1. The thickness of endometrium at the time of implantation is :
A. 3 – 4 mm
B. 20 – 30 mm
C. 15 –20 mm
D. 30 – 40 mm
Answer: A
2. Zygote with zona pellucida reaches uterine cavity by :
A. 2 days
B. 4 days
C. 5 days
D. 6 days
Answer: B
3. Ligamentum terea is formed after ‘:
A. Obliteration of the umbilical vein
B. Obliteration of the ductus venous
C. Obliteration of the ductus arteriosus
D. Obliteration of the hypogastric artery
Answer: A
4. The role of human placental lactogen is :
A. Stimulate milk production
B. Fetal breast development
C. Growth of fetus
D. Endocrine regulation
Answer: C
5. Commonest cause for puerperal sepsis is :
A. Streptococci
B. Anaerobes
C. Gonococci
D. Staphylococci
Answer: A
6. The best method for inducing mid trimester abortion is :
A. Injection of Hypertonic Saline
B. Ethacrydine
C. Prostaglandins
D. D and C
Answer: C
7. Most common site of Implantation of tubal pregnancy is :
A. Interstitial portion of fallopian tube
B. Isthmus
C. Ampulla
D. Infundibulum
Answer: C
8. During which gestational age is peak serum HCG levels attained ?
A. 7-9 weeks
B. 11-13 weeks
C. 20 weeks
D. 25 weeks
Answer: A
9. The uterine artery is a branch of which of the following?
A. Left common iliac artery
B. Internal iliac artery
C. Internal pudendal artery
D. Ovarian artery
Answer: B
10.In which part of fallopian tube ectopic pregnancy will have longest survival?
