1. Savlon contains
A. Cetrimide + Chlorhexidine
B. Cetrimide + Chlorhexidine + butyl alcohol
C. Cetrimide + butyl alcohol
D. Cetrimide + Cetavlon
Answer: A
2. True about ASHA are all except
A. One per 1000 rural population
B. Mobiliser of antenatal care
C. Female voluntary worker
D. Skilled birth attendant
Answer: D
3. To eradicate measles the percentage of population to be vaccinated is at least…………%
A. 70
B. 80
C. 85
D. 95
Answer: D
4. Which of the following trace element has vitamin E like action:
A. Selenium
B. Cheomycin
C. Copper
D. Zinc
Answer: A
5. True about NPCDCS is all, EXCEPT:
A. Separate centre for stroke, DM
B. Implementation in some 5 states over 10 district
C. CHC has facilities for diagnosis and treatment of CVD, Diabetes
D. Day care facilities are available at subcentre
Answer: C
6. Cluster testing technique is useful in which of the following conditions?
A. Sexually Transmitted Diseases
B. Poliomyelitis
C. Measles
D. Smallpox
Answer: A
7. Which of the following is false about intrauterine devices (IUDs)?
A. Multiload Cu-375 is a third generation intra-uterine device (IUD)
B. Copper devices are effective as post-coital contraceptives
C. LNG-20 (Mirena) has an effective life of 5 years
D. Pregnancy rates of Lippes Loop and T Cu-200 are similar
Answer: A
8. Which of the following statements about ‘Late Expanding Phase of Demographic Cycle’ is TRUE?
A. Birth Rate is lower than Death Rate
B. High Death Rate and High Birth Rate
C. Death Rate declines more than Birth Rate
D. Death Rate begins to decline while Birth Rate remains unchanged
Answer: C
9. The number of Anganwadi workers supervised by a Mukhyasevika is:
A. 10
B. 15
C. 25
D. 30
Answer: C
10. Minamata disease is caused by toxicity of:
A. Arsenic
B. Antimony
C. Lead
D. Mercury
Answer: D
11. International Red Cross was founded by:
A. Henry Dunant
B. John D Rockfeller
C. Marie Curie
D. None of the above
Answer: A
12. According to the congenital rubella syndrome eradication program, the first priority for rubella vaccination is offered to which of the following group?
A. All female children at one year
B. All non pregnant women
C. All non pregnant women of age 15 to 34
D. All adolescent non pregnant girls 15 to 24 years of age
Answer: C
13. Swajaldhara programme is associated with:
A. Provision of safe drinking water
B. Provision of food supplements for destitute women
C. Provision of relief for victim of sexual abuse
D. Provision of health care for sick tribals
Answer: A
14. Which of the following screening methods is used under RNTCP?
A. Active
B. Passive
C. Mass
D. All of the above
Answer: B
15. A temporary, provisional view held by the people on a point of view is:
A. Opinion
B. Belief
C. Practice
D. Attitude
Answer: A
16. Low glycemic index is classified as value less than:
A. 25
B. 45
C. 55
D. 65
Answer: C
17. As per RNTCP guidelines, Multi drug resistance (MDR) TB is defined as resistance to:
A. Rifampicin
B. Rifampicin and isoniazide
C. Rifampicin, isoniazide and ethambutol
D. None of the above
Answer: B
18. What is the commonest form of plague?
A. Bubonic plague
B. Pneumonic plague
C. Septicaemic plague
D. Hemorrhagic plague
Answer: A
19. Dose of oseltamivir in a child aged 9 months is:
A. 2mg/ kg twice daily for 5 days
B. 2.5 mg/ kg twice daily for 5 days
C. 3 mg/ kg twice daily for 5 days
D. 3.5 mg/ kg twice daily for 5 days
Answer: C
21. Dukoral is:
A. Oral cholera vaccine
B. Oral rotavirus vaccine
C. Oral typhoid vaccine
D. Ready to use therapeutic food
Answer: A
22. Skin fold thickness is measured in all of the following places, EXCEPT:
A. Mid triceps
B. Biceps
C. Supra pubic
D. Supra iliac
Answer: C
23. Quality of life is defined as?
A. Standard of living
B. Level of living
C. Subjective feeling of well being
D. All of the above
Answer: C
24.Web Causation of disease is most appropriate ?
