1. Weber ferguson approach is used for?
A. Mastoidectomy
B. Maxillectomy
C. Myringoplasty
D. Mandibulectomy
Answer: B
2. A patient with ear complaints showed positive Hennebert sign. Which of the following condition shows positive Hennebert sign?
A. Meniere’s disease
B. Acoustic neuroma
C. Neuronitis
D. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia
Answer: A
3. The maxillary sinus opens into middle meatus at the level of:
A. Hiatus semilunaris
B. Bulla ethmoidalis
C. Infundibulum
D. None of the above
Answer: A
4. Gradenigo’s syndrome involves all of the following cranial nerves, EXCEPT:
A. IV
B. V
C. VI
D. VII
Answer: A
5. Ceruminous glands present in the ear are:
A. Modified eccrine glands
B. Modified apocrine glands
C. Mucous gland
D. Modified holocrine glands
Answer: B
6. Mac Ewan’s triangle is the landmark for:
A. Maxillary sinus
B. Mastoid antrum
C. Frontal sinus
D. None
Answer: B
7. External auditory canal is formed by:
A. 1s branchial groove
B. 1st visceral pouch
C. 2nd branchial groove
D. 2nd visceral pouch
Answer: A
8. Hyperacusis is defined as:
A. Hearing of only loud sound
B. Normal sounds heard as loud and painful
C. Completely deaf
D. Ability to hear in noisy surroundings
Answer: B
9. In electrocochleography:
A. It measures middle ear latency
B. Outer hair cells are mainly responsible for cochlear mi?- crophonics and summation potential
C. Summation potential is a compound of synchronous auditory nerve potential
D. Total AP represents end cochlear receptor potential to an external auditory stimulus
Answer: B
10. True statement about malignant otitis externa is:
A. Not painful
B. Common in diabetics and old age
C. Caused by streptococcus
D. All of the above
Answer: B
11. Ossicle M/C involved in CSOM:
A. Stapes
B. Long process of incus
C. Head of malleus
D. Handle of malleus
Answer: B
12. Most common nerve to be damaged in CSOM is
A. III
B. VII
C. IV
D. VI
Answer: B
13. Simple mastoidectomy is done in:
A. Acute mastoiditis
B. Cholesteatoma
C. Coalescent mastoiditis
D. Localized chronic otitis media
Answer: C
14. Radical mastoidectomy is done for:
A. ASOM
B. CSOM
C. Atticoantral cholesteotoma
D. Acute mastoiditis
Answer: C
15. Light house sign in seen in ASOM in which stage?
A. Stage of suppuration
B. Stage of hyperaemia
C. Stage of resolution
D. Stage of pre-suppuration
Answer: A
16. In otosclerosis, the tympanogram is:
A. Low compliance
B. High compliance
C. Normal compliance
D. None of the above
Answer: A
17. Which fracture of the petrous bone will cause facial nerve palsy:
A. Longitudinal fractures
B. Transverse fractures
C. Mastoid
D. Facial nerve injury is always complete
Answer: B
18. FISCH classification is used for:
A. Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
B. Nasopharyngeal ca
C. Vestibular schwannoma
D. Glomus tumour
Answer: D
19. True about rhinophyma:
A. Premalignant
B. Common in alcoholics
C. Acne rosacea
D. Fungal etiology
Answer: C
20. What is a Rhinolith:
A. Foreign body in nose
B. Stone in nose
C. Deposition of calcium around foreign body in nose
D. Misnomer
Answer: C
21. Posterior epistaxis occurs from:
A. Woodruffs plexus
B. Kiesselbach’s plexus
C. Atherosclerosis
D. Littles area
Answer: A
22. Caldwell view is done for
A. Sphenoid sinus
B. Maxillary sinus
C. Ethmoid sinus
D. Frontal sinus
Answer: D
23. Regarding ranula all are true except:
A. Retention cyst
B. Arises from submandibular gland
C. Translucent
D. Plunging may be a feature
Answer: B
24. Regarding adenoids true is/are:
A. There is failure to thrive
B. Mouth breathing is seen
C. CT scan should be done to assess size
D. a and b
Answer: D
25. Trismus in parapharyngeal abscess is due to spasm of:
A. Masseter muscle
B. Medial pterygoid
C. Lateral pterygoid
D. Temporalis
Answer: B
26. Inlet of larynx is formed by:
A. Ventricular fold
B. Aryepiglottic fold
C. Glossoepiglottic fold
D. Vocal cord
Answer: B
27. All the following are true about Laryngeal carcinoma except:
A. More common in females
B. Common in patients over 40 years of age
C. After laryngectomy, esophageal voice can be used
D. b and c
Answer: A
.
28. Select correct statements about Ca larynx:
A. Glottic Ca is the most common
B. Supraglottic ca has best prognosis
C. Lymphatic spread is the most common in subglottic Ca
D. All
Answer: A
29. The commonest site of aspiration of a foreign body in the supine position is into the:
A. Right upper lobe apical
B. Right lower lobe apical
C. Left basal
D. Right medial
Answer: B
30. Cauliflower ear seen in:
A. Hematoma of the auricle
B. Carcinoma of the auricle
C. Fungal infection of the auricle
D. Congenital deformity
Answer: A
31. All of the following arteries contributes to Little’s area EXCEPT:
A. Anterior Ethmoidal artery
B. Posterior Ethmoidal artery
C. Sphenopalatine artery
D. Greater palatine artery
Answer: B
32. Multiple perforation of tympanic membrane characteristic of ?
A. Tubercular Otitis Media
B. Syphilitic Otitis Media
C. Pseudomonas infection
D. Fungal Otitis Media
Answer: A
33. Another name for oral thrush is ?
A. Candidiasis
B. Herpangina
C. Vincent’s infection
D. Hand foot and mouth disease
Answer: A
34. Which of the following is not true about inverted papilloma ?
A. It is always unilateral
B. It is more common in males
C. 10-15 % of the cases may be associated with squamous cell carcinoma
D. It is also called Ringertz tumor
Answer: D
35. Positive head impulse test is suggestive of ?
A. Injury to vestibular nuclei
B. Injury to peripheral vestibular nerve
C. Lesion in the brain stem
D. Injury to Occulomotor nerve
Answer: B
36. Conducting hearing loss with intact tympanic membrane ?
A. Presbycausis
B. Meniere’s disease
C. Glue ear
D. Acoustic neuroma
Answer: C
37. Not a cause of objective tinnitus ?
A. Palatal myoclonus
B. Glomus tumor
C. Carotid artery aneurysm
D. Presbyacusis
Answer: D
38. Length of external auditory meatus is ?
A. 12mm
B. 16mm
C. 20mm
D. 24mm
Answer: D
39. Which of the following is false regarding frontal sinusitis ?
A. Pain shows periodicity
B. Most common sinus involved in infants and children
C. Pain is referred to as office headache
D. Tenderness is present just above the medial canthus of eye
Answer: B
40. Mini tracheostomy is performed through ?
A. Cricothyroid membrane
B. 2nd and 3rd tracheal rings
C. Any of the above
D. None of the above
Answer: A
41. Which of the following is included in the Levenson criteria for congenital cholesteatoma ?
A. White mass medial to normal tympanic membrane
B. Atticoantral perforation of the tympanic membrane
C. Definite history of otorrhoea
D. History of prior otologic procedures
Answer: A
42. Which of the following is false regarding Frey’s syndrome?
A. It is also called gustatory sweating
B. It is caused by injury to auriculotemporal nerve
C. It occurs immediately after the parotid surgery
D. It is caused by aberrant regeneration of post
Answer: C
43. Most common cause of trigeminal neuralgia ?
A. Infection
B. Trauma
C. Vascular compression
D. Iatrogenic
Answer: C
44. Patient with thin painless otorrhoea, multiple perforations of the tympanic membrane and failure to respond to antimicrobial treatment. What is the most probable causative organism ?