A. Isthmus
B. Ampulla
C. Cornua
D. Interstitium
Answer: D
11. What would be the type of presentation when the engaging diameter is mentovertical?
A. Face
B. Brow
C. Vertex
D. Breech
Answer: B
12. Which of the following statements regarding fetal circulation is correct?
A. The liver and heart of the fetus receive blood with very high oxygen saturation
B. PO2 of fetal blood leaving the placenta is slightly greater than maternal mixed venous PO2
C. The presence of fetal hemoglobin shifts the oxyhemoglobin dissociation to the right
D. The foramen ovale closes during the third trimester unless the fetus has an atrial septal defect
Answer: A
13. Most common cause of secondary PPH is :
A. Uterine inertia
B. Retained placenta
C. Episiotomy
D. Cervical tear
Answer: B
14. The major contribution of the amniotic fluid after 20 weeks of gestation :
A. Ultrafiltrate and maternal plasma
B. Fetal urine
C. Fetal lung fluid
D. Fetal skin
Answer: B
15. Incidence of scar rupture in a subsequent pregnancy in case of Lower Segment Cesarean Section (LSCS) is:
A. 2%
B. 4%
C. 5%
D. 8%
Answer: A
16. The characteristics of caput succedaneum include all of the following except :
A. Crosses midline
B. Crosses the suture line
C. It does not disappear within 2-3 days
D. It is a diffuse edematous swelling of the soft tissues of the scalp
Answer: C
17. Hydrocephalus is best detected antenately by :
A. X-ray abdomen
B. Amniocentesis
C. Clinical examination
D. Ultrasonography
Answer: D
18. Subpubic angle is :
A. <65°
B. 65-75°
C. 85°
D. 110-120°
Answer: C
19. Rule of Hasse is used to determine :
A. The age of fetus
B. Height of an adult
C. Race of a person
D. Identification
Answer: A
20. Banana and lemon sign seen in which fetal nomalies :
A. Neural tube defect
B. Hydrops fetalis
C. Twins
D. IUD
Answer: A
21. Indication of Acyclovir in pregnancy :
A. Disseminated herpes
B. Chicken-pox in first trimester
C. Prophylaxis in recurrent herpes
D. All of the above
Answer: D
22. Lovset manoeuvre is used in delivery of :
A. Head
B. Breech
C. Foot
D. Arms
Answer: D
23. Macrosomia is/are associated with:
A. Gestational diabetes mellitus
B. Maternal obesity
C. Hypothyroidism
D. A & B
om
Answer: D
24. Drug which is contraindicated before 2nd stage of labor is: [March 2009]
A. Mifepristone
B. Oxytocin
C. Misoprostol
D. Ergometrine
Answer: D
25. Nuchal translucency in USG can be detected at_____weeks of gestation.
A. 11-13 weeks
B. 18-20 weeks
C. 8-10 weeks
D. 20-22 weeks
Answer: A
26. First line of treatment of mastitis in a lactating mother is
A. Dicloxacillin
B. Cefazolin
C. Ceftriaxone
D. Ampicillin
Answer: A
27. Patient with recurrent abortion diagnosed to have antiphospholipid syndrome. What will be the treatment?
A. Aspirin only
B. Aspirin + Low molecular weight Heparin
C. Aspirin + Low molecular weight Heparin + Prednisolone
D. No Treatment
Answer: B
28. Human placenta is ?
A. Discoid
B. Hemochorial
C. Deciduate
D. All the above
Answer: D
29. Twin pregnancy of the same age and sex rules out ?
A. Superfetation
B. Maternal twins
C. Superfecundation
D. None of the above
Answer: A
30. All are true about uteroplacental circulation except
A. Blood in the intervillous space is completely replaced 3 – 4 times per minute
B. The villi depend on the maternal blood for their nutrition
C. A mature placenta has 150 ml of blood in the villi system and 350 ml of blood in the intervillous space
D. Intervillous blood flow at term is 500 – 600 ml per minute
Answer: C
31. Uterus is receptive for implantation for how many days after fertilization
A. 6 days
B. 12 days
C. 6 weeks
D. 12 weeks
Answer: D
32. Number of stem villi at term in human placenta is
A. 60
B. 120
C. 240
D. 480
Answer: A
33. All are of value in modified Bishop score except
A. Dilatation
B. Effacement
C. Cervical length
D. Consistency
Answer: B
34. G2P1L1 female with 1 : 4 anti D titres at 28 weeks gestation, management is
A. MCA Doppler
B. Caesarean section
C. Induction of labour
D. Amniocentesis
Answer: A
35. Patient with NTD, dose of folic acid in next pregnancy
A. 0.5 mg
B. 1 mg
C. 2 mg
D. 4 mg
Answer: D
36. Kallmans syndrome is associated with all of the following except
A. Amenorrhea
B. Excess stimulation of the HPO axis
C. Genetic mutation
D. Anosmia
Answer: B
37. Hot flushes are experienced as a result of
A. Increased noradrenaline
B. Decreased estrogen
C. Increased noradrenaline and decreased estrogen
D. Increased noradrenaline and estrogen
Answer: C
38. Cephalic index is
A. BPD/OFD
B. BPD/HC
C. OFD/BPD
D. HC/FL
Answer: A
39. If the symphysiofundal height is 40 cm and the station of the head is at -1, weight of the fetus is approximately
A. 3 kg
B. 3.3 kg
C. 4 kg
D. 4.3 kg
Answer: D
40. In MRKH syndrome, which among the following is absent?
A. Vagina
B. Breast development
C. Pubic hair development
D. Testes
Answer: D
41. What is the preferred treatment of complete prolapse in a female with completed family?
A. Sling surgery
B. Vaginal hysterectomy
C. Le Forte’s repair
D. Pessary
om
Answer: B
42. Which of the following is not a probable sign of pregnancy
A. Jacquemier’s sign
B. Dalrymple sign
C. Hegar’s sign
D. Palmer’s sign
Answer: B
43. Polyspermy is inhibited by which ion ?
A. Ca
B. Na
C. K
D. Cl
Answer: A
44. Which of the following is present in normal vagina?
A. Trichomonas buccalis
B. Trichomonas hominis
C. Trichomonas vaginalis
D. Trichomonas bovis
Answer: C
45. Maximum amniotic fluid at ?
A. 32 weeks
B. 34 weeks
C. 36 weeks
D. 40 weeks
Answer: C
46. At 20 weeks of gestation amniotic fluid volume is ?
A. 200 ml
B. 400 ml
C. 600 ml
D. 800 ml
Answer: B
47. Fertilized ovum reaches the uterus at what day of menstrual cycle?
A. 6th
B. 14th
C. 20th
D. 25th
Answer: C
48.Fertilization usually occurs in which part of fallopian tube?
