the capacitor is independent of
(a) The charges present on the plate
(b) The distance of separation between the plates
(c) The shape of the plates
(d) The size of the plates
Answer:: (d) The size of the plates
Q- Choose the correct statement
(a) A body can be accelerated by frictional force
(b) There can be zero friction
(c) Kinetic friction is greater than rolling friction
(d) Frictional force and area of contact between the two surfaces are proportional
Answer:: (c) Kinetic friction is greater than rolling friction
Q- Consider a car that overturns while taking a turn. Select the option that is experienced by the wheels of the car.
(a) First, both inner, as well as the outer wheel, leave the ground
(b) First, the inner wheel leaves the ground
(c) The inner wheel experiences no change
(d) None of the above
Answer:: (b) First, the inner wheel leaves the ground
Q- Let two bodies be with masses 2kg and 5kg respectively. Let these bodies be at rest with the same force acting on them. Calculate the ratio of times that is required by both the bodies to reach the final velocity.
(a) 2:5
(b) 25:4
(c) 5:3
(d) 4:25
Answer:: (a) 2:5
Q- Let A, B, and C be the three blocks of mass 2kg each. These blocks are hanging over a pulley with the help of a string. What is the tension produced by the string connecting B and C?
(a) 3.3N
(b) 0
(c) 13.1N
(d) 19.6N
Answer:: (c) 13.1N
Q- Consider three masses of 1kg, 3kg and 6kg which are connected to each other and are placed horizontally on the table. Calculate the acceleration of this system. Consider g = 10m/s.
(a) 3
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) 2
Answer:: (d) 2
Q- From the following diagram, select the correct diagram when a vessel containing water is given a constant acceleration towards the right along the straight line.
Answer:: (c)
Q- Consider a man standing on the spring balance such that the reading on the spring balance is 60kg. If the man jumps out of the spring balance what will be the final reading of the spring balance?(a) Remains unchanged
(b) Increases
(c) Decreases
(d) First increases then decrease to zero
Answer:: (d) First increases then decreases to zero
Q- Which of the following should be constant for a body to have a constant momentum?
(a) Acceleration
(b) Force
(c) Velocity
(d) All of the above
Answer:: (d) All of the above
Q- Following is the diagram of the thermodynamic process. Refer the diagram and match the following
P Process – I (a) Adiabatic
Q Process – II (b) Isobaric
R Process – III (c) Isochoric
S Process – IV (d) Isothermal
(a) (P,c), (Q,d), (R,b), (S,a)
(b) (P,c), (Q,d), (R,b), (S,a)
(c) (P,a), (Q,c), (R,d), (S,b)
(d) (P,c), (Q,a), (R,d), (S,b)
Answer:: (d) (P,c), (Q,a), (R,d), (S,b)
Q- Which of the following process is used to do maximum work done on the ideal gas if the gas is compressed to half of its initial volume?
(a) Isothermal
(b) Isochoric
(c) Isobaric
(d) Adiabatic
Answer:: (d) Adiabatic
Q- The coefficient performance of a refrigerator is 5. If the temperature inside the freezer is -20℃, calculate the heat rejected to the surrounding
(a) 11℃
(b) 41℃
(c) 21℃
(d) 31℃
Answer:: (d) 31℃
Q- A thermodynamic system is explained with the help of the graph ABCD. What is the heat rejected by the system during the cycle?
(a) pV
(b) 2pV
(c) 4pV
(d) 1/2pV
Answer:: (b) 2PV
Q- Select the incorrect statement
(a) For the triple point of water, 1°K is equal to 1/273.16.
(b) The first law of thermodynamics is also known as the law of thermal equilibrium
(c) The triple point of water is one of the reference points on the thermodynamic scale of temperature
(d) At room temperature, the heat of combustion is not found
Answer:: (d) At room temperature, the heat of combustion is not found
Q- What is a necessary condition for a reaction to be spontaneous at all temperatures?