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Candida albicans
D. Aspegillusfumigatus
Answer: A
45. Synkinesis is a sequel of ?
A. Facial nerve paralysis
B. Trigeminal nerve paralysis
C. Superficial temporal nerve paralysis
D. Greater Petrosal nerve paralysis
Answer: A
46. Sago grain appearance is seen in ?
A. Healed myringitis bullosa
B. Otomycosis
C. Malignant otitis externa
D. Keratosis obturans
Answer: A
47. Following is the preferred treatment of Serous Otitis Media
A. Grommet surgery
B. Oral Amoxicillin for 5 – 10 days
C. Modified radical mastoidectomy
D. Bed rest, antipyretics and adequate fluid intake
Answer: A
48. When a patient says Ah the right uvula presses the palate which of the following nerve is damaged ?
A. Rght X CN
B. Right XII CN
C. Left X CN
D. Right XII CN
Answer: C
49. Lumpy feeling in throat relieved on taking food is attributed to ?
A. Globus pharyngeus
B. Pharyngeal pouch
C. Diverticular disease
D. Esophageal atresia
Answer: A
50. Glomus jugulare commonly arises from ?
A. Hypotympanum
B. Mesotympanum
C. Epitympanum
D. Prussaks space
Answer: A
51. Gradenigo syndrome is characterized by all except ?
A. Diplopia
B. Retro-orbital pain
C. Persistent ear discharge
D. Vertigo
Answer: D
52. Attico antral disease is treated by ?
A. Modified radical mastoidectomy
B. Antibiotics
C. Grommet insertion
D. Synringing
Answer: A
53. Samters triad is seen in patients with ?
A. Asthma
B. Chronic pancreatitis
C. Crohn’s disease
D. Liver cell carcinoma
Answer: A
54. Strawberry tongue is seen in ?
A. Streptococcal scarlet fever
B. Kawasaki disease
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Answer: C
55. All are true for gradenigo’s syndrome except ?
A. Associated with intermittent ear discharge
B. Associated with conductive hearing loss
C. Causes diplopia
D. Leads to retro orbital pain
Answer: A
56. Treatment of middle ear papilloma is ?
A. Myringotomy and simple excision
B. Myringectomy and simple excision
C. Tympanomastoidectomy
D. Local infiltration with podophyllin
Answer: C
57. Best time for hearing assessment in an infant ?
A. 1st month of life
B. 3-6 months
C. 6-9 months
D. 9-12 months
Answer: A
58. Darwin tubercle is seen in ?
A. Tragus
B. Helix
C. Antihelix
D. Lobule
Answer: B
59. Trotter triad not included is ?
A. Conductive deafness
B. Temporoparietal neuralgia
C. Palatal paralysis
D. Seizures
Answer: D
60. Following protein is not found in organ of corti ?
A. Myosin
B. Microtubule associated protein 2
C. Microtubule associated protein 4
D. Fodrin
Answer: C
61. Following is true about laryngomalacia except ?
A. Omega shaped epiglottis
B. Reassuarance of the patient is the treatment of choice
C. Condition is first noticed in the first few weeks of life
D. Expiratory stridor
Answer: D
62. Following are the laboratory tests for the diagnosis of vestibular dysfunction except ?
A. Electronystagmography
B. Optokinetic test
C. Galvanic test
D. Gelle’s test
Answer: D
63. In a patient with CSOM, labrynthine fistula most commonly involves ?
A. Superior SCC
B. Lateral SCC
C. Posterior SCC
D. Utricle
Answer: B
64. Horizontal acceleration with forward movement in the sagittal plane is detected by ?
A. Macula of Utricle
B. Macula of Saccule
C. Lateral semicircular canal
D. Posterior semicircular canal
Answer: A
65. Patient presents with mouth breathing, recurrent serous otitis media and adenoid facies. What is the best line of management ?
A. Adenoidectomy
B. Tonsillectomy
C. Antibiotics
D. Supportive therapy
Answer: A
66. Which of the following organisms is known to cause Atrophic rhinitis ?
A. Klebsiella ozaena
B. Klebsiella pneumonia
C. Streptococcus pneumonia
D. Streptococcus foetidis
Answer: A
67. Potato tumor due to ?
A. Hypotrophy of sebaceous glands of nose
B. Hypertrophy of sebaceous glands of nose
C. Hypotrophy of sweat glands of nose
D. Hpertrophy of sweat glands of nose
Answer: B
68. Rhinitis most common bacterial cause ?
A. Haemophilus influenza
B. Streptococcus haemolyticus
C. Pasturellamultocida
D. Cornybacterium diphtheria
Answer: A
69. Surgical markings for finding the facial nerve is are?
A. Tympano – mastoid suture
B. Tragal pointer
C. Posterior belly of digastric
D. All the above
Answer: A
70.Central part of cholesteatoma contains ?
A. Keratin debris
B. Keratinized squamous epithelium
C. Coulmnar epithelium
D. Fibroblasts
Answer: A
71. Which of the following is not a cause of oropharyngeal carcinoma?
A. Occupational exposue to hydrochloric acid
B. Smoking
C. Human Papilloma Virus infection
D. Occupational exposure to isopropyl oil
Answer: A
72. False regarding the foreign body of oropharynx is ?
A. Impacted foreign bodies most often lodge in the soft tissue at the base of tongue
B. Food particles are the most common oropharyngeal foreign bodies in children
C. Clinical hypopharyngeal foreign bodies are amenable to clinical examination
D. Endoscopy and MDCT are used in the diagnosis
Answer: B
73. Not a test for Eustachian tube patency ?
A. Tympanometry
B. Toynbee
C. Valsalva
D. Frenzel maneuver
Answer: A
74. Tympanoplasty deals with reconstruction of
A. Tympanic membrane
B. Ossicular chain
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
Answer: C
75. Most common organism cultured in CSOM is ?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Streptococcus pneumonia
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Answer: D
76. Fowl smelling nasal discharge is seen in all except?
A. Nasal Myiasis
B. Choanal atresia
C. Foreign body in nose
D. Rhinolith
Answer: B
77. Rhinoscleroma occurs due to ?
A. Autoimmune cause
B. Inflammatory cause
C. Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis infection
D. Mycotic infection
Answer: C
78. Cauliflower ear is due to ?
A. Hematoma
B. Carcinoma
C. Fungal infection
D. Herpes
Answer: A
79. Fowl smelling ear discharge with presence of pale granulation tissue in ear in an adolescent boy is suggestive of ?
A. Cholesteatoma
B. Exostosis
C. Otomycosis
D. Malignant otitis externa
Answer: A
80. Complication of trauma to danger area of face ?
A. Cavernous sinus infection
B. Meningitis
C. Visual loss
D. Loss of memory
Answer: A
81. Presence of delta sign on contrast enhanced CT SCAN suggests presence of ?
A. Lateral Sinus thrombophlebitis
B. Cholesteatoma
C. Cerebellar abscess
D. Mastoiditis
Answer: A
82. Ostmann fat pad is related to ?
A. Ear lobule
B. Buccal mucosa
C. Eustachian tube
D. Tip of nose
Answer: C
83. Which of the following structures is not at immediate risk of erosion by cholesteatoma ?
A. Long process of incus
B. Fallopian canal containing facial nerve
C. Horizontal/ lateral semicircular canal
D. Base plate of stapes
Answer: D
84. When the patient fails to understand normal speech, but can understand shouted or amplified speech the hearing
loss, is termed ?