A. Mostly applicable for common disease
B. Better for all the related factors associated with causation of disease
C. Epidemiological ratio
D. Helps to interrupt the risk of transmission
Answer: B
25. BEINGS Model of disease causation does not include
A. Spiritual factors
B. Social factors
C. Religious factors
D. Nutritional factors
Answer: C
26. Definition of disease control is?
A. Agent is eliminated from community
B. Agent persists in community without causing health problem
C. Agent persists in community and causing pulic health problems
D. Any of the above
Answer: B
27. Iodized salt in iodine deficiency control programme is?
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Teriary prevention
D. None
Answer: A
28. A patient prescribed crutches for residual paralysis in poliomyelitis is a type of
A. Primary prevention
B. Primordial prevention
C. Disability limitation
D. Rehabilitation
Answer: D
29. A person has lost his leg in an accident because of which he is not able to walk. This is
A. Disease
B. Disability
C. Impairment
D. Handicap
Answer: B
30. International disease surveillance is for ?
A. Hepatitis
B. Polio
C. TB
D. Leprosy
Answer: B
31. HIV prevalence can be assessed by
A. Sentinel surveillance
B. Active
C. Passive
D. Register
Answer: A
32. Principle for chinese medicine
A. Yang
B. Vin
C. Both
D. None
Answer: C
33. Father of public health
A. Cholera
B. Plague
C. Leptospirosis
D. Anthrox
Answer: A
34.The lawyer who designed the Public Health Act 1848 was ?