(a) ΔH < ΔG
(b) ΔG and ΔH should be positive
(c) ΔH = ΔG = 0
(d) ΔG and ΔH should be negative
Answer:: (d) ΔG and ΔH should be negative
Q- A gas is compressed to half of its initial volume isothermally. The same gas is compressed again until the volume reduces to half through an adiabatic process. Then
(a) Work done during isothermal compression is more
(b) Work done is independent of the processes used for compression
(c) Work done is more during the adiabatic process
(d) Work done is dependent on the atomicity of the gas
Answer:: (c) Work done is more during the adiabatic process
Q- Select the factor that affects the heat of reaction which is based on Kirchoff’s equation
(a) Molecularity
(b) Temperature
(c) Pressure
(d) Volume
Answer:: (b) Temperature
Q- For all the reactions what is the nature of the chemical dissociation?
(a) Exothermic
(b) Reversible
(c) Endothermic
(d) Reversible and endothermic
Answer:: (d) Reversible and endothermic
Q- Which of the following is the largest unit of energy
(a) Electron volt
(b) Joule
(c) Calorie
(d) Erg
Answer:: (c) Calorie
Q- How many numbers of base SI units are there?
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 7
(d) 9
Answer:: (c) 7
Q- What is the percentage error in the measurement of the kinetic energy of a body, if there is a positive error of 50% in the speed of the body
(a) 125%
(b) 30%
(c) 50%
(d) 100%
Answer:: (d) 100 %
Q- What is the dimensional formula of torque and energy
(a) [ML-3T-2] and [MLT-2]
(b) [ML2T-2] and [MLT-2]
(c) [ML2T-2] and [ML2T2]
(d) [MLT2] and [ML2T2]
Answer:: (c) [ML2T-2] and [ML2T2]
Q- Identify the physical parameters that are having the same dimensions from the below-given list:
(i) Magnetic field
(ii) Energy density
(iii) Refractive index
(iv) Young’s modulus
(v) Dielectric constant
(a) (ii) and (iv)
(b) (i) and (v)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (iv) and (iii)
Answer:: (a) (ii) and (iv)
Q- Which the following is a dimensionless quantity
(a) Refractive index
(b) Gravitational constant
(c) Velocity
(d) Planck’s constant
Answer:: (a) Refractive index
Q- Calculate the value of the dot product of the two vectors whose magnitudes are 3 units and 4 units and their resultant is 1 unit.
(a) +6 units
(b) 0
(c) -12 units
(d) -1 unit
Answer:: (c) -12 units
Q- Following are the readings obtained while measuring the diameter of a wire by using the screw gauge0 mm is the main scale reading
52 divisions are the circular scale reading
What is the diameter of the wire if 1 mm on the main scale is equal to the 100 divisions on the circular scale
(a) 0.016 cm
(b) 0.052 cm
(c) 0.15 cm
(d) 0.05 cm
Answer:: (b) 0.052 cm
Q- Below is the distance-time curve traced by the particle. What is the maximum instantaneous velocity of the particle around the point
(a) D
(b) B
(c) A
(d) C
Answer:: (d) C
Q- Which of the following statement is true if a body moves in a semicircular track whose radius is R
(a) 2R is the displacement of the body
(b) πR is the distance travelled by the body
(c) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(d) None of the above
Answer:: (c) Both (a) and (b) are correct
Q- What does the area under acceleration-time graph represent for any given time interval
(a) Final velocity
(b) Distance travelled
(c) Change in the velocity in that time interval
(d) Displacement of the particle
Answer:: (c) Change in the velocity in that time interval
Q- When can we say that the resultant of the two vectors is maximum
(a) When the vectors are acting in the opposite direction
(b) Both the vectors are acting in the same direction
(c) When the vectors are at right angles
(d) When the vectors are parallel to each other
Answer:: (b) Both the vectors are acting in the same direction
Q- What happens to the gravitational potential at the centre of the uniform spherical shell which shrinks gradually?