A. Mild hearing loss
B. Moderate hearing loss
C. Severe hearing loss
D. Profound hearing loss
Answer: C
85. Most common site for carcinoma pharynx in females suffering from plummer vinson syndrome is
A. Post cricoid region
B. Posterior wall
C. Lateral wall
D. Pyriformis fossa
Answer: A
86. Pyriform fossa is situated in ?
A. Oropharynx
B. Hypopharynx
C. Nasopharynx
D. None of the above
Answer: B
87. Incisura terminalis is between ?
A. Tragus and crux of helix
B. Ear lobule and antihelix
C. Antihelix and external auditory meatus
D. Tragus and ear lobule
Answer: A
88. Graft for myringoplasty
A. Temporalis fascia
B. Iliacus fascia
C. Coles fascia
D. I hotibial band
Answer: A
89. Which of the following is not a derivative of the middle ear cleft ?
A. Semicircular canal
B. Mastoid air cell
C. Tympanic cavity
D. Eustachian tube
Answer: A
90.Exostosis due to repetitive exposure to cold water is common in which part of the temporal bone?
A. Squamous part
B. Tympanic part
C. Ptreous part
D. Mastoid part
Answer: B
91. Ohgren’s line passes from ?
A. Medial canthus to angle of mandible
B. Lateral canthus to angle of mandible
C. Medial canthus to mastoid process
D. Lateral canthus to mastoid process
Answer: A
92. Passavant ridge ?
A. Superior constrictor and palatopharyngeus
B. Inferior constrictor and palatopharyngeus
C. Superior constrictor and palatoglossus
D. Inferior constrictor and palatoglossus
Answer: A
93. Rhinolith can cause
A. Nasal obstruction
B. Epistaxis
C. Epiphora
D. All of the above
Answer: D
94. All of the following are true about malignant otitis externa except:
A. ESR is used for follow up after treatment
B. Granulation tissues are seen on superior wall of the external
auditory canal
C. Severe hearing loss is the chief presenting complaint
D. Pseudomonas is the most common cause
Answer: C
95. All are true about Rhinoscleroma, except ?
A. Mikulicz cells
B. Caused by fungus
C. More common in Northern area
D. Woody nose
Answer: B
96. Associated with objective tinnitus?
A. Meiners disease
B. Acoustic neuroma
C. Ear wax
D. Glomus tumor
Answer: D
97. Which drug is to be given in a truck driver for rhinitis ?
A. Cetrezine
B. Hydroxyzine
C. Promethazine
D. Buclizine
Answer: A
98. Schwartze sign seen in?
A. Glomus Jugulare
B. Otosclerosis
C. Meniere’s diseases
D. Acoustic neuroma
Answer: B
99. Galle’s test is used for ?
A. Otosclerosis
B. Juvenile angiofibroma
C. Nasal polyp
D. None
Answer: A
100. Macula is stimulated by ?
A. Gravity
B. Head position change
C. Linear acceleration
D. All of the above
Answer: D
101. Paranasal sinuses present at birth ?
A. Frontal and maxillary
B. Ethmoid and maxillary
C. Frontal and ethmoid
D. Sphenoid and ethmoid
Answer: B
102. Most common bone affected by otosclerosis
A. External auditory canal
B. Bony labyrinth
C. Mastoid process
D. None
Answer: B
103. Best view for nasal bone ?
A. Lateral
B. Towne’s
C. Cald-well
D. Submentovertical
Answer: A
104. Lomard’s test is used to diagnosis ?
A. Conductive hearing loss
B. Sensorineural hearing loss
C. Mixed hearing loss
D. Non-organic hearing loss
Answer: D
105. True about serous otitis media are all except ?
A. Also called glue ear
B. Affect school going children
C. Type C tympanogram
D. Fluid in middle ear
Answer: C
106. Cause of myringosclerosis ?
A. Genetic
B. Grommet insertion
C. Otosclerosis
D. None
Answer: B
107. Delta-sign is seen in ?
A. Petrositis
B. Acute mastoiditis
C. Sigmoid sinus thrombosis
D. Glomus tumor
Answer: C
108. Trismus is seen in commonly ?
A. Ludwig angina
B. Quinsy
C. Retropharyngeal abscess
D. Parapharyngeal abscess
Answer: B
109. SNHL is seen in all except?
A. Nail patella syndrome
B. Distal RTA
C. Batter syndrome
D. Alport syndrome
E. None
Answer: E
110. Red line in pure tone audiometry is for
A. Bone conduction
B. Air conduction
C. Right ear
D. Left ear
Answer: C
111. Transverse fracture of maxilla is ?
A. Le Fort-1
B. Le Fort-2
C. Le Fort-3
D. Cranifacial disruction
Answer: A
112. Which of the following laryngeal cartilage is hyaline?
A. Epiglottis
B. Comiculate
C. Cricoid
D. Cuneiform
Answer: C
113. All of the following cranial nerves are involved in Acoustic neuroma, except ?
A. Vagus
B. Glossopharyngeal
C. Oculomotor
D. Facial
Answer: C
114. Wave I in brain-stem response audiometry arises from?
A. Cochlear nerve
B. Superior olivary complex
C. Lateral lemniscus
D. Inferior colliculus
Answer: A
115. Site of glomus jugulare?
A. Epitympanum
B. Hypotympanum
C. Mesotympanum
D. Internal ear
Answer: B
116. Frey’s syndrome is caused by ?
A. Post traumatic nerve fibres of facial nerve with parasympathetic of auriculotemporal nerve
B. Greater auricular with auriculotemporal nerve
C. Facial nerve with greater auricular nerve
D. None
Answer: A
117. Killions incision is used for?
A. Septoplasty
B. SMR
C. Proof puncture
D. Modified radical mastoidectomy
Answer: A
118. Turban epiglottis is seen in ?
A. TB
B. Leprosy
C. Laryngeal papilloma
D. Epiglottitis
Answer: A
119.Most common part of larynx involved in TB ?