A. Fimbrial end
B. Ampulla
C. Interstitium
D. Isthmus
Answer: B
49. Physiologic change in leukocyte numbers in pregnancy is
A. Neutrophilic leukocytosis
B. Lymphocytic leukocytosis
C. Neutropenia
D. Basophilic leukocytosis
Answer: A
50. Weight of uterus at term is ?
A. 400-500 gm
B. 600-700gm
C. 800-900 gm
D. 900-1000 gm
Answer: D
51. During pregnancy estrogen causes which of the following?
A. Growth of ducts of breasts
B. Growth of alveoli of breasts
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
Answer: C
52. Maternal side layer of the placenta is called ?
A. Decidua basalis layer
B. Decidua capsularis layer
C. Decidua parietalis
D. Decidua spongiosa
Answer: A
53. Which of the following is not a physiological change of pregnancy in urinary bladder?
A. Edematous mucosa
B. Increased frequency at 14 weeks
C. Stress incontinence
D. Pressure on bladder in late pregnancy
Answer: B
54. Urinary retention earliest in pregnancy is seen at ?
A. 10 weeks
B. 18 weeks
C. 22 weeks
D. 34 weeks
Answer: A
55. Beta HCG is detected earliest by which day of conception?
A. 8 days
B. 15 days
C. 21 days
D. 30 days
Answer: A
56. Doubling time of beta HCG in early pregnancy is ?
A. 24 hrs
B. 48 hrs
C. 72 hrs
D. 96 hrs
Answer: B
57. Tubal patency test in which phase of the menstrual cycle?
A. Menstrual
B. Preovulatory
C. Leuteal
D. Premenstrual
Answer: B
58. Following physiological changes are seen in vagina in pregnancy except ?
A. Jacquimiers sign
B. Increased length of anterior vaginal wall
C. pH acidic
D. Decreased number of navicular cells
Answer: D
59. FHS can be usually heard by stethoscope at ?
A. 14 weeks
B. 18 weeks
C. 22 weeks
D. 26 weeks
Answer: B
60. What is the fetoplacental relationship at 24 weeks of gestation?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: A
