1. Most common species of pseudomonas causing intravascular catheter related infections is ?
A. P. cepacia
B. P. aeruginosa
C. P. maltiphila
D. P. mallei
Answer: B
2. Draughtsman colonies are seen with:
A. Anthrax
B. Pnuemococci
C. Pertussis
D. Yersenia
Answer: B
3. A 20 year old man presented with abdominal pain, vomiting and bloody diarrhea, his stool sample grew Escherichia coli in pure culture. Which of the following serotype of E.coli is the causative agent of haemorrhagic colitis?
A. O 157:H7
B. O 159:H7
C. O 107:H7
an
D. O 55:H7
Answer: A
4. Granulomatosis infantiseptica is caused by:
A. Pseudomonas
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Group D streptococci
D. Listeria
Answer: D
5. Stalactite growth in ghee broth is due to the following organism?
A. Y.pestis
B. T.palladium
C. H.influenzae
D. C.diphtheriae
Answer: A
6. Milk ring test is done to detect which organism present in milk?
A. Bordetella
B. Brucellosis
C. Bartonella
D. Salmonella
Answer: B
7. TRUE about Corynebacterium diphtheriae are all, EXCEPT:
A. Has metachromatic granules
B. Does not invade deeper tissues
C. Toxigenicity demonstrated by elek’s test
D. Toxin mediated by chromosomal gene
Answer: D
8. Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) causes all, EXCEPT:
A. Coryza in kids
B. ARDS
C. Bronchitis
D. Common cold
Answer: B
9. Who is the father of modern Microbiology?
A. Metchnikoff
B. Lord Lister
C. Louis Pasteur
D. Robert Koch
Answer: C
10. Microorganism which causes pyogenic osteomyelitis is ?
A. Streptococcus
B. Staph aureus
C. Corynebacterium
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Answer: B
11. True statement about Pneumocystic Jiroveci is:
A. Often associated with CMV infection
B. Usually diagnosed by sputum examination
C. Infection occurs only in immunocompromised patients
D. Always associated with Pneumatocele
Answer: B
12. Mycobacterium tuberculosis was discoverd by ?
A. Louis pasteur
B. Robert koch
C. Lister
D. Jener
Answer: B
13. Flagella not true
A. Locomotion
B. Attachment
C. Protein in nature
D. Antigenic
Answer: B
14. Percentage of glutaraldehyde used ?
A. 1%
B. 2%
C. 3%
D. 4%
Answer: B
15. In nutrient agar concentration of agar is
A. 1%
B. 1.5 %
C. 3%
D. 4%
Answer: B
16. Natural method of horizontal gene transfer among bacteria includes
A. Electroporation
B. Transduction
C. Transformation
D. b and c
Answer: D
17. Which cells cause rosette formation with sheep RBCs
A. T cells
B. NK cells
C. Monocytes
D. All
Answer: A
18. Gene components of HLA class I includes
A. A, B, C
B. DR
C. DQ
D. DP
Answer: A
19. Complement attaches to immunoglobulin at ?
A. Aminoterminal
B. Fab region
C. Variable region
D. Fc fragment
Answer: D
20. Antigen idiotype is related to
A. Fc fragment
B. Hinge region
C. C-terminal
D. N-terminal
Answer: D
21. Idiotypic class of antibody is determined by
A. Fc region
B. Hinge region
C. Carboxy end
D. Amino end
Answer: D
22. Antibody diversity is due to
A. Gene rearrangement
B. Gene translocation
C. Antigenic variation
D. a and c
Answer: D
23. Immunoglobulin changes in variable region ?
A. ldiotype
B. Isotype
C. A llotype
D. Epitope
Answer: A
24. Pentavalent immunoglobin is
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. IgE
Answer: C
25. Maximum half life
A. IgG
B. Ig A
C. IgM
D. Ig E
Answer: A
26. Which of the following immunoglobulin is responsible for opsonisation
A. IgA
B. Ig G
C. Ig M
D. none
Answer: C
27. Activation of classical complement pathway ?
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. IgD
Answer: C
28. The Fc piece of which immunoglobulin fixes C1
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. c and b
Answer: D
29. Antibody elevated in parasitic infection ?
A. IgA
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgM
Answer: B
30. Papain acts an gamma globulin to form ?
A. 2 Fc fragments
B. 2 Fab fragments
C. 1 Fab fragments
D. None
Answer: B
31. Which of the following T cell independent Antigen acts through
A. T-cell
B. B-cell
C. Macrophages
D. CD8+ T cells
Answer: B
Ans. is ‘b’ i.e., B-cells
32.Which part of bacteria is most antigenic ?