A. Anterior
B. Posterior
C. Middle
D. Anywhere
Answer: B
120. Most common cause of ASOM is?
A. Meningococci
B. Pneumococci
C. H influenzae
D. Moraxella
Answer: B
121. Defective function of which of the following causes hyperacusis ?
A. VIII nerve
B. 7th nerve
C. Stapedius muscles
D. Any of the above
Answer: D
122. Paranasal polyp CT view?
A. Corona!
B. Axial
C. Sagital
D. 3D
Answer: A
123. Vallecula sign is seen in ?
A. TB laryngitis
B. Vocal nodule
C. Inverted papilloma
D. Acute epiglottitis
Answer: D
124. Most common cause of otomycosis ?
A. Histoplasma
B. Rhinosporidium
C. Aspergillus
D. Actinomyces
Answer: C
125. Facial nerve palsy can be caused by ?
A. Cholesteatoma
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Mastoidectomy
D. All of the above
Answer: D
126. Predisposing factor for Nasal myiasis ?
A. Allergic rhinitis
B. Vasomotor rhinitis
C. Atrophic rhinitis
D. Rhinitis medicomentosa
Answer: C
127.Glomus tumor invading the vertical part of carotid canal. It is ?
A. Type B
B. Type CI
C. Type C2
D. Type C3
Answer: C
128. Unilateral sensorineural hearing loss may occur in?
A. Coronavirus
B. Mumps
C. Pertussis
D. Rotavirus
Answer: B
129. Fracture of which of the following bone causes leakage of cerebrospinal fluid through ear ?
A. Mastoid process
B. Petrous temporal
C. Ethmoid plate
D. Cribriform plate
Answer: B
130. Which of the following is a pneumatic bone ?
A. Parietal bone
B. Occipital bone
C. Mastoid process
D. None
Answer: C
131. Mulberry nasal mucosa is seen in ?
A. Lupus vulgaris
B. Vasomotor rhinitis
C. Atrophic rhinitis
D. None
Answer: B
132. All are seen in Samters triad except?
A. Asthma
B. Nasal polyp
C. Bacterial infection
D. Aspirin sensitivity
Answer: C
133. Objective test in adenoids
A. Posterior rhinoscopy
B. Anterior rhinoscopy
C. Manual palpation
D. All of the above
Answer: A
134. Most common sinus to be involved in acute sinusitis?
A. Ethmoid
B. Maxillary
C. Sphenoid
D. Frontal
Answer: B
135. Queckensted test is done for ?
A. Glomus tumor
B. CSF rhinorrhea
C. Otosclerosis
D. Acoustic neuroma
Answer: B
136. Bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy is seen in all except ?
A. Thyroid carcinoma
B. Lymphadenopathy
C. Thyroid surgery
D. Aortic aneurysm
Answer: D
137. Most common cause of singer’s nodule is ?
A. Infection
B. Allergy
C. Vocal abuse
D. None
Answer: C
138. Mucoperichondrial flap in septoplasty is made on?
A. Alar cartilage
B. Septal cartilage
C. Maxillary spine
D. Sphenoid spine
Answer: B
139. All are major symptoms of sinusitis except ?
A. Nasal bluckage
B. Facial congertion
C. Nasal congestion
D. Halitosis
Answer: D
140. Laryngitis sicca is associated with ?
A. Rhinosporidium
B. M. leprae
C. Klebsiella azaenae
D. Klebsiella rhinoscleromatosis
Answer: C
141. Ossicles of middle ear are responsible for which of the following ?
A. Amplification of sound intensity
B. Reduction of sound intensity
C. Protecting the inner ear
D. Reduction of impedance to sound transmission
Answer: D
142. Which structure prevents spread of infection form middle ear to brain ?
A. Tegmen tympani
B. Cribriform plate
C. Fundus tympani
D. Petrous apex
Answer: A
143. In otosclerosis, which is most affected?
A. Oval window
B. Round window
C. Foot plate of stapes
D. Utricle
Answer: A
144. True regarding laryngeal TB is?
A. Commonly involves anterior 2/3 rd of vocal cord
B. Mouse-nibbled vocal cord
C. More common in males
D. None of the above
Answer: B
145. Most common cause of acute tonsilitis ?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. H. Influenza
C. 13- hemolytic streptococci
D. Staphylococcus aureus
Answer: C
146. Treatment of choice for nasopharyngeal carcinoma is ?
A. Surgery
B. Radiotherapy
C. Surgery & radiotherapy
D. Chemotherapy
Answer: B
147. Cone of light focuses on which quadrant of tympanic membrane?
A. Anteroinferior
B. Posteroinferior
C. Anterosuperior
D. Posterosuperior
Answer: A
148. Hearing loss of 65dB, what is the grade of deafness?
A. Mild
B. Moderate
C. Severe
D. Moderately severe
Answer: D
149. Vestibular function is assessed by ?
A. Fistula test
B. Hallpike manaeuver
C. Caloric test
D. All of the above
Answer: D
150. Blue ear drum is seen in ?
A. Serous otitis media
B. CSOM
C. Perforation
D. None
Answer: A
151. Peritonsillar abscess is caused most commonly by ?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Beta hemolytic streptococcus
D. H. influenzae
Answer: C
152. Strawberry oppearance is seen in ?
A. Lupus vulgarsis
B. Rhinoscleroma
C. Rhinosporidiosis
D. Angiofibroma
Answer: C
153. True about central nystagmus ?
A. Changing direction
B. Not suppressed by optic fixation
C. Horizontal or vertical
D. All of the above
Answer: D
154. Potato tumor is
A. Rhinosporidiosis
B. Hypertrophied sebaceous gland
C. Nosopharyngeal angiofibroma
D. Tubercular infection
Answer: B
155. Early tonsillectomy is not done in?
A. Thyroid storm
B. Suspected malignancy
C. Peritonsillar abscess
D. Rheumatic fever
Answer: A
156. Most common cause of retropharyngeal abscess in adults?
A. TB
B. Tooth extraction
C. Tonsillitis
D. Lymphadenitis
Answer: A
157. Otosclerosis affects which bone?
A. Stapes
B. Incus
C. Malleus
D. None
Answer: A
158. Endolymphatic sac decompression is done in?
A. Menieres disease
B. Otosclerosis
C. Otitis media
D. Vestibular schwannoma
Answer: A
159. In type-4 thyroplasty, vocal cord is ?
A. Medially displaced
B. Laterally displaced
C. Lengthened
D. Shortened
Answer: C
160. Fenestration operation is which type of tympanoplasty?
A. Type-2
B. Type-3
C. Type-4
D. Type-5
Answer: D
161. Bullous myringitis is caused by?
A. Pseudomonas
B. Mycoplasma
C. Pneumococcus
D. Candida
Answer: B
162. All are absolute indications of tonsillectomy except
A. Suspicious malignancy
B. Peritonsillar abscess
C. Chronic tonsillits
D. Tonsils causing obstructive sleep apnea
Answer: C
163. Retraction of tympanic membrane touching promontory. What is sade’s grade?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C