61. Down syndrome is earliest diagnosed at ?
A. 8 – 10 weeks
B. 10 – 12 weeks
C. 12 – 14 weeks
D. 14 – 16 weeks
Answer: B
62. Chorionic villus biopsy is done earliest in which week of gestation ?
A. 9 weeks
B. 11 weeks
C. 13 weeks
D. 15 weeks
Answer: B
63. When is folic acid started in pregnancy ?
A. 4 weeks prior to conception
B. 8 weeks prior toconception
C. 4 weeks after conception
D. 8 weeks after conception
Answer: A
64. Term placenta weight to Baby weight ratio is ?
A. 1 : 3
B. 1 : 4
C. 1 : 5
D. 1 : 6
Answer: D
65. First trimester diagnosis for anencephaly is by increased?
A. Alpha feto protein in maternal serum
B. Alpha feto protein in amniotic fluid
C. Beta HCG in maternal serum
D. Beta HCG in amniotic fluid
Answer: B
66. Which of the following is true about EDD ?
A. Less than 10% of deliveries occur on EDD
B. Less than 20% of deliveries occur on EDD
C. 80% of the deliveries occur on EDD
D. 90% of the deliveries occur on EDD
Answer: A
67. A. Most common position of engagement in vertex presentation?
A. LOA
B. ROA
C. LOP
D. ROP
Answer: A
68. Which is the engaging diameter in occipitoposterior nresentation?
A. Suboccipito frontal
B. Mento vertical
C. Submentovertical
D. Bitrochanteric
Answer: A
69. Which is the most common presentation in twin pregnancy?
A. Vertex – vertex
B. Vertex – breech
C. Breech – Breech
D. Vertex – Footling
Answer: A
70. Direct Occipitoposterior position is a favourable position in which type of pelvis ?
A. Anthropoid
B. Android pelvis
C. Gynaecoid
D. Mongoloid
Answer: A
71. Persistent OP position is most common in which pelvis?
A. Android
B. Gynaecoid
C. Anthrpoid
D. Mixed
Answer: A
72. Contraindication for induction of labour is all except?
A. Hypertensive disease of pregnancy
B. Heart disease of pregnancy
C. Pelvic tumor
D. Vasa previa
Answer: A
73. Medical management of ectopic pregnancy has decreased success if ?
A. Gestational sac < 3cm
B. Duration of gestation < 5 weeks
C. Cardiac activity present
D. Beta HCG < 8000 IU/L
Answer: C
74. All are the prognostic factors of Boermeisel system except
A. Extent of adhesions
B. Thickness of tubal wall
C. Size of hydrosalpinx
D. Infecting organism
Answer: D
75. Pregnant uterus will compress ureters at ?
A. Pelvic brim
B. Uterovesical junction
C. Trigone
D. Ureterovesical junction
Answer: A
76. Following is given to a patient with pre term labour exept
A. Glucocorticoids
B. Tocolytic drugs
C. Antibiotics
D. Beta blocker
Answer: D
77. Most common cause of tenth day post partum bleeding?
A. Retained bits of membrane
B. Infection
C. Endometritis
D. Blood coagulopathy
Answer: A
78. A multgravida 4 kg fetus is in labour since 15 hours and has 5cm dilation of cervix for last 8 hours. What is the further management of this patient ?
A. Wait and watch
B. Amniotomy
C. Injection Oxytocin
D. Caesarian section
Answer: D
79. The treatment of choice for bartholin cyst is ?
A. Marsupilisation
B. Aspiration
C. Observe
D. Curettage and closure
Answer: A
80. Gartner’s cyst are seen at ?
A. Antero lateral vaginal wall
B. Antero – lateral cervix
C. Posterolateral vaginal wall
D. Posterolateral cervix
Answer: A
81. Most common cause of death of baby in vasa previa is?
A. Infection
B. Maternal exanguination
C. Fetal exanguination
D. Both b and c
Answer: C
82. Sheehan syndrome is ?
A. Pitutary adenoma
B. Pitutary necrosis
C. Adrenal necrosis
D. Adrenal adenoma
Answer: B
83. Most common cause of menorrhagia in adolescents?
A. Thyroid disorder
B. Coagulation disorders
C. Leiomyomas
D. Polyps
Answer: B
84. Not associated with endometrial hyperplasia ?
A. PCOD
B. Glucose intolerance
C. HRT
D. Unopposed exposure to progesterone
Answer: D
85.Following are the causes of maternal deaths in patients with hypertensive disorder of pregnanacy except ?
A. Cardiac failure
B. ARDS
C. Chronic renal failure
D. Cerebral hemorrhage
Answer: C
86. Classical name of mid cycle abdominal pain with vaginal bleeding is called ?
A. Endometriosis
B. Mittelschmez
C. Meteropathiahemorrhagica
D. Menometrorrhagia
Answer: B
87. Following is true about leuteoma of pregnancy ?
A. Usually bilateral
B. It is a benign self limiting condition
C. It consists of leutenized cells
D. All the above
Answer: D
88. Clinical alarming sign of MgSO4 toxicity is ?
A. Loss of knee jerk
B. Loss of superficial abdominal reflexes
C. Loss of pin prick sensation
D. Loss of proprioception
Answer: A
89. False about MgSo4 is ?
A. Not used as antihypertensive
B. Its dose is different for eclampsia and preeclampsia
C. Deep tendon reflexes is monitored for toxicity
D. It acts as a membrane stabilizer and neuroprotector
Answer: B
90. 18 weeks pregnancy of a lady, last two times history of midtrimester abortion, which was painless. What is the diagnosis ?