A. Protein coat
B. Lipopolysaccharide
C. Nucleic acid
D. Lipids
Answer: A
33. Superantigen causes
A. Polyclonal activation of T-cells
B. Stimulation of B cells
C. Enhancement of phagocytosis
D. Activation of complement
Answer: A
34. Prozone phenomenon is seen with?
A. Same concentration of antibody and antigen
B. In antigen excess to antibody
C. Antibody excess to antigen
D. Hyperimmune reaction
Answer: C
35. Paul bunnel reaction is a type of
A. Agglutination
B. CF
C. Precipitation
D. Flocculation test
Answer: A
36. All are ture about innate immunity except ?
A. Non-specific
B. First line of defence
C. Not affected by genetic affected
D. Includes complement
Answer: C
37. When transfer factor is given as treatment results in
A. Natural active immunity
B. Artificial active immunity
C. Artificial passive immunity
D. Adoptive immunity
Answer: D
38. Which is found in DiGeorge’s syndrome
A. Tetany
B. Eczema
C. Total absence of T cells
D. Absent B and T cells
Answer: A
39. Complement formed in liver
A. C2, C4
B. C3, C6, C9
C. C5, C8
D. C1
Answer: B
40. Center of complement pathway
A. C3
B. CI
C. C5
D. C2
Answer: A
41. Hereditary angioneurotic edema is due to ?
A. Deficiency of C1 inhibitor
B. Deficiency of NADPH oxidase
C. Deficiency of MPO
D. Deficiency of properdin
Answer: A
42. Opsonization takes place through
A. C3a
B. C3b
C. C5a
D. C5b
Answer: B
43. Rosette formation with sheep RBC’s indicate functioning of
A. T-cells
B. B-cells
C. Neutrophils
D. Monocytes
Answer: A
44. Digeorge syndrome is characterized by all except ?
A. Congenital thymic hypoplasia
B. Abnormal development of third and fourth pouches
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Hypocalcemic tetany
Answer: C
45. Staph aureus causes
A. Erythrasma
B. Chancroid
C. Acne vulgaris
D. Bullous impetigo
Answer: D
46. Glomerulonephritis in streptococcal infection is diagnosed by
A. Blood culture
B. Throat culture
C. ASO Titre
D. PCR
Answer: C
47. Which group of streptococcus grow at > 60°C
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: D
48. Pneumococcal vaccine is prepared from ?
A. Cell surface antigen
B. Capsular polysaccharide
C. From exotoxin
D. From M protein
Answer: B
49. Meningococci differ from gonococci in that they?
A. Are intra-cellular
B. Possess a capsule
C. Cause fermentation of glucose
D. Are oxidase positive
Answer: B
50. Virulence of gonococci is due to
A. Pili
B. Endotoxin
C. Exotoxin
D. None
Answer: A
51. Meningitis with rash is seen in
A. Neisseria meningitidis
B. H. influenzae
C. Strepto. agalactae
D. Pneumococcus
Answer: A
52. The vaccine against N-meningitidis contains ?
A. Whole bacteria
B. Capsular polysaccharide
C. Somatic ‘0’ antigen
D. None of these
Answer: B
53. Daisy head colonies are seen with
A. Staph. Aureus
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C. Staph. Pyogenes
D. Anthrax
Answer: B
54. The “String of pearl” colonies on Nutrient agar is produced by
A. Klebsiella
B. Proteus
C. Bacillus
D. Salmonella
Answer: C
55. Saccharolytic species of clostridia ?
A. C. tetani
B. Cl. cochlearum
C. Cl. septicum
D. None
Answer: C
56. The following statements are true regarding botulism except
A. Infant botulism is caused by ingestion of preformed toxin
B. Clostridium botulinum A, B, C and F cause human disease
C. The gene for botulinum toxin is encoded by a bacteriophage
D. Clostridium baratti may cause botulism
Answer: A
57. Botulism is most commonly due to
A. Egg
B. Milk
C. Meat
D. Pulses
Answer: C
58. Pseudomembranous colitis, all are true except
A. Toxin A is responsible for clinical manifestation
B. Toxin B is responsible for clinical manifestation
C. Blood in stools is a common feature
D. Summit lesions is early histopathological finding
Answer: C
59. Shigella are be divided into subgroup on the basis of ability to ferment
A. Lactose
B. Maltose
C. Fructose
D. Mannitol
Answer: D
60. Which of the following stimulate adenylate cyclase with G-protein coupled action ?
A. Shiga toxin
B. Cholera toxin
C. Diphtheria toxin
D. Pseduomonas toxin
Answer: B
61. Cholera toxin is due to
A. Chromosome
B. Plasmid
C. Phage
D. Transposons
Answer: C
62. Psedomonas is which type of bacteria ?
A. Anaerobic
B. Microaerophilic
C. Microaerophilic
D. Obligate anaerobe
Answer: C
63. What is NOT true about yersiniosis
A. Gram-negative bacillus
B. Caused by Y pestis
C. By yersinia enterocolitica
D. By yersinia pseudotuberculosis
Answer: B
64. True about H influenza
A. Grown on sheep blood agar & CO2
B. it is not capsulated
C. Invasive strain is most common
D. Gram positive
Answer: C
65. Thumb print appearance in culture film smear is seen
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Brucella, species
C. Bordetella pertussis
D. Clostridium Welchii
Answer: C
66. Tuberculin test is positive if induration is ?
A. >2min
B. >5mm
C. >7mm
D. >10mrn
Answer: D
67. Pigment producing atypical mycobacteria
?