164. Posterosuperior retraction pocket if allowed to progress will lead to?
A. SNHL
B. Secondary cholesteatoma
C. Tympanosclerosi
D. Primary cholesteatoma
Answer: D
165. Treatment of choice for atticoantral type of CSOM?
A. Antiboiotics
B. Tympanoplasty
C. Modified radical mastoidectomy
D. None
Answer: C
166. Retraction of tympanic membrane touching the promontory. It is called ?
A. Mild retraction
B. Severe retraction
C. Atelectasis
D. Adhesive otitis
Answer: C
167. All are true about Rinne’s test except ?
A. Positive in normal ear
B. Positive in sensorineural hearing loss
C. Minimum 15-20 dB air bone gap is required in conductive
deafness
D. Bone conduction is better in sensorineural hearing loss
Answer: D
168. Stimulation of horizontal semicircular canal causes nystagmus in which directions ?
A. Vertical
B. Horizontal
C. Rotary
D. Any of the three
Answer: B
169. Bilateral past-pointing is due to defect in ?
A. Brainstem
B. Cerebellum
C. Vestibular system
D. Basal ganglia
Answer: C
170. Major contribution in the formation of nasal septum is by all except ?
A. Septal cartilage
B. Vomer
C. Ethmoid
D. Nasal bone
Answer: D
171. All are true about conductive deafness except ?
A. Rinne’s test is negative
B. Absolute bone conduction is normal
C. Weber is lateralized to poorer ear
D. There is decay in threshold tone
Answer: D
172. Ethmoidal polyp is ?
A. Due to infection
B. Single
C. Recurrent
D. Occurs in children
Answer: C
173. Most common cause of oroantral fistula ?
A. TB
B. Penetrating injury
C. Tooth extraction
D. latrogenic
Answer: C
174. Killian dehiscence is in ?
A. Superior constrictor
B. Inferior constrictor
C. Middle constrictor
D. None
Answer: B
175. Saddle nose is ?
A. Depressed nose
B. Crooked nose
C. Deviated nose
D. C-shaped
Answer: A
176. Tonsillar fossa is bounded anteriorly by ?
A. Pharyngobasilar fascia
B. Palatopharyngeal fold
C. Buccopharyngeal fascia
D. Palatoglossal fold
Answer: D
177. Passavants ridge is formed by ?
A. Palatoglossus
B. Superior constrictor
C. Salpingopharyngeus
D. Palatopharyngeus
Answer: D
178. Hot potato voice is characteristic of ?
A. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
B. Glottic carcinoma
C. Subglottic carcinoma
D. Supraglottic carcinoma
Answer: D
179. All are early complications of tracheostomy except?
A. Hemorrhage
B. Pneumothorax
C. Injury to esophagus
D. Tracheal stenosis
Answer: D
180. Nasopharynx is lined by which epithelium ?
A. Stratified squamous nonkerationized
B. Stratified squamous keratinized
C. Ciliated columnar
D. Cuboidal
Answer: C
181. Vidian neurectomy is done for ?
A. Allergic rhinitis
B. Atrophic rhinitis
C. Vasomotor rhinitis
D. Chronic hypertrophic rhinitis
Answer: C
182. Lymphatic drainage of orpharynx is mainly through?
A. Superficial cervical lymph nodes
B. Submandibular nodes
C. Jugulodigastric node
D. Jugulo-omohyoid nodes
Answer: C
183. All are true about otitic barotrauma except ?
A. Conductive deafness
B. Retracted tympanic membrane
C. Catheterization can be used
D. Occurs during sudden ascent in aircraft
Answer: D
184. Tear drop sign is seen in ?
A. Fracture zygomatic arch
B. Fracture maxilla
C. Fracture mandible
D. Blow out fracture
Answer: D
185.Inverted papilloma of nose arise from ?
A. Nasal septum
B. Roof of the nose
C. Tip of the nose
D. Lateral wall of the nose
Answer: D
.
186. True about external nose ?
A. Upper 2/3 is bony
B. Lower 1/3 is cartilaginous
C. Single lateral cartilage
D. Two nasal bones
Answer: D
187. Indication of BAHA (Bone-anclored hearing aid)
A. Bilateral hearing loss
B. Sensorineural hearing loss
C. Congenital canal atresia
D. All of the above
Answer: C
188. Muller’s manoeuver is used ?
A. To findout opening of mouth
B. To remove laryngeal foreign body
C. To find degree of obstruction in sleep disordered breathing
D. To remove foreign body from ear
Answer: C
189. Rosen’s incision is used for ?
A. Septoplasty
B. SMR
C. Stapedectomy
D. Tonsillectomy
Answer: C
190. Submandibular nodes are classified as ?
A. Level IA neck nodes
B. Level IB neck nodes
C. Level II neck nodes
D. Level III neck nodes
Answer: B
191. Hyponasal voice is seen in all except ?
A. Adenoids
B. Nasal polyp
C. Cleft palate
D. Habitual
Answer: C
192. Schatzki’s Ring is present at ?
A. Upper end of trachea
B. Lower end of trachea
C. Upper end of esophagus
D. Lower end of esophagus
Answer: D
193. “Rising sun” appearance is seen in
A. ASOM
B. CSOM
C. Glomus tumor
D. Acoustic neuroma
Answer: C
194. Cart-wheel appearance of tympanic membrane in ASOM is due to ?
A. Perforation of tymparic membrane
B. Edema of tympanic membrane
C. Congested blood vessels along malleus
D. Granulation tissue on tympanic membrane
Answer: C
195. In noice induced hearing loss, audiogram shows a typical notch at
A. 1000 Hz
B. 2000 Hz
C. 3000 Hz
D. 4000 Hz
Answer: D
196. In sensorineural hearing loss, weber’s test is lateralized to
A. Normal ear
B. Defective ear
C. Not lateralized
D. May alternate
Answer: A
197. Which of the following is responsible for localization of sound ?
A. Cochlear nerve
B. Cochlea
C. Superior olivary nucleus
D. Cochlear nuclei
Answer: C
198. Endolymph resembles ?
A. CSF
B. ICF
C. ECF
D. Plasma
Answer: B
199. All are intracranial complications of otitis media except?
A. Lateral sinus thrombophlebitis
B. Facial nerve palsy
C. Brain abscess
D. Hydrocephalus
Answer: B
200. Most commonly used tuning fork in ear examination?
A. 128 Hz
B. 256 Hz
C. 512 Hz
D. 1024 Hz
Answer: C
201.Modified radical neck dissection includes which level of cervical lymph nodes?