A. John snow
B. Edwin Chadwick
C. Joseph Lister
D. William Fan
Answer: B
35. One of the following is not true of International Classification of Disease
A. It is revised once in 10 years
B. It was devised by UNICEF
C. The 10th revision consists of 21 major chapters
D. It is accepted for National and International use
Answer: B
36. Most important component of level of living is
A. Health
B. Education
C. Occupation
D. Housing
Answer: A
37. Simplest measure of mortality ?
A. Crude death rate
B. Case fatality rate
C. Proportional mortality rate
D. Specific death rate
Answer: A
38. Limitation of case fatality rate
A. Not useful in acute infectious disease
B. Not related to virulence
C. Time period not specified
D. It is not related to survival rate
Answer: C
39. All are true about incidence, except
A. Numerator includes new cases
B. Denominator includes population at risk
C. Does not include unit of time
D. It is a rate
Answer: C
40. Which one of the following is not a special incidence rate
A. Attack rate
B. Secondary attack rate
C. Hospital admission rate
D. Standardized mortality rate
Answer: D
41. For calculation of incidence denominator is taken as?
A. Mid year population
B. Population at risk
C. Total number of cases
D. Total number of deaths
Answer: B
42. All of the following are characteristics of case control study except
A. Quick results are obtained
B. Measures incidence rate
C. Proceeds from effect to cause
D. Inexpensive study
Answer: B
43. Attributable risk means
A. Fatality of a disease
B. Disease risk ratio between exposed and non-exposed
C. Risk difference between exposed and non-exposed
D. Communicability of a disease
Answer: C
44. Advantage of case-control over a cohort study ?
A. Attributable risk can be calculated
B. Odd’s ratio can be calculated
C. For rare disease
D. b and c
Answer: D
45. Berkesonian bias is a type of ?
A. Selection bias
B. Interviever bias
C. Information bias
D. Recell bias
Answer: A
46. Problem of bias is maximum with
A. Cohort study
B. Case study
C. Case control study
D. Experimental study
Answer: C
47. Randomization is done to reduce ?
A. Recall bias
B. Selection bias
C. Berksonian bias
D. Reporting bias
Answer: B
48. Suspected cause preceding the observed effect is an example for
A. Temporal association
B. Consistency of association
C. Strength of association
D. Coherence of association
Answer: A
49.The difference between contamination and infection is that in infection-
A. Infectious agent is on body surface or on nonhuman objects
B. Infectious agent is in the body of human
C. Arthropods on the body surface
D. None
Answer: B
50. Following are examples of human “dead end” disease except
A. Bubonic plague
B. Japanies ecephalitis
C. Hydatid disease
D. Leishmaniasis
Answer: D
51. Secondary attack rate is a measure of
A. Communicability
B. Lethality
C. Strength of association
D. None
Answer: A
52. Transovarian transmission is seen in
A. Rickettsia diseases
B. Malaria
C. Filaria
D. None
Answer: A
53. Active and passive immunity should be given together in all except
A. Tetanus
B. Rabies
C. Measles
D. Hepatitis B
Answer: C
54. Post-exposure prophylaxis is indicated in ?
A. HBV
B. Rabies
C. Diphtheria
D. All
Answer: D
55. Congenital acquired immunity is NOT found in
A. Pertussis
B. Mumps
C. Rubella
D. Measles
Answer: A
56. Name of mumps vaccine is
A. Jeryl Lynn
B. Edmonshon zagreb
C. Schwatz
D. Moraten
Answer: A
57. All vaccines are given in disaster,except ?
A. Cholera
B. Influenza
C. Measles
D. Tetanus
Answer: A
58. 6th month immunization given is
A. Measles
B. DPT
C. BCG
D. All
Answer: A
59. Mass vaccination is ineffective in
A. Measles
B. Polio
C. Tetanus
D. None
Answer: D
60. The amount of bleaching powder necessary to disinfect choleric stools, is
A. 50 gm/lit
B. 75 gm/lit
C. 90 gm/lit
D. 100 gm/lit
Answer: A
61. Time between infection and maximum infectivity is known as?
A. Incubation period
B. Serial interval
C. Generation time
D. Communicable period
Answer: C
62. Recall bias is most commonly associated with which study design
A. Case control study
B. Cohort study
C. Cohort case control study
D. Cross-sectional study
Answer: A
63. Chronic carrier state is not seen in all except ?
A. Poliomyelitis
B. Measles
C. Malaria
D. Tetanus
Answer: C
64. Screening for condition recommended when ?
A. Low case fatality rate
B. Diagnostic tools not available
C. No effective treatment available
D. Early diagnosis can change disease course because of
effective treatment
Answer: D
65. If prevalence of a disease increases, what is true?
A. PPV increases
B. PPV decreases
C. No effect on PPV
D. PPV may increase or decrease
Answer: A
66. High sensitive
A. Low false positive
B. Low false negative
C. Low true negative