A. Incompetent os
B. Chromosomal abnormality
C. Bivalve uterus
D. Progesterone deficiency
Answer: A
91. Following are the features of true labour pain ?
A. Uterine contractions at regular intervals
B. Progressive effacement and dilation of cervix
C. Formation of bag of membranes
D. All the above
Answer: D
92. HRT improves ?
A. Bone density
B. Demetia
C. Coronary artery disease
D. Endometrial cancer
Answer: A
93. Most common risk factor for rupture of scarred uterus is
A. Use of oxytocin in labour
B. Grand multiparity
C. Forceps application
D. Obstructed labour
Answer: A
94. Invaluable tool in the diagnosis of chronic pelvic pain is ?
A. Endometrial biopsy
B. Ultrasound
C. Laparoscopy
D. Colposcopy
Answer: C
95. Most common site of ectopic pregnancy is ?
A. Ovary
B. Fallopian tube
C. Peritoneum
D. Cervix
Answer: B
96. Least common site of ectopic pregnancy in fallopian tubes is ?
A. Interstitium
B. Ampulla
C. Infundibulum
D. Isthumus
Answer: A
97. Criteria for Puerperal pyrexia is temperature ?
A. 100.4 degrees F on two separate occasions
B. 101 degrees F on two separate occasions
C. 100.4 degrees F on three separate occasions
D. 101 degrees F on three separate occasions
Answer: A
98. Investigation of choice for diagnosis of PID is ?
A. Laparoscopy
B. Colposcopy
C. Hysteroscopy
D. Ultrasonography
Answer: A
99. Which drug is preferred for the treatment of 21 hydroxylase deficient female fetus to prevent genital virilization?
A. Materal cortisol
B. Maternal dexamethasone
C. Maternal hydrocortisone
D. Maternal methylprednisolone
Answer: B
100. Speilberg criteria is used for ?
A. Ovarian pregnancy
B. Ovarian malignancy
C. Cervical pregnancy
D. Cervical malignancy
Answer: A
101. Main factor responsible for increased perinatal mortality in twin pregnancy is ?
A. Prematurity
B. IUGR
C. Polyhydramnios
D. Uterine rupture
Answer: A
102. Cryptomenorrhoea is a feature of ?
A. Vaginal atresia
B. Turner syndrome
C. Empty sella syndrome
D. Gonadal agenesis
Answer: A
103. . Which of the following antiepileptic drug is associated with causing congenital heart disease in fetus?