A. I-Ill
B. I-IV
C. I-V
D. I-Vil
Answer: C
202. All are seen in treacher collin syndrome except
A. Conductive deafness
B. Cleft palate
C. Mandibular hypoplasia
D. Choanal atresia
Answer: D
203. True about penderd’s syndrome ?
A. Blindness
B. Conductive deafness
C. Sensorineural deafness
D. All of the above
Answer: C
204. Endoscopic sinus surgery prerequisite?
A. MRI of paranasal sinus
B. CT of PNS
C. Mucocilliary clearing testing
D. Acoustic tests
Answer: B
205. X-ray findings in chronic otitis media ?
A. Honeycombing of mastoid
B. Sclerosis with cavity in mastoid
C. Clear-cut distinct bony partition between cells
D. None of the above
Answer: B
206. What is not true about use of intranasal steroids in nasal polyposis?
A. Reduce recurrence
B. Reduce obstruction
C. Effective in eosinophilically predominant polyp only
D. May cause epistaxis
Answer: C
207. Referred ear pain may travel through all except?
A. Trigeminal nerve
B. Glossopharyngeal nerve
C. Abducens nerve
D. Vagus nerve
Answer: C
208. Acute retropharyngeal abscess, not true ?
A. Due to lymphadenitis
B. Common in adults
C. Swelling on one side of midline
D. Incision & drainage
Answer: B
209. Proof puncture is done through ?
A. Superior meatus
B. Middle meatus
C. Inferior meatus
D. Sphenoethmoidal recess
Answer: C
210. Inspiratory stridor is found in what kind of lesions:
A. Supraglottic
B. Subglottic
C. Tracheal
D. Bronchus
Answer: A
211. The most common site of the branchial cyst is:
A. Posterior border of sternocleidomastoid
B. Anterior border of sternocleidomastoid
C. Digastric muscle
D. Omohyoid muscle
Answer: B
212. Lower limit of retropharyngeal space is at ?
A. C 7
B. Bifurcation of trachea
C. 4th esophageal constriction
D. None
Answer: B
213. Retroauricular incision is also known as?
A. Rosen’s incision
B. Lempert’s -I incision
C. Lempert’s-II incision
D. Wilde’s incision
Answer: D
214. Electrode of cochlear implant is placed at ?
A. Horizontal semicircular canal
B. Scala media
C. Scala tympani
D. Scala vestibuli
Answer: C
215. Threshold of hearing in a young normal adult is ?
A. 0 dB
B. 10 dB
C. 20 dB
D. 30 dB
Answer: A
216. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma seen in which occupation?
A. Asbestos industry
B. Cement industry
C. Wood workers
D. Chimney workers
Answer: C
217. Investigation of choice for nasopharyngeal angiofibroma?
A. X-ray
B. MRI
C. Plane-CT
D. CT- contrast
Answer: D
218. True about tubercular otitis media are all except?
A. Spreads through eustachian tube
B. Causes painless ear discharge
C. May cause multiple perforations
D. Usually affects both ears
E. None
Answer: D
219. Feature of Granulomatosis with polyangiitis:
A. Nasal polyp
B. Perforated Nasal septum
C. Persistant sinus
D. Crusting of nasal mucosa
E. Collapse of nasal bridge
Answer: B:C:D
220. Tensor tympani is attached at ?
A. Malleus
B. Incus
C. Stapes
D. Tympanic membrane
Answer: A
221. Vesicles on external ear are seen in
A. Otitis externa
B. Malignant otitis externa
C. Herpes zoster
D. Clear cell carcinoma
Answer: C
222. First line treatment for mild retraction pocket in the ear is
A. Observation
B. Antibiotics
C. Tympanostomy tube
D. Surgical excision
Answer: B
223. Cristae are seen in?
A. Utricle
B. Saccule
C. Semicircular canal
D. Otolith membrane
Answer: C
224. Function of saccule is?
A. Linear acceleration
B. Angular acceleration
C. Senses position of head
D. Rotational movement
Answer: A:C
225. Earliest age for doing BERA is?
A. In utero – before birth
B. At birth
C. 3 months
D. 6 months
Answer: B
226. Most common malignancy of middle ear is
A. Glomus tumor
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Adenocarcinoma
D. Sarcoma
Answer: B
227. Most common benign tumor of ear canal is
A. Osteomas
B. Sebaceous adenoma
C. Papilloma
D. Ceruminoma
Answer: A
228. Diplacusis is
A. Hearing sound with diminished intensity
B. Hearing sounds of two different tones
C. Hearing extremely loud sound
D. Perceiving light on production of sound
Answer: B
229. Which semicircular canal is most commonly involved in BPPV?
A. Horizontal
B. Posterior
C. Superior
D. All of the above
Answer: B
230. Most common ossicle affected due to trauma
A. Malleus
B. Incus
C. Stapes
D. All affected similarly
Answer: B
231. Singapore ear is
A. Hypertrophy of sweat glands
B. Hypertrophy of sebaceous glands
C. Otitis externa
D. Excoriation of external ear skin
Answer: C
232. A diabetic patient presents with foul smelling ear discharge, fever and severe pain in the ear. On examination there is thick yellow coloured discharge from the ear and granulation tissue in the canal. Which of the following is the appropriate management for this patient?
A. Surgical debridement
B. Antibiotic therapy
C. Cryotherapy
D. Laser removal of granulation tissue
Answer: B
233. Topodiagnosis of facial nerve has all the tests except
A. Schirmer test
B. Bing test
C. Taste test
D. Salivary flow test
Answer: B
234. Which of the following is the function of tensor tympani muscle?
A. Dampen very loud sound
B. Tenses tympanic membrane
C. Tenses pharyngotympanic tube
D. Prevent noise trauma to the inner ear
Answer: B
235. Pink reflex through intact tympanic membrane in active otosclerosis is known as
A. Schwabach’s sign
B. Schwartz sign
C. Lyre’s sign
D. Chvostek’s sign
Answer: B
236. SADE classification classifies
A. Retraction of tympanic membrane
B. Extension of Glomus tumor
C. Mortality after heart disease during pregnancy
D. Extent of CSF rhinorrhea
Answer: A
237. A 10 year old child presents with non foul purulent smelling discharge, which is painless. Patient reports that he is able to hear better in the presence of discharge than when the ear is dry. The most probable diagnosis is
A. CSOM
B. Serous otitis media
C. Cholesteatoma
D. Mastoiditis
Answer: A
238. Treatment of central safe perforation of tympanic membrane includes all except
A. Aural toilet
B. Ear drops
C. Avulsion of aural polyp
D. Myringoplasty
Answer: C
239. Agger nasi is
A. Mucosal flap covering the nasolacrimal duct
B. Opening of the sinuses
C. Depression in front of middle turbinate
D. Elevation anterior to middle turbinate
Answer: D
240. Quadrungular septum is seen in which of the following?
A. Larynx
B. Nose
C. Cranium
D. Palate
Answer: B
241. Nasal vestibule is
A. Lateral part of nasal cavity
B. Antero – inferior part of nasal cavity
C. Supero – medial part of nose
D. Posterior aperture of nose
Answer: B
242. Which of the following terms is used to describe the most prominent point of nasal tip?
A. Pronasale
B. Alare
C. Nasion
D. Columella apex
Answer: A
243. Epistaxis after ligating external carotid artery is due to which vessel?
A. Anterior ethmoidal artery
B. Superior labial artery
C. Sphenopalatine artery
D. Greater palatine artery
Answer: A
244. Killian’s polyp is a/an
A. Antrochoanal polyp
B. Ethmoidal polyp
C. Frontal polyp
D. Maxillary polyp
Answer: A
245. Which of the following is the predisposing factor for ethmoidal carcinoma
A. Smoking
B. Alcohol
C. Chronic infection
D. All of the above
Answer: A
246. Most common sinus predisposed to malignancy which of the following?
A. Ethmoid
B. Maxillary
C. Frontal
D. Sphenoid
Answer: B
247. Most common benign tumor of paranasal sinuses?
A. Papilloma
B. Osteoma
C. Warts
D. Fibroma
Answer: B
248. Treatment of nasal bone fracture includes all except
A. Hematoma drainage
B. Topical vasoconstrictor
C. Closed reduction
D. Immediate rhinoplasty
Answer: D
249. All of the following are true about parapharyngeal abscess except?
A. Mastoid process divides the space into anterior and posterior
B. Also known as pharyngomaxillary space infection
C. Tonsil is pushed medially
D. Occurs after tooth extraction
Answer: A
250. Lining epithelium of vocal cord is
A. Stratified squamous epithelium
B. Non stratified squamous epithelium
C. Ciliated columnar epithelium
D. Non ciliated columnar epithelium
Answer: A
251. Which of the following sites of Ca larynx has the best prognosis?
A. Glottic
B. Supraglottis
C. Subgottis
D. All have poor prognosis
Answer: A
252. Laser used in tracheal neoplasm is
A. Argon
B. KTP – 532
C. CO2
D. Nd – YAG
Answer: C
253. Most common site of distant metastasis from Ca larynx
A. Lymph nodes
B. Lung
C. Brain
D. Bone
Answer: B
254. A patient presents with Ca larynx involving left false cord, left arytenoid and left aryepiglottic fold with bilateral mobile true cords. The treatment of choice in this patient is which of the following?