(a) Remains constant
(b) Decreases
(c) Increases
(d) Oscillates
Answer:: (b) Decreases
Q- Choose the factor on which the orbital velocity does not depend when the satellite is orbiting close to the earth’s surface
(a) The mass of the earth
(b) The mass of the satellite
(c) The orbital radius
(d) The radius of the earth
Answer:: (b) The mass of the satellite
Q- The atmosphere around the earth is held by
(a) Gravity
(b) Winds
(c) Clouds
(d) None of the above
Answer:: (a) Gravity
Q- By how much does kinetic energy increase if the momentum is increased by 20%
(a) 55%
(b) 66%
(c) 44%
(d) 77%
Answer:: (c) 44%
Q- Calculate the energy loss in a perfectly inelastic collision if the mass of the object is 40kg with velocity 4m/s hits the object of mass 60kg with velocity 2m/s.
(a) 440J
(b) 110J
(c) 392J
(d) 48J
Answer:: (d) 48J
Q- Calculate the final kinetic energy of a block of mass if the mass of the block is 10kg and has a constant velocity of 10m/s. The block of mass is subjected to a retarding force of F=0.1J/m
(a) 275J
(b) 250J
(c) 475J
(d) 450J
Answer:: (c) 475J
Q- What is the average power required to lift a mass of 100kg to a height of 50m in 50 seconds?
(a) 980
(b) 100
(c) 50
(d) 5000
Answer:: (a) 980
Q- What is the power of the engine when the velocity of the car is v, mass m, acceleration a, and external resistance R
(a) (R-ma)v
(b) (R+ma)v
(c) mav
(d)Rv
Answer:: (b) (R+ma)v
Q- When can one say that work is done on the body
(a) When the body experiences force
(b) When there is an increase in energy because of mechanical influence
(c) When the body moves a certain distance
(d) None of the above
Answer:: (b) When there is an increase in energy because of mechanical influence
Q- Select the incorrect statement for the given situation: Two bodies with mass m1 and m2 undergo elastic collision
(a) When m1 and m2 is at rest, the kinetic energy transferred will be maximum
(b) The bodies will move in the same direction if m1 = m2 and when the collision is in oblique
(c) When m1 > m2, m2 will move with four times increase in its velocity than m1
(d) When m1 < m2, the transfer of momentum will be maximum
Answer:: (c) When m1 > m2, m2 will move with four times increase in its velocity than m1
Q- What is the ratio of velocities of a nucleus that splits into two parts with radii 1:2
(a) 6:1
(b) 2:1
(c) 8:1
(d) 4:1
Answer:: (c) 8:1
Q- Which of the compounds can exist together?
(a) HgCl2, SnCl2
(b) FeCl3, KI
(c) FeCl3, SnCl2
(d) FeCl2, SnCl2
Answer: (d)
Q- One mole of ferrous oxalate requires____ moles of MnO4– to get oxidised completely in an acidic medium
(a) 0.6 moles
(b) 0.4 moles
(c) 0.2 moles
(d) 7.5 moles
Answer: (b)
Q- H2O2 changes Cr2O72- ion to CrO5 in an acidic medium, the oxidation state of Cr in CrO5 is
(a) +6
(b) +5
(c) -10
(d) +3
Answer: (a)
Q- H2SO4 acts as a strong oxidising agent. In which of the reaction, is it not acting as an oxidising agent?
(a) C + 2H2SO4 → CO2 + 2SO2 + 2H2O
(b) CaF2 + 2H2SO4 → CaSO4 + 2HF
(c) S + 2H2SO4 → 3SO2 + H2O
(d) Cu + 2H2SO4 → CuSO4 + SO2 + 2H2O
Answer: (b)
Q- During a reaction of oxalic acid, potassium chlorate and sulphuric acid, the oxidation number of which of the element undergoes a maximum change
(a) H
(b) S
(c) C
(d) Cl
Answer: (d)
Q- Find the redox reaction
(a) In the atmosphere, O3 from O2 by lighting
(b) The reaction of H2SO4 with NaOH
(c) Both oxidation and reduction reaction
(d) Evaporation of water
Answer: (c)
Q- Find the oxidation state of I in H4IO6–
(a) +7
(b) +5
(c) +1
(d) -1
Answer: (a)
Q- In which of the following complex, the oxidation number of Fe is +1?
(a) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
(b) [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4
(c) [FeBr4]–
(d) [Fe(H2O)6]2-
Answer: (b)
Q-Which among the following compounds is the most reducing compound?