D. Low true positive
Answer: B
67. Screening procedure is best for Ca of
A. Prostate
B. Colon
C. Gastric
D. None
Answer: B
68. Most reliable test for screening of diabetes mellitus?
A. Random sugar
B. Fasting sugar
C. Glucose tolerance test
D. Urine sugar
Answer: B
69. Multiphasic screening means
A. Application of the two or more screening tests in combination at one time
B. Application of two or more screening tests in combination at different time
C. Application of two or more screening tests in combination at different geographical areas
D. Application of separate screening tests for different diseases
Answer: A
70. The frequently occurring value in a data is
A. Median
B. Mode
C. Standard deviation
D. Mean
Answer: B
71.Most common deviation used in social medicine is-
A. Mean
B. Range
C. Variance
D. Standard deviation
Answer: D
72. Shape of normal distribution curve?
A. J shape
B. U shape
C. Bell shape
D. None
Answer: C
73. One standard deviation in normal standard curve includes value
A. 50%
B. 68%
C. 95%
D. 100%
Answer: B
74. Height to weight is a/an
A. Association
B. Correlation
C. Proportion
D. Index
Answer: A
75. If correlation between weight and heights are very strong what will be the correlation coefficient ?
A. +1
B. > 1
C. 0
D. None
Answer: A
76. Correlation in height & weight are measured by?
A. Coefficient of variation
B. Range of variation
C. Correlation coefficient
D. None
Answer: C
77. Trends can be represented by
A. Line diagram
B. Bar diagram
C. Scatter diagram
D. None
Answer: A
78. People are separated into groups, from each group people are selected randomly. What type of sampling is this
A. Simple random
B. Stratified random
C. Systemic random
D. Cluster
Answer: B
79. Analysis done for expenditure of large proportion for small number and vice versa ?
A. ABC analysis
B. SUS analysis
C. HML analysis
D. VED analysis
Answer: A
80. Sample registration system is done once in ?
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 2 years
D. 5 years
Answer: A
81. In a Left skewed curve, true statement is?
A. Mean = Median
B. Mean < Mode
C. Mean>Mode
D. Mean = Mode
Answer: B
82. Chi-square test is for?
A. Standard error of Mean
B. Standard error of Proportion
C. Standard error of difference between 2 Means
D. Standard error of difference between Proportions
Answer: D
83. All are non-parametric tests except
A. Chi-square test
B. Sign test
C. Fisher exact test
D. Student t-test
Answer: D
84. Incubation period of influenza
A. 18 – 72 hrs
B. 1 – 6 hrs
C. 5 – 10 days
D. < 1 hrs
Answer: A
85. Rash of chickenpox can be differentiated from the rash of small pox by all except ?
A. Pleomorphic
B. Centripetal
C. Deep-seated
D. Unilocular
Answer: C
86. Chicken pox vaccine is
A. Live vaccine
B. Killed vaccine
C. Conjugated vaccine
D. None
Answer: A
87. Reconstituted measles vaccine should be used with in
A. 1 hour
B. 3 hour
C. 6 hour
D. 12 hour
Answer: A
88. India started 2-dose vaccination strategy for measles, in
A. 2008
B. 2009
C. 2010
D. 2011
Answer: C
89. Measles vaccination is given at
A. 9 months
B. At birth
C. 4 weeks
D. 8 weeks
Answer: A
90. In measeles vaccine can be given within
A. 3 months
B. 5 months
C. 7 months
D. 6 months
Answer: D
91. Incubation period of swine flu
A. 1-3 days
B. 2-3 weeks
C. 10-15 days
D. 5 weeks
Answer: A
92. Ideal temperature for DPT storage ?
A. Room temperature
B. 4 to 8°C
C. 0 to – 20°C
D. None
Answer: B
93. According to EVINCE fast breathing in 5 months child is defined as
A. >30/min
B. 40
C. 50
D. 60
Answer: C
94.Most important feature to diagnose severe pneumonia-
A. Cyanosis
B. Chest indrawing
C. Nasal flaring
D. Fast breathing
Answer: B
95. Why a TB patient is recommend a regimen of 4 drugs on 1st visit
A. To avoid emergence of persistors
B. To avoid side effects
C. To cure early
D. None
Answer: A
96. TB multidrug regimen is given to
A. Prevent resistance
B. Broad spectrum
C. Prevent side effects
D. None
Answer: A
97. 4 drugs in AKT used because
A. Decrease in resistance by mutation
B. Decrease in resistance by conjugation
C. To cure disease early
D. None
Answer: A
98.The direct BCG vaccination in India is given up to age of-
A. 10 year
B. 15 year
C. 20 year
D. None
Answer: D
99. Polio virus is shed in stool up to
A. 6 weeks
B. 8 weeks
C. 10 weeks
D. 12 weeks
Answer: D
100. All are true about polio, except
A. 99% non paralytic
B. Flaccid paralysis
C. Exaggerated tendon reflexes
D. Aseptic meningitis
Answer: C
101. Trivalent oral polio vaccine contains, type 3 virus
A. 100,000 TCID 50
B. 200,000 TCID 50
C. 300,000 TCID 50
D. 400,000 TCID 50
Answer: C
102. Criteria for defining polio epidemic are all except ?
A. 2 or more cases
B. Cases should occur in same locality
C. Caused by same virus type
