1. Post-transplantation hypertension can be caused by:I. Rejection. II. Cyclosporine nephrotoxicity.III. Renal transplant artery stenosis (RTAS).IV. Recurrent disease in the allograft.
A. I,II,III,IV are correct
B. I,II,IV are correct.
C. I & III are correct
D. None of the above is correct.
Answer: A
2. Most common cause of small intestine obstruction is?
A. Intussception
B. Idiopathic adhesions Tumors
C. Tumors
D. Postoperative adhesions
Answer: D
3. Best method to treat a large port-wine hemangioma is?
A. Radiotherapy
B. Tatooing
C. Excision with skin grafting
D. Pulsed dye Laser
Answer: D
4. Cock’s peculiar tumor is
A. Basal cell CA
B. Squamous cell CA
C. Ulcerated sebaceous cyst
D. Cylindroma
Answer: C
5. False about Gastric lymphoma is:
A. Stomach is the most common site
B. Asosciate with H. pylori infection
C. Total gastrectomy with adjuvant chemotherapy is the treatment of choice
D. 5 yr survival rate after treatment is 60%.
Answer: C
6. Which one of the following preservative is used while packing catgut suture?
A. Isopropyl alcohol
B. Colloidal iodine
C. Glutaraldehyde
D. Hydrogen peroxide
Answer: A
7. Primary hyperparathyroidism, phaeochromocytoma may be associated with which type of thyroid cancer?
A. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
B. Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid
C. Anaplastic carcinoma of the thyroid
D. Follicular carcinoma of the thyroid
Answer: A
8. The treatment of choice for squamous cell anal cancer?
A. Laser fulgaration
B. Chemoradiotherapy
C. Abdominoperennial resection
D. Platinum-based chemotherapy
Answer: B
9. Meconium ileus is associated with:
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Infant of diabetic mother
C. Hypothyroidism
D. None of the above
Answer: A
10. Commonest type of anal canal carcinoma is?
A. Squamous cell carcinoma
B. Adenocarcinoma
C. Adenoacanthoma
D. Papillary type
Answer: A
11. Which of the following nerve is commonly damaged during McBurney’s incision?
A. Subcostal nerve
B. 10th thoracic nerve
C. 11th thoracic nerve
D. Iliohypogastric nerve
Answer: D
12. Dysphagia lusoria is due to?
A. Esophageal diverticulum
B. Aneurysm of aorta
C. Esophageal web
D. Compression by aberrant blood vessel
Answer: D
13. All of the following are causes of hemobilia, EXCEPT:
A. Trauma to Abdomen
B. Malignancy
C. Rupture of hepatic artery aneurysm
D. Hepatitis
Answer: D
14. Linitis plastica is a type of :
A. Gastric ulcer
B. Ca stomach
C. Duodenal ulcer
D. None of the above
Answer: B
15. Surgery for undescended testis is recommended at what age?
A. 6 months
B. 12 months
C. 24 months
D. 36 months
Answer: A
16. AOnpatient who has fallen over a loose manhole cover is brought to the clinic. examination a perineal hematoma and blood in the external meatus is noted. Rupture of which of the following structure has resulted in perineal hematoma?
A. Rupture of membranous urethra
B. Rupture of bulbar urethra
C. Pelvic organ blunt trauma
D. Rupture of bladder
Answer: B
17. Commonest carcinoma that can cause splenic metastasis is which of the following?
A. Ca. Pancreas
B. Ca. Stomach
C. Ca. Ovary
D. Ca. Cervix
Answer: C
18. Spleniculi are seen most commonly in:
A. Colon
B. Hilum
C. Liver
D. Lungs
Answer: B
19. Which of the following stage of Breast Ca corresponds with following feature? Breast mass of 6 x 3 cm. size Ipsilateral supraclavicular lymph node Distant metastasis cannot be assessed
A. T4 N3 MX
B. T4 N1 M1
C. T4 N0 M0
D. T3 N3c MX
Answer: D
20. Dacron vascular graft is a:
A. Textile biologic
B. Textile synthetic
C. Nontextile biologic
D. Nontextile synthetic
Answer: B
21. The MOST common type of dislocation of elbow joint is:
A. Posterior
B. Posterolateral
C. Posteromedial
D. Lateral
Answer: A
22. Which of the following gas is most commonly used in laproscopy?
A. CO2
B. N2O
C. O2
D. Helium
Answer: A
23. What is the most common position of appendix?
A. Pelvic
B. Paracolic
C. Retrocaecal
D. Retroperitoneal
Answer: C
24. Most common primary bone tumour of hand is:
A. Osteoma
B. Osteochondroma
C. Enchondroma
D. None of the above
Answer: C
25.Which of the following Vitamin deficiency is seen in short bowel syndrome with ileal resection ?
A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin B 12
C. Vitamin B1
D. Folic acid
Answer: B
26. Double bubble sign seen in :
A. Duodenal atresia
B. Duodenal stenosis
C. Volvulus
D. All
Answer: D
27. In gastrectomy following occurs except
A. Calcium deficiency
B. Steatorrhoea
C. Fe. deficiency
D. Fluid loss
Answer: D
28. All of the following are features of Zollinger Ellison syndrome except
A. Intractable peptic ulcers
B. Severe diarrhoea
C. Beta cell tumors of the pancreas
D. Very high acid output.
Answer: C
29. Curlings ulcer is seen in
A. Burn patients
B. Patients with head injuries
C. Zollinger Ellison syndrome
D. Analgesic drug abuse
Answer: A
30. The most commonly practiced operative procedure for a perforated duodenal ulcer is
A. Vagotomy and pyloroplasty
B. Vagotomy and antrectomy
C. Vagotomy and perforation closure
D. Graham’s omentum patch repair
Answer: D
31. Prepyloric or channel ulcer in the stomach is termed as
A. type 1
B. type 2
C. type 3
D. type 4
Answer: C
32. Commonest cause of pyogenic liver abscess ?
A. Stricture of CBD
B. Biliary Colic
C. Appendicitis
D. Sigmoid Diverticulitis
Answer: A
33. All are true about amoebic liver abscess except:
A. More common in females
B. More common in left lobe of liver
C. Metronidazole is mainstay of treatment
D. a and b
Answer: D
34. False about hydatid cyst of liver:
A. Mostly asymptomatic
B. Most commonly located in right lobe of liver
C. Most common causative organism is echinococcus granulosus
D. Hepatic resection is never done
Answer: D
35. Indications of Liver transplantation are
All/Except
A. Biliary atresia
B. Sclerosing cholangitis
C. Hepatitis A
D. Cirrhosis
Answer: C
36. Kehr’s sign seen in splenic rupture is
A. Pain over left shoulder
B. Pain over right scapula
C. Periumbilical pain
D. Pain over renal angle
Answer: A
37. In which condition, medical treatment of gall stone is indicated
A. Stone is < 15 mm size
B. Radio opaque stone
C. Calcium bilirubinate stone
D. Non functioning gall bladder
Answer: A
38. In a patient of acute cholecystitis, referred pain to the shoulder is k/a
A. Murphy’s sign
B. Gray Turner sign
C. Boa’s sign
D. Cullen’s sign
Answer: C
39. In Patey’s mastectomy the step not done is
A. Nipple and areola removed
B. Surrounding normal tissue of tumor is removed.
C. Pectoralis major removed
D. Pectoralis minor removed
Answer: C
40. Breast conservation surgery not indicated ?
A. Large pendular breast
B. SLE
C. Diffuse microcalcification
D. All
Answer: D
41. In breast carcinoma metastasis,
prognosis depends best upon A. Estrogen receptor status
B. Axillary lymphnode status
C. Size of tumour
D. Site of tumour
Answer: A
42.What is true about HER2/neu overexpression in Ca breast:
A. Good prognosis
B. Responds well to taxanes
C. Responds well to monoclonal antibodies
D. Seen only in breast cancer
Answer: C
43. Mondor’s disease is ?
A. Thrombophlebitis of the Superficial veins of Breast
B. Carcinoma of the breast
C. Premalignant condition of the breast
D. Filariasis of the breast
Answer: A
44. Flap commonly used in breast reconstruction is?
A. Serratus anterior
B. TRAM
C. Flap from arm
D. Delto pectoral flap
Answer: B
45. Lateral aberrant thyroid refers to
A. Congenital thyroid abnormality
B. Metastatic focus in lymph nodes
C. Struma ovarii
D. Lingual thyroid
Answer: B
46.Treatment of choice for medullary carcinoma of thyroid is:
A. Total thyroidectomy
B. Partial thyroidectomy
C. 1131 ablation
D. Hemithyroidectomy
Answer: A
47. In case of hypothyroidism which investigation is most informative and most commonly used ?
A. Serum TSH Level
B. Serum T3, T4 Level
C. Serum Calcitonin assay
D. Serum T3 level
Answer: A
48. M.C. site of CA oesophagus is
A. Middle 1/3rd
B. Upper 1/3rd
C. Lower 1/3rd
D. Lower end of esophagus
Answer: A
49. Which is M.C. site for iatrogenic oesophageal perforation
A. Abdominal portion
B. Cervical portion
C. Above arch of aorta
D. Below arch of aorta
Answer: B
50. Corkscrew esophagus is seen in which of the following conditions ?
A. Carcinoma esophagus
B. Scleroderma
C. Achalasia cardia
D. Diffuse esophagus spasm
Answer: D
51. The most common type of TracheoOesophageal Fistula is
A. Esophageal atresia without tracheoesophageal fistula
B. Esophageal atresia with proximal tracheoesophageal fistula
C. Esophageal atresia with distal tracheoesophageal fistula
D. Esophageal atresia with proximal and distal fistula
Answer: C
52. commonest benign tumor of the esophagus?
A. Leiomyoma
B. Papilloma
C. Adenoma
D. Hemangioma
Answer: A
53. All of the following are risk factors for carcinoma gall bladder, EXCEPT
A. Typhoid carriers
B. Adenomatous gall bladder polyps
C. Choledochal cysts
D. Oral contraceptives
Answer: D
54. Regarding Ca gallbladder
A. Squamous cell ca is the most common
B. Present with jaundice
C. Good prognosis
D. All
Answer: B
55. The Gall stone pain is referred to the shoulder through which of the following nerves:
A. C2-C8
B. T1-T4
C. T8-T12
D. C3-05
Answer: D
56. The best investigative modality for gall bladder stones
A. Oral cholecystogram
B. Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography
C. Ultrasound
D. Intravenous cholangiogram
Answer: C
57. Strawberry gallbladder is seen in ?
A. Gangrene of gallbladder
B. Porcelain gall bladder
C. Adenomatosis
D. Cholesterosis
Answer: D
58. VIPoma is associated with which syndrome:
A. Zollinger Ellison
B. Verner Morrison
C. Carcinoid syndrome
D. Cushing’s syndrome
Answer: B
59. All are resected in whipples operation except ?
A. Duodenum
B. Head of pancreas
C. Neck of pancreas
D. Common bile duct
Answer: C
60. Following genetic counselling in a family for Familial polyposis coli (FPC) next screening test is
A. Flexible sigmoidoscopy
B. Colonoscopy
C. Occult blood in stools
D. APC gene
Answer: D
61. The tendency of colonic carcinoma to metastasize is best assessed by
A. Size of tumor
B. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) levels
C. Depth of penetration of bowel wall
D. Proportion of bowel circumference involved.
Answer: C
62. Following is least common about angiodyplasia of colon
A. Involvement of cecum
B. Involvement of rectum in 50% of cases
C. Affecting age group > 40 yrs.
D. Cause of troublesome lower G.I. hemorrhage
Answer: B
63. Most common type of Intussusception is
A. Ileocolic
B. ileoileal
C. Colo-colic
D. Caeco-colic
Answer: A
64. Features of intestinal obstruction : clinically/ investigation by :
A. Abdominal distension
B. Vomiting
C. Fluid level in X-ray > 4
D. a and b
Answer: D
65. Commonest cause of intussusception is
A. Submucous lipoma
B. Meckel’s diverticulum
C. Hypertrophy of submucous peyer’s patches
D. Polyp
Answer: C
66. What is the T/t of pt with carcinoid tumor of appendix of size more than 2 cm
A. Right hemicolectomy
B. Appendicectomy
C. Appendicectomy + abdominal CT scan
D. Appendicectomy + 24 hrs urinary HIAA
Answer: A
67. A 25 year old man presents with 3 days history of pain in the right lower abdomen and vomitings. patient’s general condition is satisfactory and clinical examination reveals a tender lump in right iliac fossa. The most appropriate management in this case would be