A. M. fortution and M. chelonae
B. M. xenopi and MAC
C. M. gordonae and M. szulgai
D. M. ulcerans
Answer: C
68. Fish tank granuloma is seen in
A. M fortuitum
B. M kansasi
C. M marinum
D. M leprosy
Answer: C
69. Tabes dorsalis is seen in
A. Primary syphilis
B. Secondary syphilis
C. Tertiary syphilis
D. Latent syphilis
Answer: C
70. True about VDRL test
A. Non – specific
B. Slide flocculation test
C. Best followed for drug therapy
D. All
Answer: D
71. TRUE about mycoplasma is
A. Causes lung infection
B. Penicillin is drug of choice
C. Thick cell wall
D. Thallium acetate inhibits the growth
Answer: A
72. Seven sheathed flagella is seen in
A. V cholera
B. H pylori
C. Ps aeroginosa
D. Spirochetes
Answer: B
73. Legionnaire disease is caused by?
A. Motile gram positive
B. Motile gram negative
C. Non-motile gram positive
D. Non-motile gram negative
Answer: B
74. Patient came from Nagaland and shows positive test with OXK antigen. Diagnosis is?
A. Trench fever
B. Scrub typhus
C. Endemic typhus
D. Epidemic typhus
Answer: B
75. All are true about B. Quintana except
A. Causes trench fever
B. Not detected by weil felix reaction
C. Recurrence is common
D. Tick is the vector
Answer: D
76. Boutonneuse fever is caused by
A. Rickettsia japonica
B. Rickettsia conorii
C. Rickettsia sibirica
D. Rickettsia australis
Answer: B
77. Which of the following has only 1 serotype
A. C psittaci
B. C pneumoniae
C. C trachomatis
D. None
Answer: B
78. Which of the following is called as PreiszNocard bacillus
A. C. diphtheriae
B. C. pseudotuberculosis
C. M. tuberculosis
D. Mycoplasma
Answer: B
79. All cause fournier gangrene except
A. Staphylococcus
B. Streptococcus
C. Clostridium
D. Bacteroides
Answer: C
80. Necrotizing fascitis is caused by
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Beta hemolytic streptococci
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Pneumococcus
Answer: B
81. Which of the following organisms does not enters through abrasions in the skin
A. E rhusiopathiae
B. E corrodens
C. C hominis
D. C violaceum
Answer: C
82. Darting motility which occur in V.cholerae, also found in
A. Shigella
B. Campylobacter jejuni
C. Pneumococcus
D. Bacillus anthrax
Answer: B
83. All are true about cutaneous anthrax except ?
A. Extremely painful
B. The whole area is congested and edematous
C. Central crustation with black eschar
D. Satellite nodule around inguinal region
Answer: A
84. True about vibrio cholerae is
A. Disease more common in woman
B. Classical vibrio protect against development of 0-139 Tor is milder than classical
C. El – Tor is milder than classical
D. All
Answer: C
85. Appearance of cowdry type
A inclusion bodies?