D. Cases occurring during 6 month period
Answer: D
103. Which is cholera vaccine
A. Ty21 A
B. HGD -103
C. WC-rBS
D. None
Answer: C
104. ORS contains 75 mEq/l
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Glucose
D. Chloride
Answer: A
105. ORS new osmolarity is
A. 270
B. 245
C. 290
D. 310
Answer: B
106.In typhoid a permanent carrier is one who excretes bacilli for more than –
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 3 years
Answer: C
107. Incubation period of plasmodium vivax is
A. 5-7 days
B. 7-10 days
C. 10-14 days
D. 15-30 days
Answer: C
108. Malaria is transmitted in Rural areas by ?
A. Anopheles stephensi
B. Anopheles dirus
C. Anopheles culicifacies
D. None
Answer: C
109. Most common anopheles mosquito for malaria in India
A. Anopheles stephensi
B. Anopheles subpictus
C. Anopheles fluviatilis
D. Anopheles dims
Answer: A
110. Dose of chloroquine at 4-8 year
A. 150 mg
B. 300 mg
C. 450 mg.
D. 600 mg.
Answer: B
111. Prophylaxis for malaria not used
A. Doxycycline
B. Artesunate
C. Chloroquine
D. Mefloquine
Answer: B
112. Chemoprophylaxis of chloroquine includes
A. 300 mg BD/week
B. 600 mg OD/week
C. 600 mg/week
D. 300 mg OD/week
Answer: D
113. Maximum density of micro filariasis in blood is reported to be between –
A. 9 pm to 11 pm
B. 11 pm to 2 am
C. 8 pm to 10 pm
D. 2 am to 5 am
Answer: B
114. Concentration of diethylcarbamazine in DEC medicated salt in endemic filariasis is
A. 2-4 gm/kg
B. 3-6 gm/kg
C. 5- 1 0 gm/kg
D. 10- 15 gm/kg
Answer: A
115. Based on the type of life cycle, zoonoses are classified into all of the following except
A. Cyclo-zoonoses
B. Meta-zoonoses
C. Anthropozoonoses
D. Sporozoonoses
Answer: C
116. Which of the following is a zoonotic disease ?
A. Hydatid cyst
B. Malaria
C. Filariasis
D. dengue fever
Answer: A
117. Which virus is used to produce rabies vaccine ?
A. Wild
B. Street
C. Fixed
D. Live Attenuated
Answer: C
118. Schedule of intradermal rabies vaccine is ?
A. 2-2-0-1-0-1
B. 8-0-4-0-1-1
C. 8-4-4-1-0-1
D. 2-0-2-0-0
Answer: D
119.Site for injection of cell culture rabies vaccine-
A. Gluteus
B. Subcutaneous
C. Deltoid
D. Anterior abdominal wall
Answer: C
120. Yellow fever aedes agypti index should be ?
A. <1%
B. < 5%
C. <10%
D. < 20%
Answer: A
121. The distance from airport or seaport which has to be free from mosquitoes is
A. 400m
B. 500m
C. 1 km
D. 100m
Answer: A
122. The international quarantine period for yellow fever as approved by the Government of India is ?
A. 6 days
B. 9 days
C. 10 days
D. 12 days
Answer: A
123. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis is caused by
A. L-braziliensis
B. L. tropica
C. L. donovani
D. L-orientalis
Answer: A
124. Epidemic typhus cause & vector
A. Rickettessiae prowazekii & Louse
B. R. typhi & mite
C. R. conorii & tick
D. R. akari & mite
Answer: A
125. Vector of scrub typhus in man ?
A. O. tsutsugamushi
B. Leptotrombidium deliense
C. Lice
D. Pediculus humanus
Answer: B
126. To achieve neonatal tetanus elimination, incidence of neonatal tetanus per 1000 live births should be reduced to less than
A. 0.1
B. 02
C. 0.5
D. 1.0
Answer: A
127. “Multibacillary” is a spectrum of disease, seen in
A. Leprosy
B. TB
C. Tetanus
D. Trachoma
Answer: A
128. 2 yrs duration in terms of leprosy is with regard to
A. Rx of paucibacillary leprosy
B. Rx of multibacillary leprosy
C. Post Rx surveillance of paucibacillary leprosy
D. Post Rx surveillance of multibacillary leprosy
Answer: C
129. Life span of cut380a A. 10 yrs
B. 20 yrs
C. 1 yrs
D. None
Answer: A
130. Copper T is ideally inserted at
A. Just before menstruation
B. On the 26th day
C. Just after menstruation
D. On the 14th day
Answer: C
131. Absolute contraindication for IUD (Intra Uterine Contraceptive Device) are all except ?
A. Pregnancy
B. Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding
C. Pelvic inflammatory disease
D. Uterine malformation
Answer: D
132.All of the following are postcoital contraception methods except-
A. Mifepristone
B. IUD
C. Levonorgestrol
D. Barrier methods
Answer: D
133. Mean birth weight in India
A. 2.0 – 2.4 kg
B. 2.4 – 2.5 kg
C. 2.5 – 2.9 kg
D. > 3.0 kg
Answer: C
134. MCH care is assessed by
A. Death rate
B. Birth rate
C. Maternal mortality rate
D. Anemia in mother
Answer: C
135. Quarter of postnatal mother death is caused by ?
A. Infection
B. Bleeding
C. Eclampsia
D. Anemia
Answer: B
136. Maternal mortality is maximum in which period
A. Antepartum
B. Peripartum
C. Postpartum
D. None
Answer: B
137.Maximum maternal mortality during peripartum period occurs at –
A. Last trimester
B. During labor
C. Immediate post-partum
D. Delayed post-partum
Answer: C
138. Calculate IMR if in a population of 100000 there are 3000 live births in a year and 150 infant deaths in the same year