A. Barbiturates
B. Valproate
C. Carbamazepine
D. Phenytoin
Answer: A
104. Engagement of head in labour means ?
A. Smallest horizontal plane of the presenting part has crossed the pelvic brim
B. Greatest horizontal plane of the presenting part has crossed the pelvic brim
C. Smallest horizontal plane of the presenting part has crossed the pelvic outlet
D. Greatest horizontal plane of the presenting part has crossed the pelvic outlet
Answer: B
105. USG of 28 weeks gestation showing oligohydramnios is likely to be due to ?
A. Gastroinstestinal obstruction
B. Renal pathway obstruction
C. Anencephyaly
D. Neuromuscular disorder
Answer: B
106. Anovulatory DUB is due to ?
A. Absence of progesterone
B. Excess of estrogen
C. Hypothalmic pitutary defect
D. High progesterone
Answer: A
107. In carcinoma cervix surgery to retain conception is done in which stage ?
A. 1B1
B. 1B2
C. 2A
D. 2B
Answer: A
108. Bishop scoring is done for ?
A. Exchange transfusion in newborn
B. Induction of labour
C. Ventilation of Newborn
D. Gestation of Newborn
Answer: B
109. Teratozoospermia refers to?
A. Absence of semen
B. Absence of sperm
C. All dead sperms in ejaculate
D. Morphologically defective sperms
Answer: D
110. Bispinous diameter in anatomic outlet ?
A. 10.5 cm
B. 11 cm
C. 11.5 cm
D. 12 cm
Answer: B
111. Most suitable type of pelvis in female ?
A. Gynaecoid
B. Android
C. Anthropoid
D. Platypelloid
Answer: A
112. Which pelvis is associated with DTA ?
A. Android
B. Antrhropoid
C. Platypelloid
D. Gynaecoid
Answer: A
113. In obstructive labor most important parameter is?
A. Diameter of pelvic inlet
B. Diameter of pelvic outlet
C. Biparietal diameter
D. Bitemporal diameter
Answer: B
114. Maximum diameter that passed through maternal pelvis ?
A. Suboccipital bregmatic
B. Biparietal
C. Suboccipital frontal
D. Occipito frontal
Answer: B
115. Semen examination can be done ?
A. Immediately in semi solid form
B. After liquefaction
C. Within 15-30 minutes of liquefaction
D. 11/2 – 2 hr irrespective of liquefaction
Answer: D
116. Lithotomy position increases vaginal opening by how many cm
A. 1cm
B. 2cm
C. 3cm
D. 4cm
Answer: B
117. Endometrial biopsy is usually done at ?
A. Just before menstruation
B. 10-12 days after menstruation
C. Just after menstruation
D. At the time of ovulation
Answer: A
118. Oligomenorrhoea means ?
A. Cycle < 20 days
B. Cycle more than 45 days
C. Cycle more than 28 days
D. Cycle more than 35 days
Answer: D
119. Magnification obtained by colposcopy is ?
A. 1-2 times
B. 5-6 times
C. 15-25 times
D. 10-20 times
Answer: D
120. On which day LH & FSH should be measured ?
A. 1-3rd day
B. 7th day
C. 14th day
D. 10th day
Answer: A
121. Best parameter for estimation of fetal age by ultrasound in 3rd trimester is ?
A. Femur length
B. BPD
C. Abdominal circuference
D. Intraoccular distanc
Answer: A
122. Commonest variety of compound presentation is ?
A. Head with hand
B. Head with foot
C. Head with both foot
D. Head, hand & foot
Answer: A
123. Hegar sign?
A. Uterine contraction
B. Quickening
C. Bluish discoloration of vagina
D. Softening of isthmus
Answer: D
124. Pregnant women going for long journey & prolonged sitting is associated with danger of ?
A. Thromboembolism
B. Seat belt compression
C. Preterm labor
D. Bleeding
Answer: A
125. Head of baby is removed in breech delivery by which maneuver ?
A. Lovsets maneover
B. Pinards maneover
C. Prague
D. Burn Marshall method
Answer: D
126. Prague manuever is used for ?
A. After coming head in breech
B. Deep transverse assest
C. Extraction of extended arms
D. External cephalic version
Answer: A
127.Trial of labour in previous casearian section can be done in ?