A. Granular
B. Circumscribed
C. In polio
D. None
Answer: A
86. Which is enveloped virus
A. Dengue virus
B. Norwalk virus
C. Hep A virus
D. Adenovirus
Answer: A
87. Smallest DNA virus is?
A. Herpes virus
B. Adenovirus
C. Parvovirus
D. Poxvirus
Answer: C
88. Which of the following is primary cell line ?
A. Chick embryo fibroblast
B. Hela cells
C. Vero cells
D. WI-38
Answer: A
89. Influenza virus culture is done on ?
A. Chorioallantoic membrane
B. Allantoic cavity
C. Yolk sac
D. All
Answer: B
90. Virus quantification is done by
A. Egg inoculation
B. Hemadsorption
C. Plaque assay
D. Electron microscopy
Answer: C
91. Von Magnus phenomenon
A. Is a normal replicative cycle
B. Virus yield has low hemagglutination
C. Virus has high infectivity
D. Virus yields has high hemagglutination titre but low infectivity
Answer: D
92. Lysis of bacterial colony in culture is seen by which virus
A. Pox
B. HSV
C. Bacteriophage
D. CMV
Answer: C
93. Phage typing can be done for
A. Salmonella
B. Streptococcus
C. Shigella
D. Pseudomonas
Answer: A
94. Small pox belongs to which class of poxviruses ?
A. Parapoxvirus
B. Capripoxvirus
C. Leporipox virus
D. Orthopoxvirus
Answer: D
95. Following virus is of pox virus
A. Variola
B. Coxsachie
C. ECHO
D. HSV
Answer: A
96. Brick-shaped virus
A. Chicken pox
B. Small pox
C. CMV
D. EBV
Answer: B
97. A patient with sore throat has a positive Paul Bunnell test. The causative organism is
A. EBV
B. Adenovirus
C. CMV
D. Herpesvirus
Answer: A
98. Coxsackie virus is
A. Harpes virus
B. Pox virus
C. Enterovirus
D. Myxovirus
Answer: C
99. Influenza virus has
A. 5 segments of SS RNA
B. 8 Segments of ds DNA
C. 8 segments of ssDNA
D. 8 segments of ssRNA
Answer: D
100. Hemorrhagic fever is caused by
A. West-Mile fever
B. Sandfly fever
C. Ebola virus
D. All of the above
Answer: C
101. Which of the following is not common in India ?
A. Japanese B encephalitis
B. Lassa fever
C. KFD
D. Dengue
Answer: B
102. Amplifier host is
A. Pig in JE
B. Dog in rabies
C. Man in JE
D. Cattle in JE
Answer: A
103. True about hepatitis A viurs ?
A. Causes cirrhosis
B. Helps HDV replication
C. Common cause of hepatitis in children
D. Causes chronic hepatitis
Answer: C
104. Serological testing of patient shows HBsAg, IgM anti-HBc and HBeAg postive. The patient hase
A. Chronic hepatitis B with low infectivity
B. Acute hepatitis B with high infectivity
C. Chronic hepatitis with high infectivity
D. Acute on chronic hepatitis
Answer: B
105. Nef gene in HIV is for use
A. Enhancing the expression of genes
B. Enhancing viral replication
C. Decreasing viral replication
D. Maturation
Answer: C
106. The chance that a health worker gets HIV from an accidental needle prick is
A. 1%
B. 10%
C. 95%
D. 100%
Answer: A
107. False about p24 is
A. Seen after 3 weeks of infection
B. Cant be seen in first week
C. Cant be detected after seroconversion
D. a and c
Answer: D
108. Which of the following is a protista
A. Algae
B. Fungi
C. Protozoa
D. Bacteria
Answer: C
109. True about trematodes
A. Two host required
B. Segmented
C. Anus present
D. Body cavity present
Answer: A
110. Operculated eggs are seen in
A. Nematodes
B. Cestodes
C. Trematodes
D. Protozoa
Answer: C
111. Amoebic liver abscess can be diagnosed by demonstrating
A. Cysts in the sterile pus
B. Trophozoites in the pus
C. Cysts in the intestine
D. Trophozoites in the feces
Answer: B
112. How many pairs of flagella does Giardia lamblia possess
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Answer: D
113. A case of giardiasis presents with
A. Nausea and vomiting
B. Abdominal pain
C. Steatorrhea and flatulence
D. All of the above
Answer: D
114. Malarial parasite was discovered by
A. Ronald ross
B. Paul muller
C. Laveran
D. Pampania
Answer: C
115. In malaria, sexual cycle is
A. Sporozoite to gametocytes
B. Gametocytes to Sporozoite
C. Occurs in human
D. Responsible for relapse
Answer: B
116. In malaria, pre-erythrocytic schizogony occurs in
A. Lung
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Kidney
Answer: B
117. Which form of the malarial parasite is present in saliva of an infective mosquito
A. Ring form
B. Schizont
C. Gametocyte
D. Sporozoite
Answer: D
.