A. 75
B. 18
C. 5
D. 50
Answer: D
139. Which is the least common cause among these of infant mortality in India
A. Infections
B. Prematurity
C. Birth injuries
D. Congenital malformations
Answer: C
140. Best indicator of availability, utilization & effectiveness of health services
A. IMR
B. MMR
C. Hospital bed OCR
D. DALY
Answer: A
141. Most common cause of infant mortality?
A. LBW
B. Injury
C. ART
D. Tetanus
Answer: A
142. Perinatal mortality rate include which of the following?
A. Abortions + Still birth early neonatal deaths
B. Still birth + early neonatal deaths
C. Abortions + early neonatal deaths
D. Deaths up to 42 dys after birth
Answer: B
143. Human milk with respect to cow milk has
A. Less fat
B. Less protein
C. Less carbohydrate
D. a and b
Answer: D
144. What is absent in breast milk ?
A. Vit K
B. Vit C
C. Lactose
D. Vit A
Answer: A
145. Colostrums has in compared to normal milk ?
A. Decreased K
B. Decreased Na
C. Increased proteins
D. Increased calories
Answer: C
146. In normal delivery, breast feeding should be started?
A. 6 hour after delivary
B. 2 hour after delivary
C. 4 hour after delivary
D. None
Answer: D
147. ICDS was launched at
A. Community development block
B. Town level
C. City level
D. District level
Answer: A
148. Nutritional supplement for two year old child under ICDS scheme is
A. 200 Calorie
B. 300 Calorie
C. 400 Calorie
D. 500 Calorie
Answer: D
149. Direct cash transfer scheme to adolescent girls is covered under
A. Indira Gandhi scheme
B. Rajiv Gandhi scheme
C. CSSM
D. RCH
Answer: B
150. Child protection scheme is under which ministry
A. Ministry of health and family welfare
B. Ministry of Social welfare
C. Ministry of women and child development
D. Ministry of education
Answer: C
151. Homes where children are placed under the care of doctors and psychiatrists are called
A. Foster homes
B. Borstals
C. Remand homes
D. Child guidance clinics
Answer: C
152. Ujjwala is for
A. Child abuse
B. Child trafficking
C. Child labour
D. None
Answer: B
153. Perinatal mortality includes deaths
A. After 28 weeks of gestation
B. First 7 days after birth
C. Both
D. From period of viability
Answer: C
154. Energy requirement in late pregnancy
A. 2500 cal
B. 1400 cal
C. 1000 cal
D. 1000 cal
Answer: A
155. Protein quality assessment is best done by ?
A. NPU
B. Biological value
C. Digestibillity coefficient
D. Amino acid score
Answer: A
156. The highest concentrations of Vitamin A is seen in
A. Polar bear liver
B. Cod liver oil
C. Shark liver oil
D. Papaya
Answer: B
157. ‘Vitamin A requirement in infant is
A. 350 g
B. 600 g
C. 800 g
D. 1000 g
Answer: A
158. Jowar is Pellogerogenic due to excess of
A. Leucine
B. Lysine
C. Tryptophan
D. Methionine
Answer: A
159. For every 100 kilocalories, vitamin B, required is
A. 0.05 mg
B. 0.5 mg
C. 5.0 mg
D. 1.0 gn
Answer: A
160. Daily iron requirement in healthy Indian male is
A. 35 mg
B. 17 mg
C. 10 mg
D. 5 mg
Answer: B
161. Iodine RDA is
A. 300 microgram
B. 500 microgram
C. 150 microgram
D. 50 microgram
Answer: C
162. Iodine deficiency control programme ?
A. Health education
B. Water testing
C. Fortification of salt
D. None
Answer: C
163. Iodine comes in iodine salt. Required at production and consumer level respectively
A. 20 & 10 PPNI
B. 30 & 10 PPM
C. 30& 15 PPM
D. 30 & 20 PPM
Answer: C
164. Maximum calcium is seen in
A. Jowar
B. Bajara
C. Ragi
D. None
Answer: C
165. Which nut has highest protein content
A. Walnut
B. Groundnut
C. Almond
D. Coconut
Answer: B
166. Students receive how much cereal /day in mid day meal prog
A. 50 gm
B. 100 gm
C. 150 gm
D. 75 gm
Answer: D
167. Mid day meal programmed comes under ?
A. Ministry of Social Welfare
B. Ministry of education
C. Ministry of Human Resources Developments
D. None
Answer: B
168. Calcium requirement above the normal during the first six month of lactation is
A. 400Mgiday
B. 550mg/day
C. 600mg/day
D. 750mg/day
Answer: C
169. Adult non-pregnant female requires, Calcium per day
A. 400 mg
B. 600 mg
C. 800 mg
D. 1000 mg
Answer: B
170. The ICDS scheme is sponsored by
A. Ministry of health & family welfare
B. Ministry of Social welfare
C. Ministry of education
D. None
Answer: B
171. Most common cause of pollution of drinking water
A. Domestic waste
B. Industrial waste
C. Radioactive substances
D. Agricultural pollutants
Answer: B
172. Which of the following is water-related disease
A. Yellow fever
B. Scabies
C. Cholera
D. Dysentery
Answer: A
173. True about slow sand filter is
A. Occupies less space
B. More expensive
C. Requires longer duration
D. Sand size 0.4 – 0.7 mm
Answer: C
174. Test for coliform count ?
A. Eijkman test
B. Casoni’s test
C. Nitrate test
D. Urease test
Answer: A
175. Above which level of heat stress index it is not possible to work comfortably
A. 20 – 40
B. 40 – 60
C. 60 – 80
D. 80 – 100
Answer: B
176. Which of the following is not a indoor air pollutant?
A. Carbon monoxide
B. Nitrous oxide
C. Radon
D. Mercury
Answer: D
177. Which agency monitors air quality in India ?
A. Central pollution control board
B. Central air quality board
C. Central public works dept
D. None
Answer: A
178. In winter, water vapours and pollutants comes to lie in the lowermost layer of atmosphere by
A. Acid rain
B. Greenhouse effect
C. Temperature inversion
D. None
Answer: C