A. Immediate appendicectomy
B. Exploratory laprotomy
C. Oschner Sherren regimen
D. External drainage
Answer: C
68. Which of the following is not a sign seen in acute appendicitis
A. Rovsing’s
B. Rosenstein’s sign
C. Boa’s sign
D. Hamburger sign
Answer: C
69. In carcinoma of anus distal margin of clearance of anal canal of at least
A. 2 cm
B. 5 cm
C. 4 cm
D. 7 cm
Answer: A
70. In case of female commonest hernia is ?
A. Direct inguinal hernia
B. Indirect inguinal hernia
C. Femoral Hernia
D. Incisional hernia
Answer: B
71. Triangle of Doom is bounded by all of the following except:
A. Cooper’s ligament
B. Vas deferens
C. Gonadal vessels
D. Peritoneal reflection
Answer: A
72. Regarding desmoid tumour which is not correct ?
A. Often seen below the umbilicus
B. Unencapsulated
C. More common in women
D. Highly radiosensitive
Answer: D
73. Burst abdomen most commonly occurs on the
A. 2nd day
B. 3rd day
C. 7th day
D. 9th day
Answer: C
74. False regarding hypernephroma is
A. Radiosensitive
B. Arise from cortex usually from pre existing adenoma
C. May present with rapidly developing varicocele
D. Usually adenocarcinoma
Answer: A
75. The posterior urethra is best visualized by ?
A. Static cystogram
B. Retrograde urethrogram
C. Voiding cystogram
D. CT cystogram
Answer: C
76. The Grayhack shunt is established between:
A. Corpora cavernosa and dorsal vein
B. Corpora cavernosa and saphenous vein
C. Corpora cavernosa and glans
D. Corpora cavernosa and corpora spongiosa
Answer: B
77. Which of the following urethral anomaly is the most common
A. Hypospadias
B. Pin hole meatus
C. Epispadias
D. Stricture urethra
Answer: A
78. All the features of membranous urethral injury except
A. blood of meatus
B. Retention of urine
C. Pelvic fracture
D. Perineal butterfly hematoma
Answer: D
79. Congenital hydrocele is best t/t by
A. Eversion of sac
B. Excision of sac
C. Lords procedure
D. herniotomy
Answer: D
80. Which one of the following statement is true of undescended testis
A. Usually descends spontaneously at puberty
B. Orchipexy to be done if no descent by puberty
C. Has a higher incidence of malignancy
D. Maintains normal sperm production
Answer: C
81. What is oliguria
A. Excretion of less than 300m1 in 24 hrs
B. Excretion of less than 500m1 in 24 hrs
C. Excretion of less than 300 ml. in 12 hrs
D. Excretion of less than 100 ml. in 24 hrs
Answer: B
82. Tissue suturing glue contains:
A. Cyanoacrylate
B. Ethanolamine oleate
C. Methacrylate
D. Polychloroprene
Answer: A
83. The tensile strength of wound reaches that of tissue by ?
A. 6 weeks
B. 2 months
C. 4 months
D. None
Answer: D
84. The following statement about keloid is true ?
A. They do not extend into normal skin
B. Local recurrence is common after excision
C. They often undergo malignant change
D. They are more common in whites than in blacks
Answer: B
85. The Vitamin which has inhibitory effect on wound healing is
A. Vitamin -A
B. Vitamin – E
C. Vitamin -C
D. Vitamin B-complex
Answer: B
86. Best skin disinfectant for central line insertion is:
A. Povione iodine
B. Alcohol
C. Cetrimide
D. Chlorhexidine
Answer: D
87. Complication of total parenteral nutrition include ?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hyperosmolar dehydration
D. a and b
Answer: D
88. Content of Na’ in ringer lactate is meq/1
A. 154
B. 12
C. 130
D. 144
Answer: C
89. Actinomycosis is sensitive to ?
A. Streptomycin
B. Nystatin
C. PenciIlin
D. Iodox – uridine
Answer: C
90. Liver transplantation was first done by ?
A. Starzl
B. Huggins
C. Carrel
D. Christian Benard
Answer: A
91. True about Marjolins ulcer
A. Develops in long standing scar
B. Sq cell Ca develops
C. Slow growing lesion
D. All
Answer: D
92. Ainhum is seen in ?
A. Base of great toe
B. Base of fingers tips
C. Base of toe
D. Ankle
Answer: C
93. How much length is increased in Z plasty when it is done at 60 degrees?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
Answer: C
94. The procedure of choice for the evaluation of aortic aneurysm is
A. Ultasonography
B. Computed tomography
C. Magnetic resonance imaging
D. Arteriography
Answer: B
95. Pseudoclaudication is caused by
A. Femoral Artery stenosis
B. Popliteal Artery stenosis
C. Lumbar canal stenosis
D. Radial Artery stenosis
Answer: C
96. Kaposi sarcoma is commonly seen in ?
A. Upper limbs
B. Lower limbs
C. Head and Neck
D. Trunk
Answer: B
97. All of the following are risk factors for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) except
A. Duration of surgery more than thirty minutes
B. Obesity
C. Age less than forty years
D. Use of the oestrogen-progesterone contraceptive pills
Answer: C
98. DVT, investigation of choice is
A. Doppler
B. Plethysmography
C. Venography
D. X-ray
Answer: A
99. Surgery in varicose veins is NOT attempted in presence of –
A. Deep vein thrombosis
B. Multiple incompetent perforators
C. Varicose veins with leg ulcer
D. All of the above
Answer: A
100. Treatment of rib fracture ?
A. Immediate thoracotomy
B. IPPV
C. Analgesics
D. b and c
Answer: C
101. Trauma and Injury Severity Score (TRISS) includes:
A. GCS + BP + RR
B. RTS + ISS + Age
C. RTS + ISS + GCS
D. RTS + GCS + Age
Answer: B
102. Treatment of choice for stab injury caecum ?
A. Caecostomy
B. Ileo-transverse anastomosis
C. Transverse colostomy
D. Sigmoid colostomy
Answer: B
103. Brain abscess in cyanotic heart disease is commonly located in
A. Cerebellar hemisphere
B. Thalamus
C. Temporal lobe
D. Parietal lobe
Answer: D
104. All are true about carcinoma palate, except
A. Slow growing
B. Bilateral lymphatic spread
C. Adenocarcinoma
D. Presents with pain
Answer: D
105. Epulis arises from
A. Enamel
B. Root of teeth
C. Gingiva
D. Pulp
Answer: C
106. Commonest site of carcinoma tongue
A. Apical
B. Lateral borders
C. Dorsum
D. Posterior 1/3
Answer: B
107. In case of benign mixed parotid tumours T/t of choice is
A. Superficial Parotidectomy
B. Total parotidectomy
C. Leave facial nerve and remove all gland
D. Radical Parotidectomy
Answer: A
108. True regarding cystic hygroma is
A. Non transilluminant
B. Lined by columnar epithelium epithelium
C. Develops from jugular lymphatic sequestration
D. All
Answer: C
109. The best treatment for cystic hygroma is
A. Surgical excision
B. Radiotherapy
C. Sclerotherapy
D. Chemotherapy
Answer: A
110. Sistrunk’s operation is used in
A. Parotid tumour
B. Thyroglossal fistula
C. Thyroglossal cyst
D. b and c
Answer: D
111. Adson’s test is positive in
A. Cervical rib
B. Cervical spondylosis
C. Cervical fracture
D. Cervical dislocation
Answer: A
112. Neuroblastomas – good prognositc factor is ?
A. N-myc amplification
B. RAS oncogene
C. Hyperdiploidy
D. Translocations
Answer: C
113. Opsoclonus – Myoclonus is a phenomenon seen in ?
A. Wilms tumor
B. Neuroblastoma
C. Meningioma
D. Cortical tuberculoma
Answer: B
114. In thymoma, all are seen except
A. Hypogamma globulinemia
B. Hyperalbuminemia
C. Red cell aplasia
D. Myaesthenia Gravis
Answer: B
115. Interlobar sequestration of lung takes its blood supply from
A. Internal mammary artery
B. Descending abdominal aorta
C. Pulmonary artery
D. None of the above
Answer: B
116. Foreign body aspiration in supine position causes which of the following parts of the lung commonly to be affected
A. Apical left lobe
B. Apical lobe of right lung
C. Apical part of the lower lobe
D. Posterobasal segment of left lung
Answer: C
117. IVC filter is used in following except
A. To reduces symptoms
B. Negligible size of emboli
C. To prolong life
D. To prevent progress of native blood vessel disease
Answer: B
118. Empyema necessitans is defined as so when ?
A. Plural empyema is under pressure
B. Pleural empyema has ruptured into bronchus
C. Pleural empyema has ruptured into the pericardium
D. Pleural empyema is showing extension to the subcutaneous tissue
Answer: D
119. All of the following about Gastrointestinal carcinoid tumors are true, Except:
A. Small intestine and appendix account for almost 60% of all gastrointestinal carcinoid
B. 5 year survival for carcinoid tumors is >60%
C. Rectum is spared
D. Appendicial carcinoids are more common in females than males
Answer: C
120. Radiation exposure during infancy has been linked to which one of the following carcinoma
A. Breast
B. Melanoma
C. Thyroid
D. Lung
Answer: C
121. Smoking may be associated with all of the following cancers, except:
A. Ca Larynx
B. Ca Nasopharynx
C. Ca Bladder
D. None
Answer: D
122. What is the treatment of choice in desmoid tumors ?
A. Irradiation
B. Wide excision
C. Local excision
D. Local excision following radiation
Answer: B
123. The commando operation is
A. Abdomino-perineal resection of the rectum for carcinoma
B. Disarticulation of the hip for gas gangrene of the leg
C. Extended radical mastectomy
D. Excision of carcinoma of the tongue, the floor of the mouth, part
of the jaw and lymph nodes enbloc
Answer: D
124. Corpora amylaciae is seen in
A. Thymus
B. Lymph node
C. Spleen
D. Prostate
Answer: D
125. Stereotactic radiosurgery is done for
A. Glioblastoma multiforme
B. Medulloblastoma spinal cord
C. Ependymoma
D. AV malformation of brain
Answer: D
126. In which one of the following conditions is gas under diaphragm not seen
A.Perforated duodenal ulcer
B. Typhoid perforation
C. After laparotomy
D. Spontaneous rupture of oesophagus
Answer: D
127. All of the following are true regarding fluid resuscitation in burn patients except:
A. Consider intravenous resuscitation in children with burns greater than 15% TBSA
B. Oral fluids must contain salts
C. Most preferred fluid is Ringer’s lactate
D. Half of the calculated volume of fluid should be given in first 8 hours
Answer: A
128. The following is the commonest site for venous ulcer: [March 2013 ]
A. Lower third of leg and ankle
B. Instep of foot
C. Lower 2/ 3rd of leg
D. Middle 1/3rd of leg
Answer: A
129. Which of the following is spared in lumbar sympathectomy: [September 2009]
A. L1
B. L2
C. L3
D. L4
Answer: A
130. Brodie-Trendelenburg test is positive in:
A. Deep vein thrombosis
B. Sapheno-femoral incompetence
C. Thromboangiitis obliterans
D. Below-knee perforators incompetence
Answer: B
131. Cullen’s sign is seen in: [March 2004]
A. Acute cholecystitis
B. Acute hepatitis
C. Acute pancreatitis
D. Blunt injury abdomen
Answer: C
132. Acute pancreatitis causes all of the following except: [March 2005, March 2013 (g)]
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Increased amylase level
C. Subcutaneous fat necrosis
D. Hyperlipidemia
Answer: A
133. Charcot’s triad is defined by all of the following except: [September 2007, March 2009]
A. Fever
B. Gall stones
C. Jaundice
D. Pain
Answer: B
134. Most sensitive and specific for acute pancreatitis amongst the following is: [September 2008]
A. S.amylase
B. S.Alanine transaminase
C. S.lipase
D. C-reactive protein
Answer: C
135. Treatment of an incidentally detected Appendicular carcinoid measuring 2.5 cm is: [September 2002]
A. Right hemicolectomy
B. Limited resection of the right colon
C. Total colectomy
D. Appendicectomy
Answer: A
136. Heller’s myotomy is done for: [September 2007, 2009, 2010]
A. Esophageal carcinoma
B. Pyloric hypertrophy
C. Achalasia cardia
D. Inguinal hernia
Answer: C
137. All of the following testicular tumours are germ cell tumours EXCEPT: [March 2013 ]
A. Seminoma
B. Teratoma
C. Choriocarcinoma
D. Sertoli cell tumour
Answer: D
138. Cobra head appearance on excretory urography is suggestive of: [March 2010]
A. Horseshoe kidney
B. Duplication of renal pelvis
C. Simple cyst of kidney
D. Ureterocele
Answer: D
139. Orchidopexy for incompletely descended testis is done after the age of: [September 2011]
A. At birth
B. 1 year
C. 2 years
D. 5 years
Answer: B
140. MC site for thyroglossal cyst is:
A. Beneath the foramen caecum
B. Floor of mouth
C. Above hyoid
D. Subhyoid
Answer: D
141. True about Branchial cyst is: [March 2013 (h)]
A. Cysts are more common than sinuses
B. Mostly arises from 2nd branchial system
C. Causes dysphagia and hoarseness
D. Sinus should always be operated
Answer: B
142. All of the following are false for Gall Bladder carcinoma except: [March 2005]
A. Carries a good prognosis
B. Gallstones may be a predisposing factor
C. Commonly squamous cell carcinoma
D. Jaundice is rare
Answer: B
143. Cryoprecipitate contains: [March 2009]
A. Factor II
B. Factor V
C. Factor VIII
D. Factor IX
Answer: C
144. Adson test is positive in: [September 2007]
A. Cervical spondylosis
B. Cervical rib
C. Cervical vertebra fracture
D. Superior vena cava syndrome
Answer: B
145.Drugs for paralytic ileus for bowel resection surgery are all except ?
A. Alvinopam
B. Dihydroergotamine
C. Naloxone
D. Methylnaltrexone
Answer: C
146. An adult hypertensive male presented with sudden onset severe headache and vomiting. On examination, there is marked neck rigidity and no focal neurological deficit was found. The symptoms are most likely due to:
A. Intracerebral parenchymal hemorrhage
B. Ischemic stroke
C. Meningitis
D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Answer: D
147. Gasless abdomen seen in
A.Ulcerative colitis
B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Intussusception
D. Necrotising enterocolitis
Answer: B
148. Dohlman procedure for
A. Meckel’s diverticulum
B. Zenker’s diverticulum
C. Dermatomyositis
D. Menetrier’s disease
Answer: B
149. If a mother is donating kidney to her son is an example
A. Isograft
B. Allograft
C. Autograft
D. Xenograft
Answer: B
150. Uvula vesicae is produced by which prostate lobe?
A. Anterior lobe
B. Post lobe
C. Median lobe
D. Lateral lobe
Answer: C
151. True about Barrett’s esophagus are all of the following except:
A. Causes adenocarcinoma
B. Patient is usually asymptomatic
C. Histology of the lesion shows mucus secreting goblet cells
D. Chronic gastroesophageal reflux is a predisposing factor
Answer: A
152. Parathyroid auto implantation takes place in which of the muscle?
A. Biceps
B. Triceps
C. Brachioradialis
D. Sartorius
Answer: C
153. Bell’s palsy is associated with the lesion in which of the nerve?
A. 11th cranial nerve
B. 7th cranial nerve
C. 9th cranial nerve
D. 3rd cranial nerve
Answer: B
154. Cushing ulcer is seen in case of
A. Burns
B. Head injury
C. Cell necrosis
D. Stress
Answer: B
155. Most common indication for liver transplant in children
A. Biliary atresia
B. Cirrhosis
C. Hepatitis
D. Drug reactions
Answer: A
156. Most common type of gallstone is
A. Mixed stones
B. Pure cholesterol stones
C. Pigment stones
D. Calcium bilirubinate
Answer: A
157. Serpiginous ulcer distal esophagus
A. CMV
B. Herpes
C. Pill
D. Corrosive
Answer: A
158. Omphalocele is caused by?
A. Duplications of intestinal loops
B. Abnormal rotation of the intestinal loop
C. Failure of gut to return to the body cavity from its physiological herniation
D. Reversed rotation of the intestinal loop
Answer: C
159. Which of the following is true about coeliac plexus block?
A. Located retroperitoneally at the level of L3
B. Usually done unilaterally
C. Useful for the painful conditions of lower abdomen
D. Most common side effect is diarrhea and hypotension
Answer: D
160. Most commonly performed and acceptable method of bariatric surgery is:
A. Biliopancreatic diversion
B. Biliopancreatic diversion with ilcostomy
C. Laparoscopic gastric banding
D. Roux-en-Y gastric bypass.
Answer: D
161. A patient after road traffic accident presented with tension pneumothorax. What is the first line of management?
A. Insert wide bore needle in 2nd intercostal space
B. Immediate chest X-ray
C. CT scanEmergency thoracotomy
D. Emergency thoracotomy
Answer: A
162. Prehn sign is positive in
A. Acute epidydimoorchitis
B. Chronic orchitis
C. Testicular torsion
D. None
Answer: A
163.Definitive surgery is a part of which stage of damage control surgery?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
Answer: D
164. Which of the following is not true about Boerhaave syndrome?
A. Perforation of the esophagus due to barotrauma
B. Most common site is left posteromedial aspect 3 – 5 cms above the gastroesophageal junction
C. Pain is the early manifestation
D. Most cases follow a bout of heavy eating or drinking
Answer: B
165. All of the following are indications for bariatric surgery except
A. BMI>40 kg/m2
B. BMI> 35 kg/m2 with atleast one comorbidity
C. BMI>30 with long standing diabetes
D. Failure of other methods of weight loss
Answer: C
166. Indications for emergency thoracotomy are all of the following except
A. Major tracheobronchial injuries
B. Cardiac tamponade
C. Penetrating injuries to anterior chest
D. Tension Pneumothorax
Answer: D
167. A female undergone surgery for left breast cancer 3 yrs back now developed blue nodule on same side
A. Lymphangiosarcoma
B. Recurrence
C. Hemangioma
D. Cellulitis
Answer: A
168. Blood loss in class III hemorrhagic shock
A. < 750 ml
B. 750 – 1500 ml
C. 1500-2000 ml
D. > 2000 ml
169. Most common cancer in men is
A. Bladder cancer
B. Colorectal cancer
C. Prostate cancer
D. Oral cancer
Answer: C
170.A nerve injured in radical neck dissection leads to loss of sensation in medial side of the arm, nerve injured is?
A. Long thoracic nerve
B. Thoracodorsal nerve
C. Dorsal scapular nerve
D. Medial cutaneous nerve of arm
Answer: D
171. Gold standard investigation for chronic pancreatitis?
A. MRI
B. ERCP
C. Pancreatic function tests
D. Fecal fat estimation
Answer: B
172. Most accurate method for the diagnosis Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD) is
A. Histological study
B. Manometry
C. 24-hour pH recording and electrical impedance measurement
D. Barium swallow studies
E. Upper GI endoscopy
Answer: C
173. All are features of SIRS except
A. RR> 24 & Paco2 <22mm hg
B. WBC >11 or <4
C. Temperature <36 and >38
D. PR >90
Answer: A
174. Which of the following primarily governs the uptake of Tc-99m MDP in body?
A. Amount of osteogenic activity
B. Amount of iodine uptake
C. Amount of calcium uptake
D. Amount of catecholamine activity
Answer: A
175. Technitium-99m pertechnetate labelled methylene diphosphonate is structurally similar to
A. Calcium phosphate
B. Phosphorus
C. Sodium bicarbonate
D. Magnesiumsulfate
Answer: A
176. Neuroimaging features of neurocysticercosis are considered as criteria for definitive diagnosis
A. Major
B. Minor
C. Probable
D. Absolute
Answer: A
177. Laproscopic procedure patient develops shoulder pain due to
A. Subphrenic abscess
B. Positional pain during surgery
C. Subdiaphragmatic migration of gas
D. Injury to liver
Answer: C
178. A patient comes with a complaint of shoulder pain after laparoscopic surgery. What should be the next step in management?
A. Oral paracetamol for 2 – 3 days
B. USG of shoulder region
C. Diagnostic shoulder arthroscopy
D. Intraarticular lignocaine injection
Answer: A
179. Which of the following should be done for an acute onset painful scrotal swelling in 12 years old male?
A. Doppler stethoscope evaluation
B. Administer analgesics
C. Advise bed rest
D. Administer antibiotics
Answer: A
180. Which of the following electrolyte abnormalities can be seen after brain injury?
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypomagnesemia
D. All the above
Answer: A
181. Earliest hematological change following splenectomy is
A. Leukocytosis and thrombocytosis
B. Presence of Heinz bodies
C. Evidence of Howell Jolly bodies
D. Poikilocytosis
Answer: A
182. Percuteneous chemical lumbar sympathectomy is practised using
A. Phenol
B. Ethanol
C. Formalin
D. Acetic acid
Answer: A
183. Typical of rectus sheath hematoma is
A. Severe tenderness
B. Bluish discoloration
C. Firm painful mass
D. Ecchymosis
Answer: C
184. Burr hole is done for
A. Chronic SDH
B. EDH
C. SAH
D. Contusion
Answer: A
185.Following road traffic accident patient suffers polytrauma and is evaluated in the emergency section of the hospital. His pulse rate is 116, respiratory rate is 24, blood pressure of 122/78 mm of Hg and patient is mildly anxious. What is the approximate blood loss patient has following trauma?
A. <750 ml
B. 750 – 1500 ml
C. 1500 – 2000 ml
D. >2000 ml
Answer: B
186. Sebaceous cyst occurs occur in all the following locations in body except
A. Palms and soles
B. Axilla
C. Back
D. Pubic area
Answer: A
187. Cortisol levels remain elevated for how many week/s following hemorrhage?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A
188. A child swallowed a watch battery containing alkaline content. What next
A. Immediate X-ray measurements
B. Remove surgically immediately
C. CT abdomen
D. Laxatives
Answer: A
189. Surgical treatment of congenital hydrocele recommended if it fails to resolve by what age?
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 4 years
Answer: B
190. What percentage of gall stones are radio opaque?
A. 10- 20
B. 30 – 40
C. 50 – 60
D. 70 – 80
Answer: A
191. Hemorrhage commonly seen with trivial trauma in elderly
A. Subdural hemorrhage
B. Extradural hemorrhage
C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
D. Intraparenchymal hemorrhage
Answer: A
192. Which of the following provides excellent details about the chemodectomas?
A. Xray
B. CT angiography
C. MRI
D. PET SCAN
Answer: C
193. Acral lentigines type of malignant melanoma occurs in
A. Face
B. Nape of neck
C. Mucosa
D. Sun exposed areas
Answer: C
194. Hoarseness of voice in lung carcinoma is due to invasion of which structure?
A. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
B. Internal laryngeal nerve
C. Glossopharyngeal nerve
D. Vagus nerve
Answer: A
195. Percentage of renal stones that are radio-opaque
A. 20
B. 40
C. 60
D. 80
Answer: D
196. Indications of thoracotomy in blunt chest trauma include all except
A. Initial drainage of > 500 ml of fresh blood
B. Rupture of bronchous
C. Continued bleeding of > 200 ml/ hr for >/= 3hrs
D. Unsuccessful attempt at drainage of cardiac tamponade
Answer: A
197. Visual examination is used as screening test for
A. Melanoma
B. Breast cancer
C. Thyroid cancer
D. Testicular cancer
Answer: A
198. Embolisation of tumors is done using
A. Polyvinyl alcohol
B. Autologous blood clots
C. Absolute ethanol
D. All the above
Answer: D
199.Upto Level III lymph node dissection is done for which nodal status of oropharyngeal cancer?
A. N1
B. N2
C. N3
D. N4
Answer: A
200. Breast surgery is considered under what category of cardiac risk?
A. > 10 %
B. 5 – 10 %
C. 1 – 5 %
D. <1%
Answer: D
201. What is the order of disorientation, which a person goes through after an event of trauma to head?
A. First time, then place followed by person
B. First place, then time followed by person
C. First person, then time followed by place
D. First time, then person followed by place
Answer: A
202. Which of the following is the preferred route of access for total parenteral nutrition in a patient who requires the same for <14 days and there is otherwise no indication for use of central catheter?
A. Internal jugular vein
B. External jugular vein
C. Periphaeral vein
D. PICC line
Answer: C
203. Which of the following is not true about use of graft in vascular surgery
A. Autologous saphenous vein achieves superior patency rates to prosthetic materials especially in femorodistal bypass
B. The patency of the PTFE grafts may be improved by interposition of a vein cuff at proximal anastomosis
C. Doppler ultrasound assessment is the method of choice for quality assurance on completion of operative procedure
D. In the absence of specific contraindications aspirin should be prescribed for all the patients of peripheral vascular disease
Answer: B
204. For lower lip carcinoma of <1cm in size. The treatment of choice will be
A. Radiation
B. Chemotherapy
C. Excision
D. Radiation and chemotherapy
Answer: C
205. Preferred treatment for oral tongue carcinoma which infiltrates the local cortical bone is
A. Subtotal glossectomy
B. Subtotal glossectomy + selective neck dissection
C. Subtotal glossectomy + selective neck dissection + mandibulectomy
D. Total glossectomy + selective neck dissection + mandibulectomy
Answer: C
206. Intracranial pressure is not raised during
A. Hyperventilation
B. Status epilepticus
C. Head injury
D. Subdural hematoma
Answer: A
207. Outcome of burns depends on
A. Extent of burns
B. Type of resuscitation fluid
C. Maintenance of airway
D. Skin grafting
Answer: A
208. Immediate physiological response to sudden decrease in blood volume is
A. Release of epinephrine
B. Shift of fluid from intracellular to interstitial compartment
C. Release of angiotensin
D. Release of thyroxine
Answer: A
209. Cardinal rule for dressing of pressure ulcer is to
A. Keep ulcer tissue dry and surrounding intact tissue dry
B. Keep ulcer tissue dry and surrounding intact tissue moist
C. Keep ulcer tissue moist and surrounding intact tissue dry
D. Keep the ulcer tissue moist and surrounding intact tissue moist
Answer: C
210. What is the meaning of the French word “Debridement”
A. Unleash or Cut Open
B. Debulk
C. Sanitize
D. Rehydration
Answer: A
211. Slip sign is seen in
A. Lipoma
B. Desmoid tumor
C. Sebaceous cyst
D. Hernia
Answer: A
212. For reimplantation digits are stored in
A. Ice packs
B. Deep freeze
C. Cold saline
D. Plastic bags with ice
Answer: D
213. Characteristic site for development of venous leg ulcers is
A. Skin of gaiter region
B. Behind lateral malleolus
C. Shin of tibia
D. Medial aspect of knee
Answer: A
214. Which of the following is true about the management of venous ulcer of lower limb?
A. Initial treatment is debridement and surgery
B. Compression dressings should ideally be applied on twice weekly basis
C. Antibiotics do not speed up the ulcer healing
D. Biological dressings do not have potential to improve healing
Answer: C
215. Which of the following suture has max tensile strength and minimum tissue reaction
A. Poliglecaprone
B. Polypropylene
C. Polygalctine
D. Polydioxanone
Answer: B
216. Blunt trauma exploratory laparotomy done nonexpansile swelling found on mesenteric border of intestine, management
A. Resection and anastomosis
B. Ligation
C. Excision of swelling
D. None
Answer: D
217. In SVC syndrome for non small cell carcinoma of lung management done
A. Radiotherapy
B. Immunotherapy
C. Chemotherapy
D. Surgery
Answer: A
218. Hadfields operation is performed for which of the following pathology?
A. Duct ectasia
B. Fibroadenoma
C. Mondors disease
D. Inflammatory breast carcinoma
Answer: A
219. Microdochotomy is treatment for
A. Duct ectasia
B. Breast abscess
C. Duct papilloma
D. DCIS
Answer: C
220. Previous radition therapy for which disease particularly increases the risk of breast carcinoma development?
A. Hodgkins lymphoma
B. Mantle cell lymphoma
C. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
D. Lung carcinoma
Answer: A
221. LAHSAL code is used to represent congenital malformation of
A. Lip
B. Alveolus
C. Hard and soft palate
D. All the above
Answer: D
222. Which of the following histological type of breast carcinoma worst prognosis?
A. Tubular
B. Colloid
C. Papillary
D. Scirrhous
Answer: D
223. Kernahen’s striped ‘Y’ classification, Main reference point is
A. Incisive foramen
B. Soft palate
C. Hard palate
D. Third molar
Answer: A
224. The most commonly used myocutaneous pedicle graft for pelvis surgeries contains muscle segments from
A. Rectus abdominis muscle
B. External oblique muscle
C. Internal oblique muscle
D. Transversus abdominis muscle
Answer: A
225. 52 years female patient presents with 4 cm diameter diagnosed breast cancer lesion with ipsilateral axillary and contralateral supraclavicular lymphadenopathy. As per AJCC system, patient belongs to which stage of breast cancer?
A. Ilia
B. None
C. IIIc
D. IV
Answer: D
226. Revascularization and angiogenesis process after skin grafting is seen after how many days after the procedure?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
Answer: B
227. Best prognosis for carcinoma breast is seen with which of the following?
A. <1cm size, nodes -ye , ER/ PR +ve, her 2/ neu -ye
B. <1cm size, nodes -ye , ER/ PR -ye, her 2/ neu +ve
C. <2cm size, nodes -ye , ER/ PR +ve, her 2/ neu -ye
D. <2cm size, nodes -ye , ER/ PR -ye, her 2/ neu +ve
Answer: A
228. Favorable prognosis with > 90% 5 year survival rate for carcinoma breast is seen in which of the following?
A. Screen detected ductal carcinoma in situ
B. Screen detected lobular carcinoma in situ
C. Node negative tumor with favourable histology
D. None of the above
Answer: A
229. What percentage of reduction in dying from breast cancer can be achieved with annual screening after age of 50 yrs with mammography?