(a) H2S
(b) HNO2
(c) SnCl2
(d) H2SO3
Answer: (a)
Q- Which among the following is the strongest oxidising agent?
(a) H2O2
(b) O3
(c) K2Cr2O7
(d) KMnO4
Answer: (b)
Q- Find the pH of a solution when 0.01 M HCl and 0.1 M NaOH are mixed in equal volumes
(a) 12.65
(b) 1.04
(c) 7.0
(d) 2.0
Answer: (a)
Q- Which of the following aqueous solution will be the best conductor of electricity?
(a) NH3
(b) CH3COOH
(c) HCl
(d) C6H12O6
Answer: (c)
Q- In 0.10 M aqueous solution of pyridine (C5H5N), find the percentage of pyridine that forms pyridinium ion (C5H5N+H) (Kb for C5H5N = 1.7 x 10-9 )
(a) 1.6%
(b) 0.77%
(c) 0.0060%
(d) 0.013%
Answer: (d)
Q- Find the equilibrium constant of the reaction
If the equilibrium constant for the following reactions are given
(a) K2K3/K1
(b) K1K33/K2
(c) K2K33/K1
(d) K23K3/K1
Answer: (c)
Q- Highest pH will be recorded for which of the following solutions if they are equimolar
(a) AlCl3
(b) BaCl2
(c) BeCl2
(d) LiCl
Answer: (b)
Q-The equilibrium constant is 278 for the reaction
at the same temperature, what will be the equilibrium constant for the following reaction?
(a) 6 x 10-2
(b) 1.8 x 10-3
(c) 1.3 x 10-5
(d) 3.6 x 10-5
Answer: (a)
Q- What will be the pH of a buffer solution having an equal concentration of B– and HB (Kb = 10-10 for B–)
(a) 7
(b) 4
(c) 10
(d) 6
Answer: (b)
Q- Find the increase in equilibrium concentration of Fe3+ ions if OH– ions concentration decreases to 1/4th in the following reaction
(a) 8 times
(b) 16 times
(c) 4 times
(d) 64 times
Answer: (d)
Q- On increasing the concentration of reactants in a reversible reaction, then equilibrium constant will
(a) depend on the concentration
(b) increase
(c) unchanged
(d) decrease
Answer: (c)
Q- Find the conjugate acid of NH2–
(a) NH3
(b) NH4OH
(c) NH4+
(d) NH2–
Answer: (a)
Q- What will be the value of ΔH, if the forward and reverse reactions have the same energy of activation?
(a) ΔH = ΔG = ΔS = 0
(b) ΔS = 0
(c) ΔG = 0
(d) ΔH = 0
Answer: (d)
Q- What will be the entropy change (ΔS), when an ideal gas undergoes a change in the pressure from pi to pf isothermally?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Answer: (a)
Q- Find out the relationship between x, y and z considering below three reactions
(a) y = 2z – x
(b) x = y – z
(c) x = y + z
(d) z = x + y
Answer: (c)
Q- What is the molar entropy change for melting of ice at 0℃, if ΔHf = 1.435 kcal/mol?
(a) 0.526 cal/(mol K)
(b) 5.26 cal/(mol K)
(c) 10.52 cal/(mol K)
(d) 21.04 cal/(mol K)
Answer: (b)
Q-What is the function of a catalyst in a chemical reaction?
(a) decrease rate constant of reaction
(b) increases activation energy of reaction
(c) reduces enthalpy of reaction
(d) does not affect the equilibrium constant of reaction
Answer: (d)
Q-What will be the work done by 3 moles of an ideal gas when it expands spontaneously in a vacuum?
(a) zero
(b) infinite
(c) 3 joules
(d) 9 joules
Answer: (a)
Q- Find the temperature at which the below reaction will be in equilibrium if the enthalpy and entropy change for the reaction is 30 kJ mol-1 and 105 J K-1 mol-1 respectively
Br2(l) + Cl2(g) → 2BrCl(g)
(a) 273 K
(b) 300 K
(c) 450 K
(d) 285.7 K
Answer: (d)
Q- Which is true for the entropy of a spontaneous reaction?