118. Which type of malaria is associated with renal failure
A. Falciparum
B. Vivax
C. Malariae
D. Ovale
Answer: A
119. Malaria causing nephrotic syndrome
A. P. vivax
B. P. falciparum
C. P. malariae
D. P. ovale
Answer: C
120. JSB stain is used for which parasite ?
A. Malaria
B. Filaria
C. Kala azar
D. Sleeping sickness
Answer: A
121. Cylindrical helminths are
A. Tapeworms
B. Flukes
C. Roundworms
D. Cestodes
Answer: C
122. Consumption of uncooked pork is likely to cause which of the following helminthic disease
A. Taenia saginata
B. Taenia solium
C. Trichuris trichiura
D. None of these
Answer: B
123. Katayama fever is caused by
A. F. hepatica
B. C. sinensis
C. S. haematobium
D. A. lumbricoides
Answer: C
124. Child having perianal pruritus with following eggs is due to
A. E. vermicularis
B. Ascaris
C. Ancylostoma duodenale
D. S stercoralis
Answer: A
125. Wucheria bancrofti, true is
A. Unsheathed
B. Tail tip free from nuclei
C. Non-periodic
D. All
Answer: B
126. Calabar swelling is produced by?
A. Onchocerca volvulus
B. Loa loa
C. Burgia malayi
D. Wuchereria bancrofti
Answer: B
127. River blindness is caused by
A. Onchocerca
B. Loa loa
C. Ascaris
D. B. malayi
Answer: A
128. Cutaneous larva migrans is due to ?
A. Ankylostoma braziliensis
B. W.bancrofti
C. B. Malayi
D. D. medinensis
Answer: A
129. Schistosomiasis is transmitted by ?
A. Cyclops
B. Fish
C. Snaile
D. Cattle
Answer: C
130. Cercariae are infective form of
A. S. hematobium
B. P. westermanii
C. F. hepatica
D. T. solium
Answer: A
131. Which of the following is toxic to parasite
A. Peroxidase
B. Interferon
C. IL-2
D. IL-6
Answer: A
132. Hanging drop method is used for
A. T. trichomonas
B. Plasmodium
C. Toxoplasma
D. Cryptosporidium
Answer: A
133. Which of the following is true about malaria ?
A. Gametocyte harbourers are carrier
B. All stage in erythrocytic schizogony seen in falciparum infection
in peripheral blood
C. Schizonts of vivax do not completely fill the RBC
D. All the correct
Answer: A
134. Which of the following is only yeast ?
A. Candida
B. Mucor
C. Rhizopus
D. Cryptococcus
Answer: D
135. The fungus with septate hyphae and dichotomous branching is
A. Aspergillus
B. Penicillium
C. Mucor
D. Rhizopus
Answer: A
136. Acute angled septate hyphae are seen in ?
A. Aspergillus
B. Mucor
C. Penicillium
D. Candida
Answer: A
137. Aseptate hyphae is not seen in
A. Rhizopus
B. Mucor
C. Aspergillus
D. None
Answer: C
138. Which of the following is false regarding dimorphic fungi
A. Occurs in two growth forms
B. Can cause systemic infection
C. Cryptococcus is an example
D. Coccidioides is an example
Answer: C
139. Trichophyton species which is zoophilic ?
A. T. tonsurans
B. T. violaceum
C. T. schoenleinii
D. T. mentagrophytes
Answer: D
140. Tinea cruris is caused by
A. Epidermophyton
B. Trichophyton
C. Microsporum
D. a and b
Answer: D
141. Hair perforation test is positive in infection with ?
A. Trichophyton
B. Microsporum
C. Epidermophyton
D. All of the above
Answer: A
142. Color of granules in mycetoma caused by Actinomadura pelletierrii
A. Black
B. Yellow
C. Red
D. Brown
Answer: C
143. Aspergillus causes all except ?
A. Bronchopulmonary allergy
B. Otomycosis
C. Dermatophytosis
D. Allergic sinusitis
Answer: C
BA. Sporothrix
B. Cladosporium
C. Phialophora
D. None
Answer: D
145. A plant prick can produce sporotrichosis. All are true statements about sporotrichosis except
A. Is a chronic mycotic disease that typically involves skin, subcutaneous tissue and regional lymphatics
B. Most cases are acquired via cutaneous inoculation
C. Enlarged lymph nodes extending centripetally as a beaded
chain are a characteristic finding
D. It is an occupational disease of butchers, doctors
Answer: D
146. Which is false about penicillium marefi
A. Black colonies
B. Dimorphic fungi
C. Amphotericin B used for treatment
D. Causes fulminant infections in immunocompromised patients
Answer: A
147. Neurotropic fungus is/are
A. Cryptococcus neoformans
B. Histoplasmosis
C. Trichophyton
D. a and b
Answer: D
148. Pneumocystis carinii is diagnosed by
A. Sputum examination for trophozoites and cyst under
microscope
B. Culture
C. Positive serology
D. Growth on artificial media
Answer: A
149. Bacteria showing antigenic variation ?
A. Yersinia
B. Bordetella
C. Brucella
D. Borrelia
Answer: D
150. Bioterroism group A agent
A. Q fever
B. Typhus fever
C. Brucella
D. Antrax
Answer: D
151. Which of the following belongs to category-B of bioterrorism
A. Cholera
B. Anthrox
C. Plague
D. Botulism
Answer: A
152. Most common mode of transmission of nosocomial infection is
A. Hand contact
B. Droplet infection
C. Blood and blood products
D. Contaminated water
Answer: A
153. Most common organism involved in nosocomial infection
A. Staph aureus
B. E. coli
C. Legionella
D. Strep pneumonia
Answer: A
154. Most common organism causing ventilator associated pneumonia
A. Legionella
B. Pneumococcus
C. Pseudomonas
D. Coagulase negative staphylococcus
Answer: C
155. In donovanosis
A.Pseudolymphadenopathy
B. Penicillin is used for treatment
C. Painful ulcer
D. Suppurative lymphadenopathy
Answer: A
156. An adolescent male developed vomiting and diarrhea 1 hour after having food from a restaurant. The most likely pathogen is?