A. 15- 20 %
B. 20- 25 %
C. 25- 30 %
D. 30- 35 %
Answer: C
230. Which of the following hormonal levels influence the development of benign breast disease?
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Lutenizing hormone
D. Testosterone
Answer: A:B
231. Which of the following is true about breast reconstruction surgery
A. Easiest reconstruction is done using silicon gel implant
B. TRAM flap gives better cosmetic results than LD flap
C. Radiotherapy in post op period does not influence the outcome after breast reconstruction
D. Nipple reconstruction cannot be performed under local anesthesia
Answer: A
232. Treatment of large omphalocele defect can be done by
A. Primary closure
B. Staged closure using PTFE mesh
C. Painting intact sac daily with antiseptic solution
D. All the above
Answer: D
233. Which of the following is not true about Pateys mastectomy
A. It is also called modified radical mastectomy
B. Intercosto brachial nerves are usually preserved
C. All lymph nodes of axilla are removed
D. Pectoralis muscle is either divided or retracted
Answer: B
234. Dermoepidermal burn is what degree of
burn A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
Answer: B
235. Macroprolactinoma ideal treatment is
A. Excision
B. Bromocriptine
C. Stereotactic radio surgery
D. Observation
Answer: B
236. Initial treatment for most patient of growth hormone secreting pituitary adenoma is
A. Transphenoidal surgical resection
B. Somatostatin analogs
C. GH rector antagonists
D. Dopamine agonists
Answer: A
237. Radioiodine preferred in treatment in
A. Young patients
B. Pregnancy
C. Recent onset of toxic goiter
D. Post surgery for papillary thyroid cancer
Answer: C
238. Parathyroid adenomas account for how much percentage of patients with primary hyperparathyroidism?
A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 70%
D. 80%
Answer: D
239. Investigation of choice for hepatic metastasis form stomach cancer is
A. MRI
B. CECT
C. USG
D. HIDA
Answer: B
240. Normal urine flow rate in healthy adults in urodynamic study is
A. 10 ml/sec
B. 20 ml/sec
C. 25 ml/sec
D. 5 ml/sec
Answer: B
241.Radical nephrectomy involves resection of the following except
A. Gerotas fascia
B. Ipsilateral adrenal gland
C. Surrounding hilar lymph nodes
D. Proximal para-aortic lymph nodes
Answer: D
242. Prognosis of surgery for liver secondaries is best for which cancer?
A. Colorectal
B. Neuroendocrine
C. Genitourinary
D. Esophageal
Answer: C
243. Indicatons of liver transplant in PCM poisoning are all except
A. SGPT increase
B. PT/INR
C. High creatinine
D. Encephalopathy
Answer: A
244. Harder renal stone having less satisfactory results with ECWL is
A. Oxalate stone
B. Phosphate stone
C. Urate stone
D. Cystine stone
Answer: D
245. Milan criteria is for
A. Selecting patients for Liver transplantation
B. Selecting patients for Lung transplantation
C. Selecting patients for Kidney transplantation
D. Selecting patients for heart trnasplantation
Answer: A
246. What should be the plan of management for a patient for whom while undergoing simple cholecystectomy T2 gall bladder carcinoma is discovered?
A. Resection of 4b-5 segement, dissection of the N1-2 nodes and excision of port sites
B. Post operative adjuvant chemotherapy
C. Radical cholecystectomy
D. Whipples procedure
Answer: A
247. Following are the sign/s suggestive of obstruction of urinary tract on CT Scan
A. Hyroureter
B. Perinephric stranding
C. Thickening of the lateroconal fascia
D. All the above
Answer: D
248. Treatment of choice for bladder stone
A. Transurethral litholapaxy
B. Percutaneous suprapubic litholapaxy
C. Vesicotomy and stone retrieval
D. Intravenous antibiotics
Answer: A
249. 3cm stone in cystic duct near the ampulla of vater, The Method of removal is a
A. Transduodenal approach
B. Supraduodenal approach
C. Lithotripsy
D. Chemical dissolution
Answer: A
250. 40 years old male complains of loin pain since 1 month. Patient’s complaint of pain has severely increased over last 2 hours and pain now radiates from loin and to groin and anterior thigh and patient is writhing in bed for comfort. What is the most probable etiology?
A. Bladder calculus
B. Ureteric calculus
C. Vesico ureteric reflux
D. Hydronephrosis
Answer: B
251. What is the main hazard of ectopic testis
A. Impotence
B. Carcinoma development
C. Liable to injury
D. Hernia development
Answer: C
252. Traditionally scrotal carcinoma is associated with which of the following occupations?
A. Chimney sweeps
B. Mule spinners
C. Coal worker
D. Wood workers
Answer: A
253. Which of the following are the treatment options for cystocele?
A. Anterior colporrhaphy
B. Transvaginal tape
C. Transobturator tape
D. All the above
Answer: D
254. Most common site of penile carcinoma is
A. Glans
B. Prepuce
C. Shaft
D. Coronal sulcus
Answer: A
255. Best time for surgery of hypospadias is at what age
A. 0 – 4 months
B. 4 – 6 months
C. 6 – 10 months
D. > 2 years
Answer: C
256. Commonest site of hypospadias is
A. Just proximal to glans
B. In the meid of penis
C. Scrotum
D. Perineum
Answer: A
257. Which enzyme is of diagnostic importance in chronic pancreatitis
A. Amylase
B. Pancreatic polypeptide
C. Lipase
D. Serum Interleukin 6 levels
Answer: C
258. Most common screening test for acute pancreatitis
A. Serum amylase
B. Serum lipase
C. Urine trypsinogen
D. Insulin
Answer: C
259. Physiological adhesions between foreskin and glans penis persist until years of age
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
Answer: C
260. Which of the following is/ are the imaging criteria for unresectable carcinoma of pancreas?
A. Metastatic spread to vertebrae
B. Invasion in duodenal wall
C. Irregular increase in density of omental fat
D. All the above
Answer: D
261. A 10 years old male presents a smooth swelling near superficial inguinal ring, which moves downwards when the testicle is pulled downwards. Diagnosis
A. Inguinal hernia
B. Congenital hydrocele
C. Encysted hydrocele of the cord
D. Varicocele
Answer: C
262. Drug of choice for palliative treatment of pancreatic carcinoma
A. Erlotinib
B. Gemcitabine
C. Paclitaxel
D. Cyclophosphomide
Answer: B
263.Modified-Kaush Whipple operation is devised to preserve which part of stomach?
A. Fundus
B. Body
C. Lesser curvature
D. Pyloric antrum
Answer: D
264. Which of the following causes of acute pancreatitis can cause recurrent bouts without any obvious pathology
A. Sphincter Oddi dysfunction
B. Pancreas divisum
C. Hypertriglyceridemia
D. All the above
Answer: D
265. Pseudocyst pancreas is developed in how much duration following an attack of acute pancreatitis?
A. Less than 1 week
B. Less than 2 weeks
C. 3 or more weeks
D. 4 or more weeks
Answer: D
266. True of umbilical hernia
A. Most common content is large intestine
B. Most of the umbilical hernias disappear spontaneously
C. Males are affected more than females
D. Uncomplicated herenias are repaired at 1 year of age through
an infraumbilical incision.
Answer: B
267. Treatment of congenital hydrocephalus is
A. Ventriculoperitoneal shunt
B. Sterestactic radio surgery
C. Diuretics
D. Radiotherapy
Answer: A
268. Scrotal swelling non reducible but disappears when the child wakes up from sleep is most likely to be
A. Congenital hydrocele
B. Varicocele
C. Indirect inguinal hernia
D. None of the above
Answer: A
269. How much percentage of the blunt trauma injuries to spleen in adults are currently managed non operatively?
A. 30%
B. 50%
C. 80%
D. 90%
Answer: C
270. 40 years male presents with translucent scrotal swelling in which it is possible to get above the swelling on examination. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Hydrocele
B. Indirect inguinal hernia
C. Varicocele
D. Sebaceous cyst
Answer: A
271. Most prevalent symptom in patients of leiomyoma of esophagus is
A. Pain
B. Pyrosis
C. Dysphagia
D. Weight loss
Answer: C
272. Which of the following famous personalities had hydrocele associated with hernia, which proved to be fatal?
A. Edward Gibbon
B. Thomas Edison
C. Miley Wright
D. Neil Armstrong
Answer: A
273. Following is not true about traction diverticulum of esophagus
A. Produced due to the extraluminal forces
B. It is not a true diverticulum
C. The outpouching is usually small and conical
D. May develop tracheoesophageal fistula
Answer: B
274. Which of the following is false about zenkers diverticulum
A. Most patients are above 50 years of age
B. It is the most common esophageal diverticulum
C. Mucosal outpouching through the killians triangle
D. Cervical webs can be associated with zenkers diverticulum in
80% of the patients
Answer: D
275. True about esophageal carcinoma is
A. More lethal than the colorectal cancers
B. These show an increasing trend towards the number of squamous cell carcinomas
C. Smaller size esophageal lesions have better survival
D. Asymptomatic benign lesions should be excised immediately
Answer: A
276. Patient complains of intermittent dysphagia which is equal both for solids and liquids, which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Achalasia cardia
B. Esophageal stricture
C. Carcinoma esophagus
D. Diffuse esophageal spasm
Answer: D
277. Early and late suspected instrumental perforation of esophagus should first be assessed using
A. Water soluble contrast swallow
B. CT Scan
C. Dilute barium swallon
D. MRI
Answer: A
278. Downhill esophagus varices develop as a result of obstruction of seen in
A. Portal vein
B. Hepatic vein
C. Superior vena cava
D. Inferior vena cava
Answer: C
279. Most common impacted foreign body in esophagus in children is
A. Coin
B. Food product
C. Krayon
D. Marble
Answer: A
280. Pantaloon hernia is also called as
A. Dual hernia
B. Saddle bag hernia
C. Bochdaleks hernia
D. Retrosternal hernia
Answer: B
281. Rolled up omentum is seen in cases of
A. Peritoneal tuberculosis
B. Peritoneal metastases
C. Perforation peritonitis
D. Malrotation of gut
Answer: A
282. Staging of rectal carcinoma is best done by
A. CT Scan
B. MRI
C. TRUS
D. All the above
Answer: B
283. Treatment of choice for low fistula in ano is
A. Fistulotomy
B. Intravenous antibiotics
C. Staged surgical resection
D. None of the above
Answer: A
284. Exception to Goodsals rule is considered when the anterior external opening is more situated more than cms from anal margin
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B
285. Which of the following is not true about medical management of uncomplicated GERD?
A. PPIs are the most effective drug treatment for GORD
B. Household measure of tilting the bed is efficatious
C. Long term PPI therapy increases risk of malignant changes
D. Adequate dose of PPI for 8 weeks is the recommended treatment
Answer: C
286. Single drug regimen for carcinoma esophagus which shows significant decrease in tumor size in 15 – 20% of patients incorporates which drug?
A. Cisplatin
B. Bleomycin
C. Doxorubicin
D. Vincristine
Answer: A
287. Critical diameter of caecum when perforation is considered eminent in pseudo-obstruction is
A. >7 cm
B. >8 cm
C. >9 cm
D. >10 cm
Answer: C
288. Most common type of Hiatal hernia is
A. Sliding
B. Rolling
C. Mixed
D. None of the above
Answer: A
289. In corrosive injury of esophagus correct statement is all except
A. Alkalis are usually ingested in larger volumes
B. Alkalis cause more gastic damage than acids
C. Alkalis form fibrous scar
D. Acids form eschar
Answer: B
290. Colonoscopy is are not indicated in
A. MEN 2B
B. FAP
C. HNPCC
D. Cornkite canada syndrome
Answer: A
291. An individual of age 40 yrs presents with dysphagia to both solids and liquids with symptoms of regurgitation. Patient also complaints of chest pain and weight loss. Which of the following is the preferred investigation for diagnosis of this pathology?