179. The source of endogenous radiation is
A. Radon
B. Potassium
C. Thorium
D. Uranium
Answer: B
180. The maximum permissible level of occupational exposure to radiation is…per year
A. 5 rad
B. 2 rad.
C. 10 rad
D. 50 rad
Answer: A
181. Psychrometer Psychrometer is used to measure
A. Humidity
B. Air velocity
C. Room temperature
D. Radiant temperature
Answer: A
182. Not safe disposal but gelid for soil building
A. Incineration
B. Controlled tipping
C. Composting
D. None
Answer: C
183. The heart to the activated sludge process is ?
A. Primary sedimentation tank
B. Sludge digester
C. Aeration tank
D. Final settling tank
Answer: C
184. Transovarian transmission of infection occurs in
A. Fleas
B. Ticks
C. Mosquitoes
D. b and c
Answer: D
185.Transovarian transmission Is seen in which infection –
A. Plague
B. Guinea
C. Yellow fever
D. All
Answer: C
186. Study of physical, social and cultural history of man is known as?
A. Social science
B. Anthropology
C. Acculturation
D. Sociology
Answer: B
187. Sociology
A. Study of human relationship
B. Study of behavior
C. Both
D. None
Answer: C
188. Study of person to person interrelationship in a society Economics
A. Economics
B. Suciology
C. Psychology
D. Anthropology
Answer: B
189. Custom is defined as
A. Established pattern of behavior
B. Prescribed order of cremony
C. Ban to a particular activity
D. None
Answer: A
190. Chronological age 10yrs, mental age 4yrs. What that person called as?
A. Idiot
B. Imbecile
C. Normal
D. Genius
Answer: B
191. Objectives of National Mental Health programme are all accept –
A. Promote community participation
B. Promote application of mental health knowledge
C. Provides free antipsychotic drugs to all
D. Provide accessibility of mental health care
Answer: C
192. Effect of environment on genes is called?
A. Positive Eugenics
B. Negative Eugenics
C. Euthenics
D. Enthenics
Answer: C
193. Hardly-weinberg law is related to
A. Population genetics
B. Health economics
C. Social medicine
D. None of the above
Answer: A
194. Acculturation is?
A. Traige
B. Cultural changes due to socialisation
C. Attitude
D. Belief
Answer: B
195. Amount of waste infectious produced in hospitals?
A. 45%
B. 65%
C. 80%
D. 100%
Answer: A
196. Which waste cannot be incinerated
A. Anatomic waste
B. Microbiology waste
C. Halogenated plastic
D. Infectious waste
Answer: C
197. Best for Incineration of infectiouswaste ?
A. Double – chamber
B. Single – chamber
C. Triple – chamber
D. None
Answer: A
198. Which is the calamity with most amount of damage
A. Flood
B. Earthquake
C. Landslides
D. Volcanoes
Answer: A
199. True about triage
A. Yellow-least priority
B. Red -morbidity
C. Green-ambulatory
D. Blue-ambulatory
Answer: C
200. High priority in triage is for
A. Red color
B. Yellow color
C. Green color
D. Black color
Answer: A
201. Which of the following is the nodal center for disaster management
A. PHC
B. CHC
C. Control room
D. None
Answer: C
202. Black color in triage
A. Death
B. Transfer
C. High priority
D. Low priority
Answer: A
203. Propaganda Is defined as
A. Forcing of knowledge into mind
B. Active aquiring of knowledge
C. Requiring knowledge after thinking
D. Training of people to use judgment before acting
Answer: A
204. All are true about panel discussion except ?
A. Two way discussion
B. 6 to 20 members participates
C. Chief members initiates
D. Each one prepares the topic of discussion
Answer: B
205. Multi-purpose worker scheme in India was introduced following the recommendation of ?
A. Srivastava Committee
B. Bhore Committee
C. Kartar Singh Committee
D. fsludaliar Committee
Answer: C
206. Bajaj committee in 1986 proposed?
A. Multipurpose health worker
B. Manpower and planning
C. Rural Health Service
D. Integrated health services
Answer: B
207. Millennium developmental goal for HIV/ AIDS ?
A. 6
B. 3
C. 8
D. 1
Answer: A
208. A trained dal caters for a population of
A. 1000
B. 2000
C. 3000
D. 4000
Answer: A
209. Kit B is given at
A. PHC
B. Subccnter
C. CHC
D. FRU level
Answer: B
210. All are principles of primary health care except?
A. Intersectoral coordination
B. Community participation
C. Appropriate technology
D. Decentralised approach
Answer: D
211. NVBDCP includes all except?
A. Malaria
B. Filarial
C. Kala azar
D. Chikungunya
Answer: D
212. National Leprosy Eradication Programme was started in
A. 1949
B. 1955
C. 1973
D. 1983
Answer: D
213. Revised strategy for NPCB includes all except ?
A. Fixed facility surgery
B. IOL implantation for cataract
C. Mobile surgical camps
D. Uniform distribution
Answer: C
214. Under RCH programme, intervention done in selected districts
A. Immunization
B. Treatment of STD
C. ORS therapy
D. Vitamin A supplementation
Answer: B
215. IMNCI target group
A. Upto 5yrs
B. Upto 10 yrs
C. Upto 15 yrs
D. Upto 20 yrs
Answer: A
216. ASHA gets remuneration on all except ?
A. Institutional delivery
B. Zero dose of OPV and BCG
C. Recording birth weight
D. Birth registration
Answer: B
217. Indira Gandhi Matritva Sahyog Yojana is for ?
A. > 65 years old
B. > 50 years old
C. > 30 years old
D. > 19 years old
Answer: D
218. Under National Cancer control Programme, oncology wings were sanctioned to
A. Regional Cancer institutes
B. District Hospitals
C. Medical college Hospitals
D. Voluntary Agenecies treating cancer patients