(a) ΔS(system) – ΔS(surroundings) > 0
(b) ΔS(system) + ΔS(surroundings) > 0
(c) ΔS(surroundings) > 0 only
(d) ΔS(system) > 0 only
Answer: (b)
Q- An ideal gas is expanded isothermally at 300 K from 1 litre to 10 litres. Find the ΔE for this process (R = 2 cal mol-1 K-1)
(a) 9 L atm
(b) 1381.1 cal
(c) zero
(d) 163.7 cal
Answer: (c)
Q-ΔH for the reaction N2 + 3H2 ⇋ 2NH3
(a) ΔE – 2RT
(b) ΔE + 2RT
(c) ΔE – RT
(d) ΔH = RT
Answer: (a)
MCQ’S ON PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS
Q- Find the successive elements of the periodic table with ionisation energies, 2372, 520 and 890 kJ per mol respectively
(a) Li, Be, B
(b) H, He, Li
(c) B, C, N
(d) He, Li, Be
Answer: (d)
Q- In the modern periodic table, the number of period of the element is the same as
(a) principal quantum number
(b) atomic number
(c) azimuthal quantum number
(d) atomic mass
Answer: (a)
Q-The correct order for the size of I, I+, I– is
(a) I > I– > I+
(b) I > I+ > I–
(c) I– > I > I+
(d) I+ > I– > I
Answer: (c)
Q- For the same value of n, the penetration power of orbital follows the order
(a) s = p = d = f
(b) p > s > d > f
(c) f < d < p < s
(d) s < p < d < f
Answer: (c)
Q- Which of the reactions will need the maximum amount of energy?
(a) Na → Na+ + e–
(b) Ca+ → Ca++ + e–
(c) K+ → K+ ++ e–
(d) C2+ → C3+ + e–
Answer: (c)
Q- Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) I.E.1 of O is lower than that of N but I.E.2 O is higher than that of N
(b) The enthalpy of N to gain an electron is almost zero but of P is 74.3 kJ mol-1
(c) isoelectronic ions belong to the same period
(d) The covalent radius of iodine is less than its Van der Waal’s radius
Answer: (c)
Q-The correct order of electronegativity is
(a) Cl > F > O > Br
(b) F > O > Cl > Br
(c) F > Cl > Br > O
(d) O > F > Cl > Br
Answer: (b)
Q-Two different beakers contain M1-O-H, and M2-O-H solutions separately. Find the nature of the two solutions if the electronegativity of M1 = 3.4, M2 = 1.2, O = 3.5, H = 2.1
(a) acidic, acidic
(b) basic, acidic
(c) basic, basic
(d) acidic, basic
Answer: (d)
Q-Which one is the most acidic among these?
(a) MgO
(b) CaO
(c) Al2O3
(d) Na2O
Answer: (c)
Q-Which one will have the highest 2nd ionisation energy?
(a) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1
(b) 1s2 2s2 2p4
(c) 1s2 2s2 2p6
(d) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
Answer: (a)
Q- Which of the compounds is known as Slaked lime?
(a) CaO
(b) CaSO4
(c) Ca(OH)2
(d) CaCO3
Answer: (c)
Q-Which of the ions have maximum hydration energy?
(a) Sr2+
(b) Ca2+
(c) Mg2+
(d) Be2+
Answer: (d)
Q- As compared to K, Na has
(a) higher ionization potential
(b) lower melting point
(c) lower electronegativity
(d) larger atomic radius
Answer: (a)
Q-Which one is the most stable carbonate?
(a) BaCO3
(b) MgCO3
(c) CaCO3
(d) BeCO3
Answer: (a)
Q- Plaster of Paris (POP) is
(a) CaSO4 H2O
(b) CaSO4 2H2O
(c) CaSO4
(d) CaSO4 1/2H2O
Answer: (d)
Q- Which oxide is amphoteric?