A. Barium swallow X-ray
B. Barium swallow X-ray with esophageal manometry
C. Barium swallow X-ray woith esophageal manometry with endoscopy
D. None of the above
Answer: B
292. Contraindication for colostomy planning are all except
A. Age > 60 yrs
B. Stoma near skin creases and bony prominences
C. Poorly motivated patient for elective stomy
D. Stomas through previous scars
Answer: A
293. Which of the following tumors most commonly presents with upper gastrointestinal bleeding?
A. Primary gastric cancer
B. Esophageal carcinoma
C. Metastases to stomach
D. Hepatic adenocarcinoma
Answer: A
294. True about small intestinal tumor is
A. Lymphomas are the most common small intestinal tumors
B. Carcinoids are more common in the duodenum and jejunum
C. Adenomatous polyps are more common in the terminal ileum
D. Risk of developing small bowel tumor correlates positively with
colorectal cancer
Answer: D
295. Simplest investigation to be performed in suspected cases of gastric cancer is
A. Double contrast radiography
B. Plain radiography
C. CT Scan
D. Endoscopy
Answer: C
296. Which of the following is true about gastric ulcer but not the duodenal ulcer?
A. Pain rarely occurs at night
B. Melena is more common than hematemesis
C. Usually occurs in 40 – 50 yrs of age
D. Pain is relieved with ingestion of food
Answer: A
297. Not true about highly selective vagotomy
A. It is also known parietal cell vagotomy
B. Nerves of Latarjet are sacrifised
C. Recurrence rates are higher than vagotomy and drainage and vagotomy and antrestomy.
D. Entire gastric reservoir capacity is preserved
Answer: B
298. Bowel punctured during laproscopy
A. Trocar kept
B. trocar removal
C. trocar repositioned
D. None
Answer: A
299. What is not done in case of puncture wound of left colon
A. Primary suture
B. Hemicolectomy
C. Externalization
D. Resection and anastomosis
Answer: B
300. What is the percentage body surface area involved in head + face in burns
A. 13
B. 15
C. 17
D. 09
Answer: D
301. Plunging Ranula is
A. Cystic growth of sublingual gland
B. Lymph node
C. A tumor in floor of mouth
D. None
Answer: A
302. Sialolithiasis is most commonly seen in which gland
A. Parotid
B. Sublingual
C. Submandibular
D. Minor salivary gland
Answer: C
303. Which structure is not preserved in modified radical mastectomy
A. Cephalic vein
B. Pectoralis minor
C. Pectoralis major
D. Branches of lntercostobrachial N.
Answer: A
304. Duputyrens and peyonies are both type of
A. Fibromatosis
B. Fibroblastic hyperplesia
C. Burn contracture
D. Myalgias
Answer: B
305. Mid gut Volvulus symptoms appear at
A. 1″ week
B. 3rd weeks
C. 2″ weeks
D. 4th weeks
Answer: A
306. Most common nerve damaged during hernia repair
A. ilioinguinal nerve
B. Iliohypogastric
C. Genitofumoral
D. None
Answer: A
307. Progressive dysphagia is seen in all except
A. CA esophagus
B. Diffuse esophageal spasm
C. Stricture
D. Achalasia cardia
Answer: B
308. Kher sign is seen in
A. Splenic trauma
B. Hepatic trauma
C. Renal trauma
D. Pacreatic trauma
Answer: A
309. ABPI of imminent necrosis
A. < 0.3
B. 0.3
C. < 0.6 D. > 0-6
Answer: A
310. Ankle brachial pressure index is
A. 1.0
B. 10
C. 01
D. None
Answer: A
311. In Ainhum, constriction develops usually at the level of interphalangeal joint of
A. Great toe
B. 2nd toe
C. Little toe
D. None
Answer: C
312. True about carcinoma of male breast is
A. Invasive lobular Ca is most common
B. Estrogen receptor negative
C. Seen in young males
D. BRCA2 mutation is associated with increased risk
Answer: D
313. Most common carcinoma breast in male Is
A. Lobular carcinoma in situ
B. Ductal carcinoma in situ
C. Infiltrating ductal Ca
D. None
Answer: C
314. Pressure in laproscopy is
A. 10-12 mmHg
B. 12-14 mmHg
C. 14-16 mmHg
D. 16-18 mmHg
Answer: B
315. Most common site of direct hernia
A. Hesselbach’s triangle
B. Femoral gland
C. No site predilection
D. None
Answer: A
316. Lymph drainage is increased from lower limbs by
A. Massasaging
B. Running
C. Cycling
D. Sleeping
Answer: A
317. Nodule on thyroid with lymphadenopathy
A. Radiation
B. Chemotherapy
C. Excision of nodule
D. Total thyroidectomy + MRND
Answer: D
318. Treatment of contaminated wound of leg
A. Debridement and antibiotics
B. Hyperbaric oxygen
C. Amputation
D. None
Answer: A
319. Most important diagnostic feature of congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
A. Metabolic alkalosis
B. Non bilious vomiting
C. Jaundice
D. Fever
Answer: B
320. Criteria for viability of muscle are all except
A. Colour
B. Intact fascia
C. Contractability
D. Bleeding when cut
Answer: B
321. Gall stone impacted causing intestinal obstruction
A. Raynods pentad
B. Hepatitis
C. Gallstone ileus
D. Obstructive jaundice
Answer: C
322. A middle aged male complains of ache and mumbness and sensated of fatigus over his calf muscles that develops on exercise and is relieved on rest; this condition is not associated with
A. Smoking
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Peripheral arterial disease
D. Hypertension and diabetes
Answer: B
323. Seton used in fistula in ano is
A. Draining seton
B. Cutting seton
C. Dissolving seton
D. None
Answer: B
324. Multiple air fluid levels in X-ray of abdomen is seen in
A. Hollow viscera perforation
B. Pyoperitoneum
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. None
Answer: C
325. Blunt trauma chest, first step in management after initial resuscitation is
A. CT scan
B. Angiography
C. X-ray chest
D. USG
Answer: C
326. Hemorrhage after thyroidectomy is due to
A. External carotid artery
B. Internal carotid artey
C. Superior thyroid artery
D. Inferior thyroid artery
Answer: C
327. True about blind loop syndrome, all except
A. Syndrome of bacterial overgrowth
B. Steatorrhea, mayeloblastic anemia & deficiency of fat soluble vitamins
C. Surgery is not indicated
D. 14C-xylose or 14C-cholyglycine breath tests are indirect tests for bacterial overgrowth
Answer: C
328. % of malignancy in duct ectasia is
A. No risk
B. 1.5:1
C. 7:1
D. 10:1
Answer: A
329. Recurrent anal fistula, most appropriate investigation is
A. Endorectal US
B. Colonoscopy
C. MRI
D. Proctoscopy
Answer: C
330. Anal fissure diagnosed by
A. TRUS
B. Colonoscopy
C. Clinical examination
D. Ba enema
Answer: C
331. 70 yr old female with bleeding from proximal colon
A. Colitis
B. Polyp
C. Diverticulitis
D. Ca colon
Answer: D
332. A 27 year old patient presented with left sided abdominal pain 6 hours after RTA. He was hemodynamically stable and FAST positive. CT scan showed grade III splenic injury. What will be appropriate treatment
A. Splenectomy
B. Splenorrhaphy
C. Splenic artery embolization
D. Conservative management
Answer: D
333. Retraction ball seen in
A. Burns
B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Diffuse axonal injury
D. Tracheobronchial injury
Answer: C
334. Prophylactic thyroidectomy is indicated in
A. Hashimoto thyroiditis
B. MEN type 2
C. Riedel thyroiditis
D. De-Quervain’s thyroiditis
Answer: B
335. Prophylactic Thyroidectomy for MEN 2 is recommended at age of
A. 5 years
B. Before 1 year
C. When detected
D. Any time
Answer: A
336. Cleft palate is ideally repaired at
A. 5 month of age
B. 1 year of age
C. Before going to school
D. 6-8 years of age
Answer: B
337. Radiofrequency ablation is
A. Derived from AC current
B. Used to separate fascial planes during surgery
C. Uses microwave
D. Used for hemostasis
Answer: A
338. Malignant melanoma false is
A. Radiosensitive
B. Surgery is the treatment of choice
C. Acral lentiginous has worst prognosis
D. Treatment is mide local excision
Answer: A
339. DVT not common causes
A. Prolonged immobilizationa
B. Extensive pelvic sx of > 30 minutes
C. Obesity
D. Age less than 40
Answer: D
340. Fogarty’s catheter is used for
A. Embolization
B. Embolectomy
C. Radiofrequency ablation
D. Angiography
Answer: B
341. Choledochal cyst is dilatation of
A. Gall bladder
B. CBD
C. Hepatic duct
D. Bile duct
Answer: D
342. False about retroperitoneal fibrosis is
A. Ureter is most commonly involved
B. More common in females
C. Primary idiopathic form is called ormond’s disease
D. Corticosteroids are mainstay of treatment
Answer: B
343. Most commonly affected in ormond’s disease
A. Aorta
B. IVC
C. Ureter
D. Gonadal vessels
Answer: C
344. Mucocele of gall bladder, false statement is
A. Complication of gall stones
B. Treatment is early cholecystectomy
C. Obstruction at neck of gall bladder
D. Gall bladder is never palpable
Answer: D
345. Investigation of choice for 74 yr old male patient scanty bleeding per rectum irregular bowel habits
A. Sigmoidoscopy
B. Barium enema
C. Colonoscopy
D. Barium meal follow through
Answer: B
346. Obstruction and dilatation of large intestine in absence of any mechanical obstruction
A. Ogilve syndrome
B. Hirschsprung disease
C. Chagas disease
D. None
Answer: A
347. Thyroid nodule increased radioisotope uptake IOC is
A. Biopsy
B. Thyroid scan
C. FNAC
D. None
Answer: C
348. What is intussuscepiens
A. The entire complex of intussusception
B. The entering layer
C. The outer layer
D. The process of reducing the intussusception
Answer: C
349. Gum tumor with 5 cm in dimension and contralateral lymph node enlargement of 2 cm. There is no distant metasis. The
stage of tumor :
A. T3N2M0
B. T2N2M0
C. T1N2Mo
D. T3N3M0
Answer: A
350. Most common cause of duodenal obstruction in adults
A. Lymphoma
B. Ca pancreas
C. Ca liver
D. Ca gall bladder
Answer: B
351. Case of diagnosed cholecystitis presentation acute pain sharp going to the back diagnosis
A. Acute pancreatitis
B. Cholecystitis
C. Appendicitis
D. Aortic aneurysm
Answer: A
352. Man presented with acute abdomen, when man was put in knee chest position helped to relieve the pain what might be the cause.
A. Acute pancreatitis
B. Cholecystitis
C. Superior mesenteric artery ischemia
D. Renal
Answer: A
353. Man gunshot wound in thorax chest tube 1900 ml blood, 200 ml of blood lost per hr. next step
A. Blood transfusion
B. Thoracotomy
C. PPV
D. FFP
Answer: B
354. Most common cause of acute abdomen in young girl
A. Acute appendicitis
B. ovarian torsion
C. Mitzschmerz
D. Renal colic
Answer: A
355. Decubitus ulcer is
A. Venous ulcer
B. Wet gangrene
C. Trophic ulcer
D. Post thrombotic ulcer
Answer: C
356. Lateral border of tongue carcinoma after resection
A. Chemotherapy
B. Radiotherapy
C. Observation
D. Neck dissection
Answer: D
357. Maximum weight reduction is by which surgery
A. BPD
B. Roux en Y gastric bypass
C. Sleeve gastrectomy
D. Gastric banding
Answer: A
358. Most common organism associated with breast abscess
A. Streptococcus
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Klebsiella
D. None
Answer: B
359. All is true about skull fracture except
A. Puppes rule gives the sequence of fracture
B. Pond fracture is a mild depressed fracture
C. Fissured fracture is most common
D. Skull fractures are due to traction
Answer: B
360. Cecum forms the posterior wall of which hernia
A. Sliding hernia
B. Rolling hernia
C. Incisional hernia
D. Hiatus hernia
Answer: A
361. In last decade, duodenal ulcer and its morbidity is reduced due to
A. Life style modification
B. Eradication of H pylori
C. Proton pump inhibitors
D. None
Answer: C
362. Posterior duodenal ulcer is related to
A. Gartoduodenal artery
B. Spleenic artery
C. Left gastric Artery
D. Sup mesentric artery
Answer: A
363. Postion in surgery for pilonidal sinus
A. Sim’s
B. Tredelenberg
C. Lithotomy
D. Jack knife
Answer: D
364. Length of flexible sigmoidoscope
A. 30 cm
B. 40 cm
C. 60 cm
D. 70 cm
Answer: C
365. Hernia common in children
A. Umbilical
B. Bockdelac
C. Morgagni
D. Inguinal
Answer: A
366. Gangrene not caused by
A. Frost bite
B. Burger’s disease
C. Varicose veins
D. Atherosclerosis
Answer: C
367. Bilateral breast carcinoma
A. Invasive lobular
B. Infiltractive ductal
C. Ductal ca in situ
D. None
Answer: A
368. Drainage of cervical abscess is an example of
A. Clean contaminated wound
B. Clean uncontaminated wound
C. Unclean uncontaminated wound
D. Dirty infected wound
Answer: D
369. Most common location of ectopic salivary gland is
A. Cervical lymph nodes
B. Anterior mediastinum
C. Posterior triangle
D. Parathyroid gland
Answer: A
370. All of the following are paraneoplastic syndromes for renal cell carcinoma except
A. Fever
B. Anaemia
C. Amyloidosis
D. Acanthosis Nigricans
Answer: D
371. ESWL is contraindicated in which of the following stones
A. Cysteine stones
B. Oxalate Stones
C. Urate stones
D. Phosphate stones
Answer: A
372.Traumatic optic neuropathy due to closed head trauma commonly affects which part of optic nerve
A. Optic canal
B. Intra ocular part
C. Intracranial part
D. Optic tract
Answer: A
373. All of the following are medical uses of erythropoietin except
A. Treatment of anaemia associated with renal disease
B. Chemotherapy induced anemia
C. Anaemia Associated with Crohn’s Disease
D. Megaloblastic Anaemis
Answer: D
374.Which of the following is the most conservative neck dissection
A. Supraomohyoid neck dissection
B. Radical neck dissection
C. Modified radical neck dissection
D. All are conservative
Answer: A
375. Which of the following is most malignant tumor?
A. Glioblastoma Multiforme
B. Meningioma
C. Osteochondroma
D. Giant cell tumor
Answer: A
376. Most tissue reaction is seen with
A. Plain Catgut
B. Polydiaxonone
C. Silk
D. Chromic catgut
Answer: C
377.Supraomohyoid dissection is a type of
A. Selective neck dissection
B. Modified radical neck dissection
C. Radical neck dissection
D. Posterolateral dissection
Answer: A
378. Polydiaxonone suture is normally absorbed in
A. 2 weeks
B. 4 weeks
C. 6 weeks
D. 6 months
Answer: D
379. Alagille syndrome- all of the following are true except
A. Mutation in JAG 1 And Notch2 gene are seen
B. Can Cause Autoimmune hepatitis
C. Autosomal Recessive Disease
D. Valvular anomalis of heart seen
Answer: C
380. Which of the following is an absorbable suture
A. Polyglactin
B. Silk
C. Polyester
D. Ethilon
Answer: A
381. Which is the investigation of choice for staging of a lower limb sarcoma ?
A. MRI
B. CT Scan
C. PET Scan
D. PET CT
Answer: A
382. All of the following are true about the bare area of the liver except
A. Infection can spread from the abdominal to thoracic cavity at this area
B. It is not a site of portocaval anastomosis
C. Formed by the reflections of coronary ligaments
D. It is triangular in shape
Answer: B
383. All of the following are premalignant conditions except
A. Bowen’s Disease
B. Senile Keratosis
C. Xeroderma Pigmentosum
D. Pyoderma Gangrenosum
Answer: D
384. Early stage of non small cell lung cancer can be treated by
A. Surgical resection
B. Surgical resection with adjuvant chemotherapy
C. Radiotherapy
D. Immunotherapy
Answer: C
385. Chimeric chemotherapy is being investigated for the treatment of which malignancy ?
A. Leukemia
B. Renal Cell Carcinoma
C. CA Pancreas
D. Glioblastoma Multiforme
Answer: A
386. Anterior Mediastinal nodes are included in which level of lymphnodes
A. I
B. III
C. V
D. VII
Answer: D
387. In Celiac artery compression syndrome which structure is the main cause of compression
A. Median Arcuate Ligament
B. Rectus Sheath
C. Deep Inferior Epigastric artery
D. Lacunar Ligament
Answer: A
388. The Bipolar cautery is preferred over monopolar cautery in the following surgeries except
A. Hand Surgery
B. Surgery around Penis
C. Surgery of the Hip
D. Surgery around the face
Answer: C
389. All of the following are true about Nissen Fundoplication except
A. It is done for GERD
B. Reinforcment is done only in the anterior half
C. Upper part of stomach is plicated around the lower esophagus
D. It is done for paraesophagal hiatus hernia
Answer: B
390. A 65 year old male presenting with acure pancreatitis is now having refractory hypoxia. The X RAY of chest would show