A. Vertical hemilarygectomy
B. Horizontal partial hemilaryngectomy
C. Total laryngectomy
D. Radiotherapy followed by chemotherapy
Answer: B
255. In recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy which muscle keeps vocal cord in median position?
A. Posterior cricoarytenoid
B. Cricothyroid
C. Vocalis
D. All of the above
Answer: B
256.Food particles mostly get obstructed in which part of esophagus
A. Cricopharyngeal sphincter
B. Crossing of arch of aorta
C. Cardiac end
D. None of the above
Answer: A
257. True regarding traction diverticuli of esophagus is all except
A. Does not empty completely
B. Triangular appearance
C. Contains all layers
D. Maintains elastic recoil
Answer: A
258. Sluder’s neuralgia is also called as
A. Anterior ethmoidal syndrome
B. Posterior ethmoidal syndrome
C. Trotter syndrome
D. Lermoyez syndrome
Answer: A
259. Most common tumor of oropharynx is
A. Squamous cell carcinoma
B. Adenocarcinoma
C. Melanoma
D. Salivary gland tumors
Answer: A
260. Investigation of choice for diagnosing submandibular gland duct stones is
A. Ultrasound
B. X-ray of floor of mouth
C. Sialography
D. Sialoendoscopy
Answer: A
261. Deafness in a case of Paget’s disease is due to
A. Retraction pockets
B. Otitis
C. Eight nerve involvement
D. Endolymphatic hydrops
Answer: C
262. Membrane incised during hemilaryngectomy is
A. Thyrohyoid
B. Cricothyroid
C. Aryepiglottic
D. Infralaryngeal
Answer: B
263. Callaural fistula is an abnormality of ?
A. 1″ branchial arch
B. Pt branchial cleft
C. 2nd branchial arch
D. 2nd branchial cleft
Answer: B
264. Acute suppurative otits media in children is most commonly caused by ?
A. St. pneumoniae
B. S. epidermidis
C. S. aureus
D. Pseudomonas
Answer: A
265. Young’s operation is done for
A. Allergic rhinitis
B. Atropic rhinitis
C. Vasomotor rhinitis
D. Idiopathic rhinitis
Answer: B
266. All of the following are are a part of medial wall of the middle ear except?
A. Promontory
B. Fenestra vestibule
C. Pyramid
D. Subiculum
Answer: C
267. What is the intensity in decibel of normal conversation in humans?
A. 30dB
B. 60dB
C. 90dB
D. 150dB
Answer: B
268. What is the role of Sodium Fluoride in otosclerosis?
A. It restores the electrolyte equilibrium
B. It hastens recovery of the Overstimulated Cochlea
C. It quickens the maturity of the active focus and reduces
osteoclastic resorption
D. It repolarizes the cochlear cells
Answer: C
269. Chemical labyrinthectomy by transtympanic route is done in Meniere’s disease using which drug?
A. Amikacin
B. Gentamicin
C. Amoxycillin
D. Cyclosporine
Answer: B
270. Which of the following tests is not used to differentiate between cochlear and retrocochlear hearing loss?
A. SISI TEST
B. Evoked response audiometry
C. Threshold tone decay test
D. Recruitment
Answer: C
271. Where is the auditory cortex located inside the brain?
A. Superior temporal gyrus
B. Inferior temporal gyrus
C. Area 3,1,2
D. Cingulate gyrus
Answer: A
272. When does the rudimentary cochlea develop in the fetus?
A. First week
B. 4th to 8th week
C. 8th to 12th week
D. 16 to 20th week
Answer: B
273. The main muscle affected in congenital muscular torticollis is?
A. Sternocleidomastoid
B. Trapezius
C. Scalenus Anticus
D. Omohyoid
Answer: A
274. Miracle fruit is used to change the taste from?
A. Sour to Bitter
B. Sour to Sweet
C. Bitter to sweet
D. Salty to sweet
Answer: B
275. All of the following are complications of maxillary sinus lavage and insufflation except?
A. Air embolism
B. Orbital injury
C. Epistaxis
D. Facial nerve injury
Answer: D
276. All of the following are removed in vertical hemilaryngectomy except?
A. Half Glottis
B. Half Supraglottis
C. Half tongue
D. Half Subglottis
Answer: C
277.Submucosal resection is the treatment of choice of?
A. DNS in adults
B. DNS in children
C. Sluder’s Neuralgia
D. Nasal polyp
Answer: A
278. Which perforation of the tympanic membrane is most commonly seen with tubotympanic CSOM?
A. Central
B. Anterosuperior
C. Posterosuperior
D. Posteroinferior
Answer: A
279. Caldwell Luc Surgery has its approach to the maxillary antrum through ?
A. Gingivolabial sulcus
B. Inferior orbital rim
C. Nasal septum
D. Cribriform plate
Answer: A
280. In Caldwell Luc operation, the approach is through the?
A. Sublabial Approach leading to opening of mandibular antrum
B. Through the sphenopalatine recess
C. Opening of maxillary antrum through gingivolabial approach
D. Superior meatus
Answer: C
281. All of the following are indications for tracheostomy except ?
A. Coma after head injury
B. Maxillofacial injury
C. Bilateral abductor palsy
D. Superior laryngeal nerve palsy
Answer: D
282. Most common cause of otitis externa is?
A. Fungal infection
B. Bacterial infection
C. Seborrheic disease
D. Herpes Zoster
Answer: B
283. Which is the narrowest portion of the esophagus?
A. At the cricopharyngeal sphincter
B. At the crossing of the left main bronchus
C. At the level of the aortic arch
D. At the diagphragmatic aperture
Answer: A
284. Which of the following is not a premalignant condition oral cancer?
A. Leukoplakia
B. Erythroplakia
C. Oral submucous fibrosis
D. Systemic Sclerosis
Answer: D
285. Which of the following is a cause of objective tinnitus?
A. Impacted Wax
B. Carotid artery aneurysm
C. Meniere’s disease
D. Ototoxic drugs
Answer: B
286. Which of the following cancers do not present with cervical lymph node involvement?
A. Glottic Cancer
B. Subglottic Cancer
C. Papillary thyroid cancer
D. Oral cancer
Answer: A
287. Pulsatile tinnitus is a feature of ?
A. Glomus tumour
B. acoustic neuroma
C. malignant otits externa
D. meneire’s disease
Answer: A
288. Histelberger’s sign is seen in?
A. Acoustic neurom
B. Glomus Tumour
C. Nasal angiofibroma
D. Acute suppurative otitis media
Answer: A
.