A. Clostridium perfringens
B. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Salmonella
Answer: C
157. 18 years old girl presents with watery diarrhea. Most likely causative agent
A. Rota virus
B. V. cholerae
C. Salmonella
D. Shigella
Answer: B
158. The predominant colonic bacteria are
A. Largely aerobic
B. Largely anaerobic
C. Bacteroides
D. Staphylococci
Answer: B
159. Memory cells are:
A. Basophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Lymphocytes
D. Neutrophils
Answer: C
160. Complement Fixation test is:
A. VIDAL
B. Coombs test
C. Wassermann reaction
D. VDRL
Answer: C
161. Confirmatory test for Syphilis is: September 2010 March 2013
A. VDRL
B. Rapid plasma reagin test
C. FT-ABS
D. All of the above
Answer: C
162. Nosocomial infection is most commonly caused by:
A. Gram negative bacilli
B. Gram positive bacilli
C. Gram negative cocci
D. Mycoplasma
Answer: A
163. Enteric fever is caused by:
A. Salmonella typhi
B. Salmonella paratyphi A
C. Salmonella paratyphi B
D. All of the above
Answer: D
164. Ghon’s focus reflects:
A. Miliary tuberculosis
B. Primary complex
C. Tuberculous lymphadenitis
D. Post primary tuberculosis
Answer: B
165. Diphtheria toxin’s mechanism of action is:
A. Inhibiting glucose synthesis
B. Inhibiting protein synthesis
C. Promoting acetylcholine release
D. Altering cyclic GMP levels
Answer: B
166. Most serious complication of measles is:
A. Croup
B. Meningo-encephalitis
C. Otitis media
D. Pneumonia
Answer: B
167. Promastigote form of Leishmania is found in which part of sandfly:
A. Lymph node
B. GIT
C. Spleen
D. Bone marrow
Answer: B
168. For phage typing, how many phages of staphylococcus aureus are used ?
A. 12
B. 15
C. 20
D. 23
Answer: D
169. Most common biotype of S. aureus causing human infection ?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: A
170. Most common pox virus infection in human is ?
A. Smallpox
B. Monkeypox
C. Cowpox
D. Mulluscum contagiosum
Answer: D
171. HHV-6 causes ?
A. Erythema infectiosum
B. Kaposi sarcoma
C. Roseola infantum
D. Herpangina
Answer: C
172. Phenylalanine deaminase test is positive in ?
A. Salmonella
B. Proteus
C. Vibrio cholerae
D. Helicobacter
Answer: B
173. Gram positive, catalase negative cocci ?
A. Staph aureus
B. Staph epidermidis
C. Staph saprophyticus
D. Pneumococcus
Answer: D
174. R-factor in bacteria is transfered by ?
A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Conjugation
D. Vertical transmission
Answer: C
175. Feces are disinfected best by ?
A. 1% formaldehyde
B. 5% cresol
C. 5% phenol
D. Isopropyl alcohol
Answer: B
176. Stool specimen is transported in ?
A. Cary blair medium
B. Blood agar
C. Selenite F broth
D. Compy BAP medium
Answer: A
177. HEPA filter is used to disinfect ?
A. Water
B. Air
C. Culture
D. Blood
Answer: B
178. Virus most sensitive to inactivation by biocides ?
A. Adenovirus
B. Herpes virus
C. Parvovirus
D. Poliovirus
Answer: B
179. Complement components are ?
A. Lipoproteins
B. Glycoproteins
C. Polysaccharides
D. Lipid
Answer: B
180. True about Campylobacter jejuni ?
A. Obligate aerobe
B. Oxidase negative
C. Grows at 42°C
D. Non-motile
Answer: C
181. Best indicator for sterilization by autoclaving ?
A. Bacillus subtilis
B. Geobacillus
C. Bacillus pumilis
D. Clostridium
Answer: B
182. Satellitism is seen in cultures of?
A. Hemophilus
B. Streptococcus
C. Klebsiella
D. Proteus
Answer: A
183. Varicella zoster virus belongs to which family of DNA viruses ?
A. Poxviridae
B. Herpesviridae
C. Adenoviridae
D. Papovaviridae
Answer: B
184. C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency causes ?
A. Neisseria infection
B. Hereditary angioneurotic edema
C. Hemolytic disease
D. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
Answer: B
185. Runt disease is ?
A. Graft rejection
B. Graft vs host disease
C. Host vs graft disease
D. Type III hypersensitivity
Answer: B
186. True about hydatid cyst are all, except ?
A. Most common site is liver
B. Calcification is common in lung
C. May involve kidney
D. Liver cysts are more common in right lobe
Answer: B
187. Virulence factor for clostridium tetani ?
A. Endotoxin
B. Tetanolysin
C. Tetanospasmin
D. Bacteremia
Answer: C
188. Which myxovirus does not have hemagglutinin and neuraminidase but have membrane fusion protein
A. Measles
B. Parainfluenza
C. RSV
D. Influenza
Answer: C
189. Which prion disease affect human ?
A. Scrapie
B. Madcow disease
C. Kuru
D. Bovine spongiform encephalopathy
Answer: C
190. Peritrichous flagellae are seen in ?
A. Vibrio cholerae
B. Proteus
C. Campylobacter
D. Legionella
Answer: B
191. Molluscum contagiosum virus belongs to ?
A. Poxviruses
B. Herpesviruses
C. Picornaviruses
D. Adenovirus
Answer: A
192. True about vibrio vulnificus ?
A. Causes diarrhea commonly
B. Halophilic
C. Drug of choice is penicillin
D. Produces shiga toxin
Answer: B
193. True about diphtheria toxin ?
A. Heat stable
B. Acts through cGMP
C. Consists of three fragments
D. Special affinity for brain
Answer: A
194. How does chlamydia differ from other usual bacteria?
A. Lack cell wall
B. Cannot grow in cell free culture media
C. Contains inclusion body
D. None of the above
Answer: C
195. A patient is suffering from pneumonia. Laboratory study shows acid-fast filamentous bacterium. The causative organism is ?