A. Bilateral infiltrates
B. Pneumatocoeles
C. Ground glass appearances
D. Hilar lymphadenopathy
Answer: A
391. Which Is False about stress urinary incontinence
A. More common in men
B. It occurs during increased abdominal pressure
C. It is due to weakening of pelvic floor muscles
D. Prostate surgery may be a cause
Answer: A
392. Which of the following types of shock wiil usually have warm peripheral extremities ?
A. Hypovolemic Shock
B. Neurogenic Shock
C. Cardiogenic Shock
D. Anaphylactic Shock
Answer: B
393. Antibiotic prophylaxis is best given
A. 1 day before surgery
B. 2 hours before surgery
C. Before the time of incision
D. Only postoperatively
Answer: C
394. Which of the following is a feature of crush syndrome
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Myoglobinuria
D. Hypophosphatemia
Answer: C
395. A young male presents with a testicular mass on the right side. The AFP is elevated while the HCG is normal. The most appropriate next step is
A. Biopsy
B. USG
C. Orchidectomy
D. Wait and Watch
Answer: B
396. Crush Syndrome is associated with all of the following features except
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Increased serum creatinine
D. Myoglobinuria
Answer: A
397. A 45 year old male presenting with penile cancer extending upto the glans penis is treated with
A. Partial Penectomy with 2 cm margin
B. Circumcision
C. Partial penectomy with Inguinal nodes exploration
D. Partial penectomy with 4 cm margin
Answer: A
398. Which of the following stones are common with infection ?
A. Struvite
B. Xanthine Stones
C. Cysteine stones
D. Calcium Oxalate stones
Answer: A
399. A 45 year old male is diagnosed with carcinoma penis. The surgeon must look out for which lymphnodes
A. Para aortic
B. External iliac
C. Internal Iliac
D. Inguinal
Answer: D
400. High Flying prostate is a sign of
A. Extraperitoneal Bladder rupture
B. Intraperitoneal Bladder Rupture
C. Membranous Urethral Injury
D. Bulbar Urethral Injury
Answer: C
401. Which of the following is false about undescended testis ?
A. More common on the right side
B. Hormonal therapy is effective
C. Increased risk of malignancy
D. Secondary sexual characteristics are normal
Answer: B
402. RPLND and Chemotherapy may be used in management of
A. Non seminomatous Germ cell tumours of testis
B. Non germ cell tumours
C. Seminomatous Germ cell tumours
D. Lymphoma testis
Answer: A
403. BPH involves A. Central zone
B. Peripheral zone
C. Transitional zone
D. Prostate capsule
Answer: C
404. Which of the following is a tumour marker for bladder cancer ?
A. AFP
B. CEA
C. Bladder surface protein
D. Nuclear Matrix protein 22
Answer: D
405. A 45 year old lawyer presents with pain in the abdomen more so in the epigastric region that worsens with eating spicy food and is relieved by bending forward. Complications of the above mentioned condition could be all except
A. Perforation
B. Bleeding
C. Gastric Outlet Obstruction
D. Splenic Vein Thrombosis
Answer: D
406. Prostate cancer that is limited to the capsule and not the urethra would be satged as A. Tx
B. T1
C. T2
D. T3
Answer: C
407. A 65 year old male presents with CA prostate. The tumour is limited to the capsule and it is palpable on PR examination. The patient is diagnosed as stage T1b. The best treatment would be
A. Radical prostatectomy
B. Chemotherapy
C. Palliative radiotherapy
D. Orchidectomy
Answer: A
408. A 55 years old male with a knoen history of gall stones presents with chief complints of severe abdominal pain and elevated levels of serum lipase with periumbilical ecchymosis. All of the following are prognostic criteria to predict severity of the condition except
A. Age
B. Serum LDH
C. Base deficit
D. Serum GGT
Answer: D
409. If 90% of jejunum and ilium is removed then all of the following features will be seen except
A. Steatorrhoea
B. Diarrhoea
C. Weight gain
D. Megaloblastic anemia
Answer: C
410. Most common location of breast cancer is
A. Lower inner quadrant
B. Nipple
C. Upper inner quadrant
D. Upper outer quadrant
Answer: D
411. A 22 year old woman comes with a non progressive mass in a left breast since 6 months. There are no associated symptoms. Examination shows a mobile mass not attached to the overlying skin or underlying tissue. The possible diagnosis is
A. Fibroadenoma
B. Cystasarcoma Phylloides
C. Scirrhous Carcinoma
D. Fibroadenosis
Answer: A
412. Perihepatic fibrosis occurring in Fitz Hugh Curtis Syndrome is due to
A. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
B. Bile Duct Injry
C. Chronic Alcoholism
D. Viral Hepatitis
Answer: A
413. 45 year old female underwent modified radical mastectomy with axillary clearance for CA breast. After surgery she could not lift her arm above head. Which nerve is likely to be injured ?
A. Intercostobrachial nerve
B. Long thorasic nerve of Bell
C. Nerve to latissimus Dorsi
D. Lateral Pectoral nerve
Answer: B
414. Which is the most common type of male breast cancer?
A. Infiltrating Ductal Carcinoma
B. Lobular Carcinoma
C. Mucinous Carcinoma
D. Colloid Carcinoma
Answer: A
415. A 25 year old male is receiving conservative management for an appendicular mass since 3 days now presents with a rising pulse rate, tachycardia and fever. The mode of management must be
A. Ochsner sherren regimen
B. Continue conservative management
C. Proceed to laparotomy and appendicectomy
D. Intravenous antibiotics
Answer: C
416. CA Breast may locally spread to all of the following muscles except
A. Pectoralis Major
B. Pectoralis Minor
C. Latissimus Dorsi
D. Serratus Anterior
Answer: C
417. Under what guidelines is treatment started for a patient presenting with appendicular mass on CT Scan ?
A. Ochsner Sherren Regimen
B. Conservative management and discharge
C. Immediate Laprotomy
D. Kocher’s Regimen
Answer: A
418. Which of the following is true about menetrier’s disease
A. It is premalignant condition
B. There is increased gastric acid secretion
C. Atrophied mucosal folds are seen
D. Affects the stomach and small intestines
Answer: A
419. A patient presents with difficulty with swallowing liquids but not solids. The best investigation to make a diagnosis is
A. Endoscopy
B. Endoscopic ultrasound
C. Manometry
D. PET CT
Answer: C
420. Spontaneous esophageal rupture is most common in
A. Below the diagphragmatic aperture
B. Pharyngoesophagal junction
C. Above the diagphragmatic aperture
D. At the crossing of the arch of aorta
Answer: C
421. Aneurysmal dilation of the small bowel is seen in
A. Small bowel Lymphoma
B. Gall Stone Ileus
C. Duodenal Atresia
D. Sjogrens Syndrome
Answer: A
422. Which is the main contraindication for a liver biopsy?
A. Thrombocytopenia
B. Hemangioma
C. Ascites
D. All
Answer: D
423. Treatment of choice of mucinous carcinoma of Gall Bladder confined to the lamina propria is
A. Simple cholecystectomy
B. Extended cholecystectomy
C. Cholecystectomy with wedge resection of liver
D. Chemotherapy only
Answer: A
424. All of the following are principles of negative pressure wound therapy except
A. Stabilization of wound environment
B. Clearance of infection
C. Macrodeformation of the wound
D. Decreased edema
Answer: B
425. Most common precipitant of Raynaud’s phenomenon is
A. Exposure to cold
B. Exposure to heat
C. Psychosocial triggers
D. Exertion
Answer: A
426. Nigro Regimen is used for
A. Anal Carcinoma
B. Rectal Carcinoma
C. Sigmoid Colon Carcinoma
D. Duodenal Carcinoma
Answer: A
427. The investigation of choice for dysphagia is
A. Endoscopy
B. Manometric Study
C. Ct Scan
D. Barium Swallow
Answer: A
428. A 54 year old woman is diagnosed as having carcinoma of the renal pelvis of size less than 4 cm without any metastasis. The best treatment option is
A. Partial nephrectomy
B. Radical Nephrectomy
C. Chemotherapy and immunaotherapy
D. Palliative Radiotherapy
Answer: A
429. A 35 year old male came with jaundice, palpable mass in the right hypochondrium not associated with pain. The probable diagnosis is
A. Carcinoma Ampulla of Vater
B. Acute cholecystitis
C. Chronic Cholecystitis
D. Chronic Pancreatitis
Answer: A
430. A 60 year male presented with jaundice, pale stools, dark urine and mass in the epigastric region. Which of the following diagnosis in unlikely ?
A. Pancreatic cancer
B. Biliary Cancer
C. Periampullary Cancer
D. Chronic Cholecystitis
Answer: D
431. All of the following may lead to a gall bladder carcinoma except
A. Gall Bladder Polyps
B. Typhoid carriers
C. Exposure to carcinogens like nitrosamine
D. Echinococcus Granulosus Infection
Answer: D
432. All of the following may lead to pneumatocele formation except
A. Staphylococcal pneumonia
B. Positive pressure ventilation
C. Hydrocarbon inhalation
D. ARDS
Answer: D
433. Which of the following stoma is formed in Hartman’s procedure ?
A. End Colostomy
B. End Iliostomy
C. Loop Iliostomy
D. Caecostomy
Answer: A
434. Most common site of colorectal
carcinoma is A. Rectum
B. Sigmoid Colon
C. Ascending Colon
D. Descending Colon
Answer: A
435. Which of the following stages of lip carcinoma do not have nodal involvement ?
A. T2N1
B. T3NO
C. T1N1
D. T2N2
Answer: B
436. Which of the following is true about Mallory Weiss tear
A. It is a mucosal tear not extending through the muscle layer
B. It is more common in women than men
C. It is common in young individuals
D. It is associated with achalasia cardia
Answer: A
437. A 40 year old male presented with a penetrating trauma to chest. He is dyspnoeic with distended neck veins with hypotension and mediastinum is shifted to opposite side. There is a sucking wound over the chest. The most appropriate management would be
A. Insertion of a large bore needle in the 2″ ICS in the mid
clavicular line
B. Fluid Resuscitation
C. Starting Inotropic support
D. Endotracheal Intubation
Answer: A
438. A 40 year old male with chest trauma presents with breathlessness, decreased respiratory sounds on the right side, hyperresonance on percussion and distended neck veins. The possible diagnosis is
A. Tension Pneumothorax
B. Cardiac Tamonade
C. Flail Chest
D. Myocardial Infarction
Answer: A
439. Which of the following is an indication for thoracotomy in case of hemothorax ?
A. Persistant drainage of 250 ml/hr
B. Total output of 1000m1 of blood
C. Falling blood pressure
D. Shift of mediastimum to the opposite side
Answer: A
440. A 55 year old woman presented with history of recurrent episodes of right upper abdominal pain for the last one year. She presented to emergency with history of jaundice and fever for 2 days. On examination, the patient appeared toxic and had a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg. She was started on intravenous antibiotics. Ultrasound of the abdomen showed presence of stones in the common bile duct. What would be the best treatment option for her –
A. ERCP and bile duct stone extraction
B. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
C. Open surgery and bile duct stone extraction
D. Lithotripsy
Answer: A
441. Rigler’s sign is suggestive of
A. Pneumothorax
B. Pneumoperitoneum
C. Peritonitis
D. Hemothorax
Answer: B
442. A 70 year pld male complaining of per rectal bleeding was diagnosed of having rectal/anorectal cancer. The distal margin of the tumor was 5 cm from the anal verge the treatment of choice would be
A. Palliative Radiotherapy
B. Abdominoperineal recection
C. Low anterior resection
D. Local Excision
Answer: C
443. All of the following are true about Hirschsprung disease except
A. Absence of Ganglion cells in the involved segment
B. Swenson, Duhamel and Soave are surgical procedures for this condition
C. Mainly presents in infancy
D. The non peristaltic affected segment is dialted
Answer: D
444. Most common cause of goiter in India is
A. Diffuse Endemic Goitre
B. Papillary Carcinoma
C. Toxic Multinodular Goitre
D. Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis
Answer: A
445. All of the following are clinical features suggestive of trachea-esophagal fistula except
A. Choking and Coughing
B. Regurgitation
C. Cyanosis
D. Fever
Answer: D
446. In Subtotal Thyroidectomy, What is true
A. Removal of one lobe and isthmus
B. Removal of both lobes leaving behind 6-8 grams of tissue
C. Removal of entire thyroid with cervical lymphnodes
D. Removal of 1 lobe with isthmus and the second lobe partially
Answer: B
447. Most important presenting feature of periampullary carcinoma is
A. Jaundice
B. Pain
C. Weight Loss
D. Palpable Mass
Answer: A
448. All of the following are surgical options in management of esophageal carcinoma except
A. Ivor Lewis Approach
B. Mckeown’s Approach
C. Transhiatal removal
D. Sistrunk operation
Answer: D
449. A 65 year old female presents with a swelling in the neck diagnosed as a solitary thyroid nodule. The patient is investigated and a scan shows increased uptake of iodine. Serum T3 and T4 are elevated . Most probabe diagnosis is