(a) BaO
(b) CaO
(c) BeO
(d) MgO
Answer: (c)
Q- Be shows the diagonal relationship with
(a) Na
(b) Al
(c) Mg
(d) B
Answer: (b)
Q- The tendency to lose their valance electron easily by alkali metals makes them
(a) strong reducing agent
(b) weak reducing agent
(c) strong oxidising agent
(d) weak oxidising agent
Answer: (a)
Q- Which one is known as a fusion mixture?
(a) Na2CO3 + NaHCO3
(b) Na2CO3 + NaOH
(c) Na2CO3 + K2SO4
(d) Na2CO3 + K2CO3
Answer: (d)
Q- Find the incorrect trend for alkaline earth metals
(a) atomic size Be < Mg < Ca < Sr
(b) second ionization energy Be < Mg < Ca < Sr
(c) Hydration enthalpy Sr < Ca < Mg < Be
(d) Density Ca < Mg < Be < Sr
Answer: (b)
Q- C-O bond length is minimum in
(a) CO2
(b) CO32-
(c) HCOO–
(d) CO
Answer: (d)
Q- Molecules are held together in a crystal by
(a) hydrogen bond
(b) electrostatic attraction
(c) Van der Waal’s attraction
(d) dipole-dipole attraction
Answer: (c)
Q- Sp3d2 hybridization is present in [Co(NH3)63+], find its geometry
(a) octahedral geometry
(b) square planar geometry
(c) tetragonal geometry
(d) tetrahedral geometry
Answer: (a)
Q- Find the molecule with the maximum dipole moment
(a) CH4
(b) NH3
(c) CO2
(d) NF3
Answer: (b)
Q- MX6 is a molecule with octahedral geometry. How many X – M – X bonds are at 180°?
(a) four
(b) two
(c) three
(d) six
Answer: (c)
Find the pair with sp2 hybridisation of the central molecule
(a) NH3 and NO2–
(b) BF3 and NH2–
(c) BF3 and NO2–
(d) NH2– and H2O
Answer: (c)
Q- The formal charge and P-O bond order in PO43- respectively are
(a) 0.6, -0.75
(b) -0.75, 1.25
(c) 1.0, -0.75
(d) 1.25, -3
Answer: (b)
Q- Which of the molecules does not have a permanent dipole moment?
(a) SO3
(b) SO2
(c) H2S
(d) CS2
Answer: (d)
Q- pℼ – dℼ bonding is present in which molecule
(a) SO32-
(b) CO32-
(c) NO3–
(d) BO33-
Answer: (a)
Q- Which one has a pyramidal shape?
(a) SO3
(b) PCl3
(c) CO32-
(d) NO3–
Answer: (b)
Q- How many orbitals can have the following set of quantum numbers, n = 3, l = 1, m1 = 0 ?
(a) 3
(b) 1
(c) 4
(d) 2
Answer: (b)
Q-Electronic configuration of the outer shell of the element Gd with atomic number 64 is
(a) 4f4 5d5 6s1
(b) 4f3 5d5 6s2
(c) 4f5 5d4 6s1
(d) 4f7 5d1 6s2
Answer: (d)
Q- Maximum number of electrons in a subshell can be
(a) 4l + 2
(b) 4l – 2
(c) 2n2
(d) 2l + 1
Answer: (a)
Q-The orientation of atomic orbitals depends on their
(a) spin quantum number
(b) magnetic quantum number
(c) azimuthal quantum number
(d) principal quantum number
Answer: (b)
Q- A gas X has Cp and Cv ratio as 1.4, at NTP 11.2 L of gas X will contain_______ number of atoms
(a) 1.2 × 1023
(b) 3.01 × 1023
(c) 2.01 × 1023
(d) 6.02 × 1023
Answer: (d)
Q- Number of unpaired electrons in N2+
(a) 3
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 0
Answer: (b)
Q- The excitation energy of a hydrogen atom from its ground state to its third excited state is
(a) 12.75 eV
(b) 0.85 eV
(c) 10.2 eV
(d) 12.1 eV
Answer: (a)
Q- 3p orbital has _____ radial nodes
(a) three
(b) two
(c) one
(d) none
Answer: (c)
Q- A 0.66 kg ball is moving with a speed of 100 m/s. Find its wavelength
(a) 6.6 × 10-34 m
(b) 6.6 × 10-32 m
(c) 1.0 × 10-32 m
(d) 1.0 × 10-35 m
Answer: (d)
Q- Elements X and Y combine to form two compounds XY and X2Y. Find the atomic weight of X and Y, if the weight of 0.1 moles of XY is 10g and 0.05 moles of X2Y is 9g
(a) 30, 20
(b) 80, 20
(c) 60, 40
(d) 20, 30
Answer: (b)
Q- Which one will have maximum numbers of water molecules?