A. Placenta previa type III
B. Previous two classical casearian section
C. Suspected CPD
D. Previous caesarian section with adequate pelvis
Answer: D
128. Hematoma during labour is not due to ?
A. Improper haemostasis
B. Extension of cervical laceration
C. Rupture of paravaginal venous plexus
D. Obliteration of dead space while suturing vaginal wall
Answer: D
129. Treatment of jaundice in third trimester ?
A. Termination of pregnancy
B. Termination at 42 weeks
C. Termination at 38 weeks
D. Wait for spontaeous labour
Answer: C
130. Rate of turnover of amniotic fluid is ?
A. 500 cc/h
B. 1L/hr
C. 1500 cc/h
D. 2L/h
Answer: A
131. Maximum amount of amiotic fluid is seen at how many weeks ?
A. 16
B. 30
C. 12
D. 38-40
Answer: D
132. Uterus post pregnancy becomes a pelvic organ in?
A. 4 weeks
B. 6 weeks
C. 12 weeks
D. 2 week
Answer: D
133. Assisted head delivery is done in ?
A. Brow presentation
B. Face presentation
C. Persistent occipito posterior position
D. Twin presentation 1522. % of
Answer: C
134. % of women delivering on their EDD is ?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 4%
D. 15%
Answer: C
135. Inner cell mass differentiates into ?
A. Chorion
B. Trophoectoderm
C. Embryo
D. All of the above
Answer: C
136. Embryo is called “fetus” after how many weeks post fertilization/conception ?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12
Answer: B
137. Utero-placental circulation is established days after fertilization ?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