A. M. tuberculosis
B. Actinomyces
C. Nocardia
D. Mycobacterium Avium intracellulare
196. Mycobacterium tuberculosis grows in LJ media in?
A. 1 0- 14 days
B. 2-3 weeks
C. 4-8 weeks
D. > 10 weeks
Answer: C
197. Which of the following is an example of heterophile antibody test ?
A. Widal test
B. Weil-Felix reaction
C. Rose-waler test
D. Blood grouping & cross matching
Answer: B
198. All cause viral hepatitis except
A. Measles
B. EBV
C. Rhinovirus
D. Reovirus
Answer: C
199. Shiga toxin acts by ?
A. Activating adenylyl cyclase to increase cAMP
B. Activating guanylyl cyclase to increase cGMP
C. Inhibiting protein synthesis
D. Inhibiting DNA replication
Answer: C
200. Enrichment media for cholera ?
A. VR medium
B. TCBS medium
C. Cary-Blair medium
D. Alkaline peptone water
Answer: D
201. True about vibrio parahemolyticus ?
A. Polar flagella
B. Non halophilic vibrio
C. Non-capsulated
D. Requires NaCI
Answer: D
202. Selective medium for shigella ?
A. Chocolate agar
B. BYCE medium
C. Hektoen agar
D. EMJH medium
Answer: C
203. Sterilization is defined as ?
A. Disinfection of skin
B. Complete destruction of all microorganisms
C. Destruction of pathogenic organisms
D. Decrease bacterial count from objects
Answer: B
204. True about endotoxin ?
A. Protein
B. Highly antigenic
C. No enzymatic activity
D. Produced by gram positive bacteria
Answer: C
205. A 17 years old female presents with sore throat, lymphadenopathy and positive heterophile antibodies test. Diagnosis is ?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Streptococcal pharyngitis
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Cytomegalic inclusion disease