(a) 18 molecules of water
(b) 1.8 grams of water
(c) 18 grams of water
(d) 18 moles of water
Answer: (d)
Q- The number of atoms present in 0.1 moles of a triatomic gas is
(a) 1.806 × 1023
(b) 1.806 × 1022
(c) 3.600 × 1023
(d) 6.026 × 1022
Answer: (a)
Q- Find the volume of O2 required to burn 1 L of propane completely, measured at 0℃ temperature and 1 atm pressure
(a) 10 L
(b) 7 L
(c) 6 L
(d) 5 L
Answer: (d)
Q-A gas X has Cp and Cv ratio as 1.4, at NTP 11.2 L of gas X will contain_______ number of atoms
(a) 1.2 × 1023
(b) 3.01 × 1023
(c) 2.01 × 1023
(d) 6.02 × 1023
Answer: (d)
Q- Which of the species is not paramagnetic?
(a) As+
(b) Cl–
(c) Ne2+
(d) Be+
Answer: (b)
Q- Pressure has the same dimension as ____________
(a) energy per unit volume
(b) energy
(c) force per unit volume
(d) force
Answer: (a)
Q- A container has an equal mass of H2, O2 and CH4 at 27℃, the ratio of their volume is
(a) 16:8:1
(b) 8:1:2
(c) 16:1:2
(d) 8:16:1
Answer: (c)
Q- There are two chlorides of sulphur S2Cl2 and SCl2. What is the equivalent mass of S in SCl2
(a) 64.8 g/mole
(b) 32 g/mole
(c) 16 g/mole
(d) 8 g/mole
Answer: (c)
Q-Boron exists as two stable isotopes; 10B(19%) and 11B(81%). Find out the average atomic weight of boron in the periodic table
(a) 10.0
(b) 11.2
(c) 10.2
(d) 10.8
Answer: (d)
Q- Find the correct order of increasing acidity
Q- Identify Z in the given reaction:
Q- The product obtained on heating 2-Bromopentane with potassium ethoxide in ethanol is
(a) 1-pentene
(b) 2-cis-pentene
(c) trans-2-pentene
(d) 2-ethoxy pentane
Answer: (c)
Q- Choose the process by which liquid hydrocarbons can be converted to gaseous hydrocarbons
(a) hydrolysis
(b) oxidation
(c) cracking
(d) distillation under reduced pressure
Answer: (c)
Q- Which one of the following halide can be used in the Friedel-Crafts reaction?
(a) Isopropyl chloride
(b) Bromobenzene
(c) Chlorobenzene
(d) Chloroethene
Answer: (a)
Q- Which one of the following compound forms salt on reaction with NaNH2?
(a) C2H2
(b) C2H6
(c) C6H6
(d) C2H4
Answer: (a)
Q- Which among the following reagent can be used to distinguish between CH2BrCH=CH2 from CH3CH=CHBr?
(a) Br2/CCl4
(b) cold KMnO4
(c) AgNO3/C2H5OH
(d) Ag(NH3)2OH
Answer: (c)
Q- Isopropyl iodide is formed after reaction of propene with HI, this is due to
(a) more stable free radical
(b) homolysis
(c) more stable carbanion
(d) more stable carbocation
Answer: (d)
Q- C6H5CHO is formed when C6H6 is treated with CO and HCl in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3. Name of the reaction is:
(a) Friedel crafts reaction
(b) Gattermann Koch reaction
(c) Rosenmund reaction
(d) Stephen reaction
Answer: (b)
Q- A compound having a bond angle 180° is
(a) alkyne
(b) alkane
(c) alkene
(d) cycloalkane
Answer: (a)