Answer: C
219. What is the BMI for an obese person:
A. Less than 18.5
B. 18.5-24.9
C. 25-29.9
D. More than 30
Answer: D
220. True for epidemiological triad
A. Time, place, person
B. Agent, host, environment
C. Disease, prevention, treatment
D. Agent, man, disease
Answer: B
221. BCG vaccine is diluted with: [September 2005]
A. Normal saline
B. Distilled water
C. Dextrose
D. Colloids
Answer: A
222. Measles is infective for: [March 2009]
A. One day before and 4 days after rash
B. Four days before and five days after rash
C. Entire incubation period
D. Only during scabs falling
Answer: B
223. Denominator for calculating perinatal mortality rate is: [September 2009]
A. 1000 births
B. 1000 live births
C. 1000 still births
D. 1000 population
Answer: B
224. Richest source of vitamin D is: [September 2003]
A. Fish
B. Soyabean
C. Halibut liver oil
D. Vegetables
Answer: C
225. Differences between human milk and cow milk are all of the following except: [September 2005]
A. Cow milk has comparatively more fat
B. Cow milk has comparatively more protein
C. Cow milk has comparatively more calcium
D. Cow milk is iron deficient
Answer: D
226. Amount of proteins in human milk (in gms): [September 2007]
A. 1.1
B. 2.2
C. 3.3
D. 4.4
Answer: A
227. Vitamin K is required for: [March 2005]
A. Chelation
B. Transamination
C. Carboxylation
D. None of the above
Answer: C
228. All are true for ASHA worker EXCEPT: [March 2013]
A. Informs about birth and deaths in her village to PHC
B. Education atleast till 4th class or higher
C. Local resident
D. Works per 1000 people of an area
Answer: B
229. A continuous quantitative data can be depicted with the help of: [September 2009]
A. Bar diagram
B. Pie chart
C. Histogram
D. Pictogram
Answer: C
230. Group of 4-8 experts talking in front of a large group of audience is known as: [September 2011]
A. Symposium
B. Workshop
C. Seminar
D. Panel discussion
Answer: D
231. Preobesity is defined as a BMI of:
A. 18.5-24.9
B. 25-29.9
C. 35-39.9
D. 40-44.9
Answer: B
232. Which of the following is Amphixenoses ?
A. Anthrax
B. Rabies
C. Trypanosoma cruzi
D. Salmonella
Answer: C
233. Health index characteristics are all except ?
A. Validity
B. Reliability
C. Affordability
D. Feasibility
Answer: C
234. Screening is a type of ?
A. Primordial prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Primary prevention
D. Tertiary prevention
Answer: B
235. Net reproduction rate is ?
A. Number of live births per 1000 mid-year population
B. Number of live birth per 1000 women of child bearing age
C. Number of daughters a newborn girl will have during life time
D. None of the above
Answer: C
236. Third generation IUCD ?
A. Mirena
B. Nova-T
C. Lippe’s loop
D. CuT-200
Answer: A
237. In positively skewed deviation ?
A. Mean = Median = Mode
B. Mean > Medians > Mode
C. Mode > Median > Mean
D. None of the above
Answer: B
238. Influenza pandemic is
A. Seasonal trend
B. Cyclical trend
C. Secular tred
D. None of the above
Answer: B
239. Not true about population pyramid ?
A. India has broad base
B. India has narrow base
C. India has narrow apex
D. Developing countries have bulge in the center
Answer: B
240. In malaria control, insecticide used for insectiside treated bed nets (ITBN)
A. Deltamethrin
B. Malathion
C. Lindone
D. Fenitrothion
Answer: A
241. Kanawati index is used for ?
A. Air population
B. PEM
C. Obesity definition
D. Infectivity
Answer: B
242. Gomez classification is based on ?
A. Weight retardation
B. Height retardation
C. Mid arm circumference
D. Stunting
Answer: A
243. Human anatomical wastes are treated/disposed by ?
A. Autoclaving
B. Chemical disinfection
C. Incineration
D. Microwaving
Answer: C
244. Cytotoxic drugs are treated/disposed by ?
A. Autoclaving
B. Chemical disinfection
C. Incineration
D. Microwaving
Answer: C
245. In calendar method of contraception, first day of fertile period is?
A. 10th day of shortest menstural cycle
B. 18th day of shortest menstural cycle
C. 10th day of longest menstural cycle
D. 18th day of longest menstural cycle
Answer: A
246. Most common type of polio is ?
A. Non-paralytic polio
B. Paralytic polio
C. Abortive illness
D. Inapparent infection
Answer: D
247. Mortality of rabies is ?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
Answer: D
248. Kala-azar is transmitted by ?
A. Reduvid bug
B. Sandfly
C. Tsetse fly
D. Mosquito
Answer: B
249. Fluoride helps in ?
A. Vision
B. Dentition
C. Myelination
D. Joint stability
Answer: B
250. Cholera vaccination is indicated ?
A. To control epidemics
B. For travellers
C. In endemic areas
D. In Neonates
Answer: C
.
251. Screening is not recommended if ?
A. Prevalence of disease is high
B. Life expectancy can be prolonged by early diagnosis
C. Diagnostic test should be available
D. Diseases with no latent period
Answer: D
252. To determine the endemicity of hepatitis B, what should be measured ?
A. HBsAg
B. HBcAg
C. HBeAg
D. Anti-HBeAg
Answer: A
253. An epidemiologist visits a village and wants to collect data for recent parasitic activity. What should be measure ?
A. Spleen rate
B. Infant parasite rate
C. Slide positivity rate
D. Slide falciparum rate
Answer: B
254. Recommended daily dietary requirement of folate (folic acid) in children ?
A. 80-120 μg
B. 200 μg
C. 400 μg
D. 600 μg
Answer: A