289. All of the following are true about
Spasmoidic Dysphonia except ?
A. It may be of adductor or abductor type
B. Abductor type is characterized by Whispering quality of voice
C. Adductor type is characterized by Breathlessness
D. It is focal Laryngeal dystonia
Answer: C
290. Ethmoidal infundibulum lies between ?
A. Bulla ethmoidalis and uncinate process of ethmoid
B. Middle and inferior turbinate
C. Hiatus semilunaris and Inferior meatus
D. Wing of sphenoid and maxillary antrum
Answer: A
291. What lies between the middle and inferior turbinate?
A. Middle meatus
B. Superior meatus
C. Hiatus semmilunaris
D. Inferior meatus
Answer: A
292. All of the following are extrinsic laryngeal membranes except?
A. Quadrangular membrane
B. Hyoepiglottic ligament
C. Cricotracheal membrane
D. Thyrohyoid membrane
Answer: A
293.The narrowest part of the nasal cavity is ?
A. Internal nasal valve
B. Antrochoanal region
C. 1st nasal turbinate
D. Region of inferior concha
Answer: A
294. Anterior tonsillar pillar is formed by?
A. Palatopharyngeal fold
B. Palatoglossal fold
C. Pterygopalatine arch
D. Valleculae
Answer: B
295. One of the following is true regarding Zenker diverticulum ?
A. It is a pulsion diverticulum
B. It projects anteriorly
C. Commonly seen in young males
D. It is between superior and middle constrictor
Answer: A
296.Narrowest part of the nasal cavity is ?
A. Vestibule
B. Choanae
C. Inferior turbinate
D. Middle turbinate
Answer: C
297. Saddle nose deformity is seen in?
A. Primary Syphilis
B. Secondary syphilis
C. Tertiary syphilis
D. Lupus Vulgaris
Answer: C
298. All of the following are true about vasomotor rhinitis except ?
A. It is allergic
B. It is due to parasympathetic overactivity
C. Resistant cases may need cryotherapy
D. It may lead to hypertrophic rhinitis
Answer: A
299. All of the following are true about vasomotor rhinitis except?
A. It is a nonallergic condition
B. it is due to parasympathetic overactivity
C. It may cause paroxysmal episodes of sneezing
D. It is an infective condition
Answer: D
300. In evaluation of a case of immotile nasal cilia, which of the following investigations should prove useful?
A. Rhinogram
B. Xray nasal and paranasal sinuses
C. Sweat sodium levels
D. Nitric oxide test
Answer: D
301. All of the following are features of ethmoidal polyp except ?
A. Common in adults
B. Commonly Singular
C. Commonly bilateral
D. Is usually allergic
Answer: B
302. All of the following are features of enlarged adenoids except?
A. Otitis media
B. Nasal obstruction
C. Failure to thrive of child
D. Esophagitis
Answer: D
303. All of the following are treatments of multiple bilateral ethmoidal polyps except?
A. Functional endoscopic sinus surgery
B. Intranasal ethmoidectomy
C. Extranasal ethmoidectomy
D. Caldwll Luc Surgery
Answer: D
304. What is the treatment of choice for ethmoidal polyps?
A. Functional Endoscopic sinus surgery with polypectomy
B. Intranasal ethmoidectomy
C. Extranasl ethmoidectomy
D. Transantral ethmoidectomy
Answer: A
305. What is the type of epithelium of the adenoid?
A. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
B. Non keratinized squamous epithelium
C. Cuboidal epithelium
D. Columnar epithelium with goblet cells
Answer: A
306.The artery which leads to bleeding in Woodruff’s area is?
A. Anterior ethmoidal artery
B. Sphenopalatine artery
C. Greater palatine artery
D. Superior labial artery
Answer: B
307. Intrathecal fluorescein with endoscopic visualization is useful in diagnosis of?
A. Deviated nasal septum
B. Multiple ethmoidal polyps
C. Rhinitis Medicamentosa
D. CSF Rhinorrhoea
Answer: D
308. All of the following are features of a nasal foreign body except?
A. Foul smelling discharge
B. Epistaxis
C. Nasal obstruction
D. Septal perforation
309. ETHMOIDAL BULLAE are seen in?
A. Posterior ethmoidal air cells
B. Middle ethmoid air cells
C. Superior ethmoidal air cells
D. Inferior ethmoidal air cells
Answer: B
310. All of the following are features of a nasal foreign body except?
A. Vestibulitis
B. Epistaxis
C. Nasal obstruction
D. Deviated septum
Answer: D
311. All of the following are causes of perforation of cartilaginous part of nasal septum except?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Leprosy
C. Lupus
D. Syphilis
Answer: D
312. All of the following are true about nasal myiasis except?
A. Common in vasomotor rhinitis
B. Intense nasal irritation present
C. Meningitis may occur in severe disease
D. Chloroform water is one of the modes of treatment
Answer: A
313. Water’s view is used to obtain diagnostic information of:
A. Maxillary sinus
B. Ethmoidal sinuses
C. Frontal sinus
D. Sphenoid sinus
Answer: A
314. Tracheostomy indication is:
A. Vocal cord replacement
B. Pharynx replacement
C. Tracheomalacia
D. Foreign body obstructing airway
Answer: D
315. Caldwell’s view is used for:
A. Maxillary sinus
B. Frontal sinus
C. Ethmoidal sinus
D. All of the above
Answer: B
316. Where will be the placement location for Auditory Brainstem Implant?
A. Scala tympani
B. Recess of 4th ventricle
C. IAC
D. back of ear
Answer: B
317. All of the following are features of Tubotympanic CSOM except ?
A. Profuse discharge
B. Hearing loss
C. Extreme pain
D. Sometimes paradoxical improvement in hearing is seen
Answer: C
318. Features of Usher’s Syndrome include all except ?
A. Night Blindness
B. Visual Impairment
C. Multiple Neurofibromas
D. Hearing deficit
Answer: C
319. 65 year old person with hearing loss with normal speech discrimination is suffering from?
A. Noise induced hearing loss
B. Presbycusis
C. Ototoxic drug
D. NOHL
Answer: B
320. Stimulation of the external auditory canal leads to cough due to which nerve
A. Auricular branch Vagus
B. Greater auricular nerve
C. Auriculotemporal nerve
D. Facial Nerve
Answer: A
321.widening of the cartilaginous part of the extra auditory canal called.
A. Otoplasty
B. Myringoplasty
C. Tympanoplasty
D. Meatoplasty
Answer: D
322. Tubercular Otitis media is characterized by all except
A. Painful otorrhea
B. Multiple perforations
C. Pale granulations
D. Foul-smelling ear discharge
Answer: A
323. Partial and full closure done in
A. Atrophic rhinitis
B. Allergic rhinitis
C. Vasomotor rhinitis
D. Occupational rhinitis
Answer: A
324. Occipitomental view of PNS X-ray called as
A. Caldwell view
B. Water view
C. Town view
D. Pine view
Answer: B