A. Benign Colloid Nodule
B. Toxic Adenoma
C. Follicular adenoma
D. Toxic Multinodular goitre
Answer: B
450. Chronic hemolytic anaemia is associated with which of the following
A. Brown Pigment stone of the gall bladder
B. Black Pigment stone of the gall bladder
C. Uric acid Renal Calculus
D. Intestinal Obstruction
Answer: B
451. All of the following is true about heart transplantation except
A. Immmunosupression is started preoperatively
B. It is only orthotopic and not heterotopic
C. A Beating heart cadaver/donor is needed
D. High Pulmonary arterial resistance in a contra indication
Answer: B
452. Thyroid nodule in a 65 year old male who is clinically euthyroid is most likely to be
A. Follicular adenoma
B. Follicular Carcinoma
C. Thyroid Cyst
D. Multinodular goiter
Answer: A
453. In case of polytrauma with multiple injuries to the chest, neck and abdomen, highest priority is given to
A. Stabilization of cervical spine
B. Staring of koids
C. Vasopressors
D. Assesing disability
Answer: A
454. A child presented with blunt abdominal trauma, the first investigation to be done is
A. USG
B. CT Scan
C. Complete Hemogram
D. Abdominal Xray
Answer: A
455. Which of the following precancerous conditions if treated would not lead to cancer
A. Cervical intraepithelial Neoplasia
B. Ductal carcinoma in situ of breast
C. Lobular Carcinoma in situ of breast
D. Vaginal intraepithelial Neoplasia
Answer: A
456. Vacuum assisted closure is contraindicated in which of the following conditions
A. Chronic osteomyelitis
B. Large amount of necrotic tissue with eschar
C. Abdominal wound
D. Surgical wound dehiscence
Answer: B
457. All of the following are causes of Urothelial Carcinomas Except
A. Smoking
B. Industrial solvents
C. Exposure to thorotrast
D. Alcohol consumption
Answer: D
458. Most common site for Cystic Hygroma is
A. Lower third of neck
B. Overlying the parotid gland
C. Along the Zygomatic Prominence
D. Post auricular
Answer: A
459. The size beyond which the risk of rupture of an abdominal aneurysm significantly increases is greater than
A. 5.5 cm
B. 6 cm
C. 6.5 cm
D. 7 cm
Answer: A
460. True about MALToma is
A. They are secondary gastric lymphomas
B. H. Pylori infection is a risk factor
C. Commonly seen in gastric cardia
D. They are a type of T cell lymphoma
Answer: B
461. A cystic mass at the base of umbilical cord in a neonate could be
A. Allantoic Cyst
B. Meckel’s Diverticulum
C. Ventral mesogastrium
D. Cystic Hygroma
Answer: A
462. Chvostek sign could be seen after
A. Gastrojejunostomy
B. Total thyroidectomy
C. Subtotal Thyroidectomy
D. Hellers Cardiomyotomy
Answer: B
463. An Incisional wound heals by
A. Primary Healing
B. Secondary Healing
C. Delayed primary Healing
D. Reepithelization
Answer: A
464. A full thickness wound that is not sutured heals by
A. Primary Healing
B. Secondary Healing
C. Delayed primary Healing
D. Reepithelization
Answer: B
465. Food can commonly get obstructed in the esophagus at all of the following locations except
A. Crossing of left bronchus
B. Crossing of arch of aorta
C. Diagphragmatic aperture
D. Crossing of the hemiazygous vein
Answer: D
466. Reactionary Hemorrhage occurs due to
A. Dislodgement of clot
B. Infection
C. Damage to a blood vessel
D. Pressure necrosis
Answer: A
467. All of the following is true about congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis except
A. RamStedt Pyloromyotomy is the treatment of choice
B. Non Bilious vomiting is seen
C. Metabolic acidosis occurs
D. More common in males
Answer: C
468. Which of the following is correct management of abdominal compartment syndrome
A. Antihypertensives
B. Urgent Opening of the surgical wound and application of the Bogota bag
C. Urgent Fasciotomy
D. Wait and monitor for 24 hours
Answer: B
469. Transplanted kidney is relocated to which region in the recepient’s body ?
A. Retroperitoneal rgion
B. Lumbar region
C. Epigastrium
D. Beside the dysfunctional Kidney
Answer: A
470. Claudication due to poplite of emoral incompetence is primary seen in
A. Thigh
B. Calf
C. Buttocks
D. Feet
Answer: B
471. Balthazar scoring system is used for?
A. Acute Pancreatitis
B. Acute Appendicitis
C. Acute cholecystitis
D. Cholangitis
Answer: A
472. Triage system used for
A. Burn
B. Earthquack
C. Polytrauma
D. Floods
Answer: C
473. Ileal obstruction due to round worm obstruction treatment is
A. Resection with end to end anastomosis
B. Resection with side to side anastomosis
C. Enterotomy, removal of worms and primary closure
D. Diversion
Answer: C
474. Surgery for perforation due to round worm is
A. Resection with end to end anastomosis
B. Resection with side to side anastomosis
C. Primary closure
D. Diversion
Answer: A
475. Which is a clean surgery
A. Hernia surgery
B. Gastric surgeru
C. Cholecystectomy
D. Rectal surgery
Answer: A
476. Steroid is injurious to wound when given
A. On 1st day
B. < 2weeks
C. 2-4 weeks
D. > 4 weeks
Answer: B
477. In surgical patient malnutrition is best assessed by
A. Serum albumin
B. Hb level
C. Mid arm circumference
D. Tricpes skin fold thickness
Answer: A
478. Abbes flap is used for
A. Eyelid
B. Tongue
C. Lip
D. Ear
Answer: C
479. In LAHSHAL terminology for cleft lip & cleft palate, LAHSHAL denotes
A. Bilateral cleft palate only
B. Bilateral cleft lip only
C. Bilateral cleft lip & palate
D. No cleft
Answer: C
480. Post operative abscess treatment of choice
A. Hydration
B. IV antibiotics
C. Image guided aspiration
D. Reexploration
Answer: C
481. May thurner or cockett syndrome involves
A. Common iliac artery obstruction
B. Internal iliac artery obstruction
C. Internal iliac vein obstruction
D. Left iliac vein compression
Answer: D
482. Method of reduction of inguinal hernia
A. Kugel maneuvve
B. Taxis
C. Macvay proceedure
D. Stopa’s technique
Answer: B
483. Subclavian steal syndrome is
A. Reversal of blood flow in the ipsilateral vertebral artery
B. Reversal of blood flow in the contralateral carotid artery
C. Reversal of blood flow in the contralateral vertebral artery
D. B/L reversal of blood flow in vertebral arteries
Answer: A
484. Most common cause of acquired AV fistula is
A. Bacterial infection
B. Fungal infection
C. Blunt trauma
D. Penetrating trauma
Answer: D
485. Best approach in thoracic trauma is
A. Midline sternotomy
B. Parasternal thoracotomy
C. Anterolateral thoracotomy
D. Posterolateral thoracotomy
Answer: C
486. Venous air embolism is most common in which position in surgery
A. Sitting
B. Prone
C. Lateral
D. Lithotomy
Answer: A
487. Fatal exsanguinations occurs mostly in
A. Closed fracture of femur shaft
B. Open fracture of femur & tibia
C. Partial transaction of artery
D. Complete resection transaction of artery
Answer: C
488. Premalignant lesion for carcinoma rectum is
A. Familial polyposis
B. FAP
C. Juvenile polyp
D. Adenomatous polyp
Answer: A
489. Most common site for anal fissure is
A. 3 O’clock
B. 6 O’clock
C. 2 O’clock
D. 10 O’clock
Answer: B
490. Alvarado score consist of
A. Leucopenia
B. Anorexia
C. Diarrhea
D. Periumbilical pain
Answer: B
491. Most common age for intussusception is
A. 0-6 Months
B. 6 Months -3yrs
C. 3-5 Yrs
D. > 5 yrs
Answer: B
492. Retrocardiac lucency with air fluid level is seen in
A. Hiatus hernia
B. Distal end esophageal obstruction
C. Eventration of diaphragm
D. None
Answer: A
493. Most common site for carcinoid tumor is
A. Esophagus
B. Lung
C. Appendix
D. Ileum
Answer: D
494. Most common differential diagnosis for appendicitis in children is
A. Gastroenteritis
B. Mesentric lymphadenopathy
C. Intussusception
D. Meckel’s diverticulitis
Answer: B
495. Abdominal surgery under LA, patient suddenly felt pain due to
A. Liver
B. Gut
C. Parietal peritoneum
D. Visceral peritoneum
Answer: C
496. A 55 year male has history of dysphagia with vomiting of undigested food throughout the day, weight loss, emaciated & dehydrated. No mass palpable per abdomen. The modality of treatment is
A. IV total parenteral nutrition
B. Endoscopic dilation
C. IV normal saline
D. pH monitoring
Answer: B
497. Hose pipe appearance of intestine is a feature of
A. Crohns disease
B. Malabsorption syndrome
C. Ulcerative colitis
D. Hirsprung disease
Answer: A
498. In old age for rectal prolapse palliative surgery in a patient unfit for surgery is
A. Delorme’s procedure
B. Well’s procedure
C. Thiersch’s operation
D. Low anterior resection
Answer: C
499. 40 year old male complaints of GERD, on endoscopy shows dysplasia. Treatment
A. Fundoplication
B. Esophageal resection
C. PPI
D. Dietmodification
Answer: B
500. Renal stones which are laminated and irregular in outline are
A. Uric acid
B. Calcium oxalate
C. Struvite
D. Cystine
Answer: B
501. In a case of perforation peritonitis, emergency laparotomy, 2nd post operative day develops oliguria. Diagnosis
A. Severe UTI
B. Fluid retention
C. Dehydration
D. Catheter obstruction
Answer: C
502. Etiology of bloody discharge from nipple
A. Duct papiloma
B. Breast abscess
C. Fibroadenoma
D. Cyst
Answer: A
503. Carcinoma breast is least seen in
A. Superior outer quadrant
B. Inferior outer quadrant
C. Subareolar
D. Lower inner quadrant
Answer: D
504. Intraoperative sentinel lymph node detection in axilla is done by using
A. Mammography
B. Isosulfan blue dye
C. MRI
D. CT
Answer: B
505. Sentinel lymph node biopsy in carcinoma breast is done if
A. LN palpable
B. Breast mass but no lymph node palpable
C. Breast lump with palpable axillary node
D. Metastatic CA breast
Answer: B
506. Indication for sentinel node biopsy is
A. Non palpable axillary lymph node
B. Palpable axillary lymph node
C. Mass > 5cm
D. Metastasis
Answer: A
507. Breast conservation surgery is contraindicated in all except
A. Tumor> 4cm
B. Multicentric tumor
C. Axillary LN involvement
D. Diffuse microcalcifications
Answer: D
508. The following are suitable for simple mastectomy except
a) Pagets disease
B. Fibroadenoma
C. Cystosarcoma phyllodes
D. None
Answer: B
509. Which of the following is used in the treatment of well differentiated thyroid carcinoma
A. I131
B. 99m Tc
C. 32p
D. MIBG
Answer: A
510. Treatment for malignant melanoma is
A. Wide excision
B. Radiotherapy
C. Excision
D. Chemotherapy
Answer: A
511. Moures sign is seen in
A. Carcinoma
B. Appendicitis
C. Varicose vein
D. Pancreatitis
Answer: A
512. Acute orchitis all are seen except
A. Increased local temprature
B. Decreased blood flow
C. Etythematous scrotum
D. Raised TLC
Answer: B
513. All are true about carcinoma penis except
A. Most common type is verrocous
B. Spreads by blood borne metastasis
C. Leads to erosion of artery
D. Slowly progressive
Answer: A
514. In testicular torsion, surgery within how much time can save viability of testis
A. 6 hr
B. 12 hr
C. 24 hr
D. 1 week
Answer: A
515. Investigation using dye to find out stone in salivary gland
A. Sialography
B. Mammography
C. MR angiography
D. USG
Answer: A
516. ERCP is indicated for the following except
A. Distal CBD tumor
B. Hepatic porta tumor
C. Proximal cholangiocarcinoma
D. Gall stone pancreatitis
Answer: C
517. Alagille syndrome is
A. Bile duct paucity
B. IHBR dilation
C. PBC
D. PSC
Answer: A
518. Hemorrhagic pancreatitis, bluish discoloration of flank
A. Grey turner sign
B. Cullen sign
C. Trosseue sign
D. None
Answer: A
519. Complication of chronic pancreatitis include all except
a) Renal artery thrombosis
B. Pseudocyst
C. Splenic vein thrombosis
D. Fistulae
Answer: A
520. During functional endoscopic sinus surgery the position of patient is
A. Trendelenberg
B. Lateral
C. Reverse trendelenberg
D. Lithotomy
Answer: C
521. Head & face burn in infant is
A. 15%
B. 18%
C. 12%
D. 32%
Answer: B
522. Plasma expanders are used in
A. Endotoxic shock
B. Neurogenic shock
C. Vasovagal shock
D. Anaphylactic shock
Answer: A
523. Whiplash injury is tear of which ligament
A. Ligamenta flava
B. Ant. longitudinal ligament
C. Post. longitudinal ligament
D. Supraspinal ligament
Answer: B
524. Neurosurgery is indicated for all except
A. SDH
B. EDH
C. Intracerebral bleed
D. Diffuse axonal injury
Answer: D
525. Young male with history of trauma having left sided testis swollen & erythematous. Other side normal diagnosis
A. Torsion
B. Carcinoma
C. Hematoma
D. Hernia
Answer: C
526. Central stellate scar is seen in
A. Focal nodular hyperplasia
B. Chronic regenerative hyperplasia
C. Hepatoblastoma
D. None
Answer: A
527. . Z plasty ideal angle
A. 90°
B. 45°
C. 60°
D. 75°
Answer: C
528. Lymphedema precox all are true except
A. U/L
B. More common in men
C. Affects the legs
D. 2-35yrs of age
Answer: B
529. RTA with multiple fractures initial treatment would be
A. Management of shock
B. Splinting of limbs
C. Airway management
D. Cervical spine protection
Answer: C
530. With blunt trauma all over body the amount of N2 & nitrogen end products lost/day
A. 35gm
B. 45gm
C. 55gm
D. 65gm
Answer: A
531. Inverted Champagne bottle appearance is seen in
A. Varicose veins
B. DVT
C. Lipodermatosclerosis
D. Venous ulceration
Answer: C
532. 10 cm tumor on anterior surface of thigh, what is done to know to diagnosis
A. Incision biopsy
B. Excision biopsy
C. FNAC
D. USG
Answer: A
533. Flash burn, tender, red & painful, which of the following type is the burn
a) Scalded burn
B. First degree burn
C. Second degree burn
D. Fourth degree burn
Answer: B
534. In a female abdominal intestinal perforation operated has serous discharge on 5th day with wound gap. What is your diagnosis
A. Wound dehiscence
B. Enterocutaneous fistula
C. Scroma
D. Peritonitis
Answer: A
535. Peritonitis
A. Neutrophils > 250mm3
B. WBC < 100/m1
C. Ascitis lactate level < 25 mg/dl D. Ascitis fluid pH > 735
Answer: A
536. Treatment of choice in anorectal carcinoma
A. Chemoradiation
B. APRCombined surgery and radiotherapy
C. Chemotherapy alone
D. All
Answer: B
537. Rectal prolapse surgery is
A. Rectal mucosal stapling
B. Mucosal resection
C. Placation/wiring
D. Rectopexy
Answer: D
538. Crohn’s disease
A. Continous involvement
B. Sinus & fistula
C. Mesenteric lymphadenitis
D. Stud ulcer
Answer: B
539. Step ladder pattern of gas shadow is seen in
A. Duodenal obstruction
B. Intestinal obstruction
C. Gastric outlet obstruction
D. Sigmoid volvulus
Answer: B
540. What is not seen in short bowel syndrome
A. Hypergastrinemia & high gastric secretion is seen
B. Diarrhea, dehydration and malnutrition
C. Hirsutism
D. Chronic TPN dependence
Answer: C
541. Ogilvie’s syndrome most commonly involves
A. Stomach
B. Colon
C. Gallbladder
D. Small intestine
Answer: B
542. Spigelian hernia is
A. Through linea alba
B. Through lateral border of rectus abdominis
C. Through medial wall of iinguinal canal
D. Through lateral wall of inguinal canal
Answer: B
543. 24 day neonate with projectile vomiting & failure to gain weight .what is the diagnosis
A. CHPS
B. NEC
C. Duodenal atresia
D. Hirschsprung’s disease
Answer: A
544. Not true about Barrett’s esophagus
A. Metaplasia of cells
B. Predisposes to SCC
C. Precancerous condition
D. Intestinal type is the most common type
Answer: B
545. Gastrotomy is
A. Open the stomach closed after tube insertion
B. Opening the stomach
C. Resecting the terminal part of stomach
D. Resecting the proximal part of stomach
Answer: B
546. Parrot beak appearance is seen in
A. Volvulus
B. Intussuption
C. Rectal atresia
D. CA colon
Answer: A
547. Raspberry tumor is seen in
A. Umbilical fistula
B. Meckel’s diverticulum
C. Umbilical adenoma
D. Umbilical granuloma
Answer: C
548. After mastectomy, breast reconstruction is done by
A. Deltopectoral
B. latissimus dorsi
C. Serratus anterior
D. Trapezius
Answer: B
549. Peau de orange appearance of Ca breast, what is the stage
A. T4b
B. T4a
C. T3a
D. T3b
Answer: A
550. Not a component of triple test in detection of Ca breast
a) Breast self examination
B. USG/ mammography
C. FNAC/ trucut biopsy
D. Clinical examination
Answer: A
551. Treatment for hydroureter
A. Antibiotic prophylaxis alone
B. Immediate ureterolithotomy
C. Endoscopic ureteral stenting
D. Urinary alkalization
Answer: C
552. Diversion of urine is best done at
A. Ileum
B. Jejunum
C. Caecum
D. Colon
Answer: A
553. Ureterosigmoistomy
A. Hyperchloremic with hypokalemic acidosis
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Hyponatremia
Answer: A
554. Injury to penis which of the following prevents extravasation of blood –
A. Bucks fascia
B. Fascia of camper
C. Fascia transversalis
D. None
Answer: A
555. Phimosis is associated with
A. Paraphimosis
B. Meatal stenosis
C. Balanoposthitis
D. Hypospadias
Answer: C
556. Circumcision is contraindicated in
A. Balanitis
B. Hypospadias
C. Paraphimosis
D. Exostrophy of bladder
Answer: B
557. Which is not true about cancer of tongue
A. Adenocarcinoma most common
B. Lateral surface involved
C. Deep cervical lymph nodes not involved
D. Tobacco is the cause
Answer: A
558. Kasai operation
A. Biliary atresia
B. Choledochal cyst
C. Hepatocellular carcinoma
D. Primary biliary cirrhosis
Answer: A
559. False about hepatic adenoma
A. Benign lesion
B. OCP use
C. Older females
D. Cold on isotope scan
Answer: C
560. Bismuth classification in which class, hepatic duct confluence is involved
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
Answer: B
561. Parathyroid glands are removed by surgery, for recurrence investigation of choice
A. Technetium scan
B. SPECT
C. MRI
D. Neck ultrasound
Answer: A
562. Which is not a contraindication for pancreaticoduodenectomy
A. Metastasis
B. Portal vein involvement
C. Stage III CA head of pancrease
D. Invasion of superior mesentric vein
Answer: B
tant metastasis.