Answer: C
206. Lethal effect of dry heat is due to ?
A. Denaturation of proteins
B. Oxidative damage
C. Toxicity due to metabolites
D. All of the above
Answer: D
207. PLET medium is used in ?
A. Plague
B. Anthrax
C. Typhoid
D. Cholera
Answer: B
208. Tunica reaction is positive in ?
A. R prowazekii
B. R typhi
C. R tsutsugamushi
D. R akari
Answer: B
209. Laproscope is sterilized by ?
A. 2% formalin
B. 2% glutaraldehyde
C. Autoclaving
D. Boiling
Answer: B
210. Suckling mice is used for isolation of ?
A. Coxsachie virus
B. Pox
C. Herpes
D. Adenovirus
Answer: A
211. Safety pin appearance is seen in ?
A. Vibrio vulnificus
B. Vibrio parahemolyticus
C. Pseudomonas aeuroginosa
D. H. influenzae
Answer: B
212. Which anticoagulant is used when blood is sent for blood culture ?
A. Sodium citrate
B. EDTA
C. Oxalate
D. SPS
Answer: D
213. Kanagawa’s phenomenon is seen in ?
A. Pseudomonea aeuroginosa
B. Vibrio parahemolyticus
C. Shigella sonie
D. Proteus mirabilis
Answer: B
214. Which flavivirus causes hepatitis in human ?
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis D
Answer: C
215. Syncytium formation is a property of ?
A. Herpes virus
B. Adenovirus
C. Measles virus
D. Rabies virus
Answer: C
216. Babesiosis is transmitted by ?
A. Tick
B. Mites
C. Flea
D. Mosquito
Answer: A
217. Pseudomonas exotoxin inhibits protein synthesis by inhibiting ?
A. RNA polymerase
B. EF-2
C. Transpeptidase
D. Reverse transcriptase
Answer: B
218. Triple iron sugar medium contains all, except ?
A. Lactose
B. Sucrose
C. Glucose
D. Maltose
Answer: D
219. Fastest method for diagnosis of TB
A. Gene expert
B. LJ medium
C. TB MGIT
D. BAC, IEC
Answer: A
220. New York agar is used for ?
A. Salmonella
B. Clostridia
C. Neisseria
D. Bacillus Anthracis
Answer: C
221. Acquire IgA deficiency may occur in ?
A. Severe Congenital toxoplasmosis
B. Severe Measles infection
C. Severe Brucellosis
D. Severe Leptospirosis
Answer: A
222. Which of the following is a sexual spore ?
A. Chlamydospore
B. Sporangiospore
C. Ascospore
D. Phialoconidia
Answer: C
223. True about Nipah virus are all except ?
A. Is a paramyxovirus
B. Causes hemorrhagic fever
C. Emerging infection
D. Present in India
Answer: B
224. Defective hepatitis virus is ?
A. HAV
B. HBV
C. HCV
D. HDV
Answer: D
225. The cystic form of all are seen in man except ?
A. E.histolytica
B. Giardia
C. Trichomonas
D. Toxoplasma
Answer: C
226. Maternal mortality is more in ?
A. HAV
B. HBV
C. HCV
D. HEV
Answer: D
227. Culture media used for 0157 : H7 Entero‐ hemorrhagic E coli ?
A. Sorbitol containing agar
B. Mannitol containing agar
C. Sucrose containing agar
D. Dextrose containing agar
Answer: A
228. Liquid medium for tuberculosis ?
A. LJ medium
B. Dorset medium
C. Loeffler’s medium
D. MGIT
Answer: D
229. Indicator used in MaConkey Agar ?
A. Methylene blue
B. Methyl red
C. Neutral red
D. Bromothymol blue
Answer: C
230. Subterminal spores are seen in ?
A. Cl perfringens
B. Cl tetani
C. Cl tertium
D. None
Answer: A
231. LGV (lymphogranuloma venerum) is caused by ?
A. Treponema pallidum
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Calymmatobacter granulomatosis
D. H Ducreyi
Answer: B
232. Exanthema subitum is caused by ?
A. HHV-6
B. HHV-8
C. Parvovirus
D. Coxsackievirus
Answer: A
233. Which is not parenterally transmitted
A. HAV
B. HBV
C. HCV
D. HDV
Answer: A
234. True about cryptococcus are all except
A. Primarily infects lung
B. Urease negative
C. India-ink is used
D. All are true
Answer: B
235. Which vaccine can cause adverse effects in persons with allergy to egg ?
A. Measles
B. Rubella
C. Rabies
D. Mumps
Answer: C
236. Salmonellae other than S typhi and S paratyphi cause ?
A. Typhoid fever
B. Enteric fever
C. Gastroenteritis
D. All of the above
Answer: C
237. Optimal percentage of NaCI for V cholerae ?
A. 1%
B. 2%
C. 3%
D. 4%
Answer: A
238. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is seen in ?
A. Pneumococci
B. N. meningitidis
C. Pseudomonas
D. Yersinia
Answer: B
239. Causative organism of SARS
A. HiN,
B. Corona virus
C. Rotavirus
D. RSV
Answer: B
240. Weil felix reaction is heterophile antibodies reaction due sharing of Rickettsial antigen with
A. Shigella
B. Proteus
C. Chlamydia
D. Mycoplasma
Answer: B
241. Neutrilization test is
A. Widal test
B. Weil-Felix test
C. Paul Bunnel test
D. Nagler reaction
Answer: D
242. Mode of transmission of Listeria
A. Ingestion
B. Inhalation
C. Skin inoculation
D. None
Answer: A
243. Frisch bacillus affects most commonly
A. Mouth
B. Nose
C. Eye
D. Ear
Answer: B
244. Scarlet fever is caused by
A. Streptococcus agalactie
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Streptococcus equisimilus
Answer: B
245. E antigen (HBeAg) of hepatitis B virus is a product of which gene
A. S
B. C
C. p
D. x
Answer: B
246. Which type of pulmonary TB is most likely to give sputum positive ?
A. Fibronodular
B. Pleural effusion
C. Cavitary
D. None
Answer: C
247. Most halophilic vibrio ?
A. V cholerae
B. V vulnificus
C. V alginolyticus
D. V parahemolyticus
Answer: C
248. Bile esculin agar is used for ?
A. Group A streptococcus
B. Group B streptococcus
C. Group C streptococcus
D. Enterococcus
Answer: D
249. Tachyzoites are seen in ?
A. Toxoplasma
B. Toxocara
C. Pulmonary eosinophilia
D. Ascaris
Answer: A
250. A patient presents with headache, high fever and meningismus. Within 3 days he becomes unconscious. Most probable causative agent ?
A. Naegleria fowleri
B. Acanthamoeba castellani
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. Trypanosoma cruzi
Answer: A
251. DNA polymerase of HBV is encoded by which of the following ?
A. S gene
B. C gene
C. P gene
D. X gene
Answer: C
252. Heat labile liquids are sterilized by ?
A. Hot air oven
B. Autoclaving
C. Membrane filter
D. Moist heat
Answer: C
253. Rideal-Walker coefficient is related with ?
A. Disinfecting power
B. Parasitic clearance
C. Dietary requirement
D. Statistical correlation
Answer: A
254. A patient presents with fever. Peripheral smears shows band across the erythrocytes. Diagnosis is ?
A. P Falciparum
B. P vivax
C. P ovate
D. P malariae
Answer: D
255. Rash is not caused by ?
A. Salmonella
B. Shigella
C. Meningococci
D. Staphylococcus
Answer: B