563. Most common cause of chronic pancreatitis
A. Chronic alcoholism
B. Tropical pancreatitis
C. Pancreas divisium
D. Gall stone disease
Answer: A
564. Most common cause of acute parotitis
A. Staphylococcus Aureus
B. Streptococcus Pneumonia
C. Klebsiella
D. Streptococcus Viridans
Answer: A
565. Pre-operative prophylaxis for pheochromocytoma
A. Alpha blockade after beta blocker
B. Beta blockade after alpha blocker
C. Alpha blocker
D. Beta blocker
Answer: B
566. Child with polytrauma came to casualty, dose of packed cell
A. 10 ml/kg
B. 20 ml/kg
C. 30 ml/kg
D. 40 ml/kg
Answer: A
567. Polytrauma patient came to EMS, dose of crystalloid given should be
A. 500 ml RL bolus then regulated by indicators
B. 2000 ml bolus
C. 1000 ml bolus then regulated by clinical indicators
D. 250 ml bolus
Answer: C
568. A polytrauma CT scan, CT brain shows a lesion with concave margin
A. EDH
B. SDH
C. Contusion
D. Diffuse axonal injury
Answer: B
569. A person inhaled peanut two days back& now unable to cough it out where is the possible location
A. Right superior lobe
B. Rt middle lobe
C. Rt lower lobe
D. Lt lower lobe
Answer: C
570. Hernia most commonly strangulates in
A. Indirect
B. Direct
C. Spigelian
D. Incisional
Answer: A
571. Van Nuys prognostic index is not based on:
A. Age
B. Microcalcification
C. Size
D. ER status
Answer: D
572. Common cause of chronic pancreatitis
A. Chronic alcohol
B. Chronic pancreatic calculi
C. pancreas divisum
D. Gall bladder stones
Answer: A
573. The following statement about Keloid is true
A. It contain growth factor
B. Extended excision is the treatment of choice
C. It do not extend beyond the wound
D. None of the above
Answer: A
574. Which of the following layers are cut during fasciotomy ?
A. Skin
B. Skin+subcutaneous fascia
C. Skin+subcutaneous tissue+Superficial fascia
D. Skin+subcutaneous tissue+Superficial fascia+deep fascia
Answer: D
575. Which statement is not true regarding crohn’s disease :
A. Rectum is not involved
B. Continuous lesion visualized in endoscopy
C. Non caseating granulomas
D. Cobblestone appearance
Answer: B
576. Which is the best investigation for carcinoma head of pancreas:
A. Guided biopsy
B. ERCP
C. Transduodenal/transperitoneal sampling
D. EUS
Answer: D
577. An abdominal mass is best demonstrated in congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis by:
A. In palpation over the epigastrium
B. In left hypochondriac
C. Right iliac fossa
D. During feeding
Answer: D
578. Calculate GCS of 25 year old head injury patient with following parameters confused, opening eyes in response to pain, localizing pain will be
a) 6
B. 11
C. 12
D. 7
Answer: B
579. RET proto-oncogene is associated with the development of
A. Medullary carcinoma thyroid
B. Astrocytoma
C. Paraganglioma
D. Hurthle cell tumor thyroid
Answer: A
580. Cutoff for surgery in an abdominal aortic aneurysm in asymptomatic patients
a) 5.5cm
B. 6.5cm
C. 7.5cm
D. 8.5cm
Answer: A
581. In ACLS which drug can be given following ventricular fibrillation after cardiac arrest other than epinephrine?
A. Amiodarone
B. Dopamine
C. Adenosine
D. Atropine
Answer: A
582. A 6-year-old boy experienced life threatening shock ,his CT scan showed large amount of ascites, bowel wall thickening and poor or absent enhancement of the strangulated bowel segment, showing gangrenous bowel on surgical exploration. True about anastomosis is
a) Should be done by continuous layers as it takes less time
B. Should be Done with catgut
C. Should be Done by single layer seromuscular lembert sutures
D. Should be Done by Single layer taking submucosa
Answer: C
583. Which of the following is the best Stent for Femoropopliteal Bypass?
A. Dacron
B. Reversed saphenous
C. PTFE
D. None
Answer: C
584. Maastricht classification of donation after cardiac death. What category is stage 3 ?
A. Awaiting cardiac arrest
B. Brought in dead
C. Unsuccessful resuscitation
D. Cardiac arrest after brain-stem death
Answer: A
585. A patient arrived in ER following an RTA with hypotension, respiratory distress and subcutaneous emphysema with no entry of air on one side. What will be the best management?
A. Needle decompression in 5th intercostal space in the midaxillary line
B. Continue PPV
C. Shift to ICU and incubate
D. Secure IV line and start fluid resuscitation after insertion of the
wide-bore IV line
Answer: A
586. Treatment of Renal cell carcinoma of less than 4 cm will be
a) Partial nephrectomy
B. Radical nephrectomy
C. Radical nephrectomy + postoperative radiotherapy
D. Radical nephrectomy + chemotherapy
Answer: A
587. Which is not seen in Asepsis score
a) Erythema
B. Induration
C. Serous discharge
D. Purulent exudate
Answer: B
588. Esophageal manometry was performed it revealed panesophageal pressurization with distal contractile integrity as >450mm Hg pressure in the body. What will be the diagnosis?
A. Type 1 achalasia
B. Type 2 achalasia
C. Type 3 achalasia
D. Jackhammer esophagus
Answer: C
589. What will be the appropriate management for Abdominal aortic aneurysm
a) Monitor till size reaches 55mm
B. Immediate surgery
C. USG monitoring till >70mm asymptomatic
D. No treatment
Answer: A
590. What is the T stage of a 2.5cm lung carcinoma, not involving the pleura?
A. T1a
B. T2
C. T1b
D. T1c
Answer: D
591. In, the primary survey which is not included
a) CECT to look for bleeding
B. Exposure of the whole body
C. ABC
D. Recording BP
Answer: A
592. MC location of gastrinoma in MEN-1 syndrome?
A. Duodenum
B. Jejunum
C. Pancreas
D. Ileum
Answer: A
593. Patients have precancerous lesions with abdominal swelling and inguinal nodes are seen. On examination, lymphadenopathy was found. The most probable carcinoma related to this condition will be?
A. ca penis
B. CaTestis
C. ca prostate
D. ca bladder
Answer: A
594. A man under alcohol intoxication had fallen into a manhole and had a perineal injury with swollen scrotum and upper thigh along with blood at meatus. The patient is having difficulty passing urine as well. What will be the injury associated due to this trauma?
A. Bladder rupture
B. Penile fracture
C. Bulbar urethra
D. Membranous urethra
Answer: C
595. Patient with a history of carcinoma bladder presenting with dyspnoea with clinical signs of DVT and tachycardia. The risk for the patient to develop Pulmonary embolism according to WELL’s score
A. High
B. Medium
C. Low
D. Cannot comment without d-dimer values
Answer: B
596. After 4 months of renal transplantation, a patient can likely to develop which infection
a) EBV
B. CMV
C. Candida
D. Histoplasma
Answer: B
597. The patient is present with fecal peritonitis and during laparotomy, a diverticular perforation is seen. Which stage is classified according to Hinchey’s stage?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D
598. A young man met with a motorbike accident and had injuries to ileum and jejunum. Therefore the entire ileum and partial jejunum were resected. Which of the following would the patient suffer from
A. Vitamin B12 deficiency
B. Atrophic gastritis
C. Constipation
D. None
Answer: A
599. A patient after a heavy meal comes with epigastric pain. On examination tenderness and rigidity in the upper abdomen. X-ray showing pneumomediastinum. What can be the cause
a) Spontaneous esophageal rupture
B. Penetrating foreign body injury to esophagus
D. Rupture of emphysematous bulla
C. Perforated peptic ulcer
Answer: A
600. Transplantation between identical twins
a) Isograft
B. Allograft
C. Autograft
D. Xenograft
Answer: A
601. Thoracoscore , what is not the component
A. ASA CLASSIFICATIONS
B. SURGERY PRIORITIES
C. Performance status
D. Expected complications post-surgery
Answer: B
602. Retrosternal goiter which is true?
A. All patients should undergo CT chest
B. All patients require a median sternotomy
C. it receives blood supply from thoracic vessels
D. Majority of retrosternal goitres should be operated immediately
Answer: A
603. True for King’s Criteria with acute fulminant liver failure except
a) Age
B. Jaundice <7days C. Serum bilirubin >17.5 mg/dl
D. INR >3.5
Answer: B
604. A patient who was posted for elective inguinal hernia surgery has history MI for which he underwent CABG. What will you do in pre operative assessment?
A. History + c/e + routine labs + angiography to look for stent patency
B. History + c/e + routine labs
C. History + c/e + routine labs + stress test
D. History +c/e + routine labs + V/Q scan
Answer: C
605. History of trauma with a stab injury to the right lower chest with low BP and low pulse rate. It can be improved with IV fluids and after resuscitation in the trauma center patient’s BP becomes normal. A chest X-ray showed clear lung fields. What will be the next step
a) EFAST
B. Keep immediate chest tube
C. CECT abdomen
D. CECT chest
Answer: A
606. In a patient with parathyroid adenoma, how do we confirm the removal of the correct gland after surgery?
A. 50% reduction in PTH after 10mins
B. 50% reduction in PTH after 5mins
C. 25% reduction in PTH after 10mins
D. 25% reduction in PTH after 5mins
Answer: A
607. Flap commonly used in breast reconstruction is?
A. DIEP based on deep inferior epigastric vessels
B. TRAM based on superior gluteal vessels
C. Gluteal flap based on thoracodorsal artery
D. Latissimus dorsi flap based on the inferior epigastric artery
Answer: A
608. A 30-year-old man is presented with cramping gluteal pain after walking 500m. Which is the vessel involved during this?
A. Arterial disease with aortoiliac involvement
B. Arterial disease with femoral artery involvement
C. Femoral venous insufficiency
D. None
Answer: A
609. Which is the most common pancreatic endocrine neoplasm?
A. Insulinoma
B. Gastrinoma
C. VIPoma
D. Glucagonoma
Answer: A
610. An elderly man with a long-standing mole over the face which is increasing in size and showing irregular borders. What will be the diagnosis?
A. Superficial spreading melanoma
B. Lentigo maligna
C. Acral melanoma
D. Nodular melanoma
Answer: A