Answer: B
138. Pregnancy is contraindicated in all of the following except
A. Primary Pulmonary Hypertension
B. Eisenmenger’s syndrome
C. Marfan’s with aortic root dilation
D. WPW syndrome
Answer: D
139. Which heart disease has the worst prognosis/maximum mortality in pregnancy?
A. MS
B. AS
C. PDA
D. Eisenmenger’s syndrome
Answer: D
140. Ovarian cycle can be correlated with all except ?
A. Endometrial sampling
B. Vaginal cytology
C. Blood hormonal levels
D. Estrous cycle
Answer: D
141. Endometrial biopsy to detect ovulation is done on which day of the menstual cycle ?
A. Day 8-9
B. Day 13-15
C. Day 21-23
D. Day 3-5
Answer: C
142. The uterine blood flow at term is
A. 50 mL/min
B. 100-150 mL/min
C. 350-375 mL/min
D. 500-750 mL/min
Answer: D
143. Godell’s sign is ?
A. Dusky hue of the vestibule
B. Softening of the cervix
C. Increased pulsations felt through the lateral fornices
D. Regular and rhythmic contractions during bimanual examination
Answer: B
144. In fetus, insulin production begin at weeks of gestation
A. 4-6
B. 8-12
C. 14-18
D. 24-28
Answer: B
145. Limb bud appear at what weeks of gestation?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 9
Answer: B
146. Features of non severe/mild pre ecampsia are all ecxept
A. Diastolic BP <100 mm Hg
B. Systolic BP< 160 mm Hg
C. Mild IUGR
D. No premonitory symptoms
Answer: C
147. FERNING is due to ?
A. Estogen & sodium chloride
B. Progesterone & sodium chloride
C. HCG
D. All of the above
Answer: A
148. Second wave of trophoblastic invasion occurs at weeks of gestation?
A. 8-11
B. 10-12
C. 12-15
D. 16-20
Answer: C
149. Abstinence period before semen analysis is ?
A. 1-2 days
B. 3-5 days
C. 5-7 days
D. 7-9 days
Answer: B
150. Engaging diameter in face presentation
is A. Suboccipitobregmatic
B. Mentovertical
C. Submentobregmatic
D. Occipitofrontal
Answer: C
151. Least likely to cause dysmenorrhea A. Endometriosis
B. Adenomyosis
C. Uterine polyp
D. Cervical polyp
Answer: D
152. LH surge is due to ?
A. Progesterone
B. Estrogen
C. AMH
D. All of the above
Answer: B
153. Menopause is defined as ?
A. Presence of hot flushes
B. Cessation of menses for 1 year
C. Cessation of menses for 6 months
D. Cessation of menses for 2 years
Answer: B
154. Symptoms of menopause are all except ?
A. Hot flushes
B. Night sweats
C. Decrease libido
D. Intermittent hypotension
Answer: D
155. MENOPAUSE is diagnosed by ?
A. Estradiol <20 pg/ml
B. Progesterone <40 ng/dl C. FSH>40 IU/L
D. LH > 20 IU/L
Answer: C
156. The velocity of sperm is ?
A. 1-2 cm/hr
B. 2-4 cm/min
C. 1-4 mm/min
D. 1-4 mm/hr
Answer: C
157. After ejaculation semen liquefies in ?
A. 10 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 75 minutes
D. 120 minutes
Answer: B
158. During pregnancy, true statement about CVS is ?
A. Cardiac output decreases
B. Right axis deviation
C. Increase in left ventricular end diastolic diameter
D. All of the above
Answer: C
159. MC site of implantation is ?
A. Fallopian tube amullary part
B. Fallopian tube isthmus
C. Fundus of uterus
D. Cornu of uterus
Answer: C
160. Alpha subunit of hCG is similar to ?
A. FSH
B. LH
C. TSH
D. All of the above
Answer: D
161. Placental hormone with highest carbohydrate content is
A. HCG
B. Human pregnancy specific beta glycoprotein
C. HPL
D. Relaxin
Answer: A
162. The pelvic inlet usually is considered to be contracted if its shortest anteroposterior diameter is less than
A. 12 cm
B. 10 cm
C. 8 cm
D. 14 cm
Answer: B
163. Azoospermia with normal FSH would indicate ?
A. Hypothalamic failure
B. Testicular failure
C. Obstruction of vas defrens
D. All of the above
Answer: C
164. Causes of male infertility ?
A. Idiopathic
B. Varicocele
C. Yq 11 micro deletion
D. All of the above
Answer: D
165. Fetal thyroid gland is able to synthesize hormones by weeks of gestation ?
A. 6-7
B. 7-8
C. 10-12
D. 12-14
Answer: C
166. Poor prognosis in first trimester USG is ?
A. No fetal pole at 5 weeks
B. No cardiac activity at 5 weeks
C. No gestational sac at 4 weeks
D. No cardiac activity at 8 weeks of gestation
Answer: D
167. All are true about post partum depression except
A. Symptoms resolve in 10-12 days
B. Affects both sexes
C. SSRIs are effective
D. None of the above
Answer: A
168. Nerve injured in McRoberts maneuver is ?
A. Lumbosacral trunk
B. Obturator nerve
C. Femoral nerve
D. Pudendal nerve
Answer: C
169. Most conclusive clinical sign of pregnancy is ?
A. Uterine enlargement
B. Cervical softening
C. Amenorrhea
D. Fetal heat sound auscultation
Answer: D
170. CRL when cardiac activity can be detected earliest by TVS
A. 1-4mm
B. 1 cm
C. 6-7mm
D. 2-4 cm
Answer: A
171. Kamla, 30 years old, P2L2 with 3.2 x 4.1 cm fibroid uterus, complains of menorrhagia and is on symptomatic treatment since 6 months. The patient refuses surgery. Next line of management is ?
A. GnRH analogs
B. Danazol
C. Myomectomy
D. Uterine artery embolization
Answer: D
172. Living ligature of the uterus is ?
A. Endometrium
B. Middle layer of myometrium
C. Inner layer of myometrium
D. Parametrium
Answer: B
173. In partograms recommended by ‘WHO’ the distance between the alert and action lines is ?
A. 1 hour
B. 2 hours
C. 4 hours
D. 5 hours
Answer: C
174. Surgical excision of corpus luteum before weeks of gestation, results in miscarriage
A. 6-7
B. 9-11
C. 11-12
D. 12-14
Answer: A
175. Factors responsible for development of OHSS include ?
A. Histamine
B. Cytokines
C. Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor
D. All of the above
Answer: D
176. MVA syringe is used for ?
A. First trimester MTP
B. 2nd trimester MTP
C. Vacuum delivery
D. All of the above
om
Answer: A
177. Diihrssen incision is taken on
A. Fallopian tube
B. Ovary
C. Incompletely dilated cervix
D. Fully dilated cervix
Answer: C
178. A 27-year-old female with placenta previa had severe bleeding. What is the most likely outcome post delivery?
A. Galactorrhea
B. Diabetes
C. Absence of menstrual cycle
D. Cushing syndrome
Answer: C
179. Woman has 100 ml blood loss every 30 days. This is called as ?
A. Menorrhagia
B. Polymenorrhea
C. Hypomenorrhea
D. Normal menses
Answer: A
180. Menometrorrhagia is ?
A. Heavy periods
B. Intermenstrual bleeding
C. Heavy & irregular bleeding
D. Uterine bleeding occurring at regular intervals of less than 21
days
Answer: C
181. Prevalence of breech presentation at full term is ?
A. 10%
B. 6-7%
C. 3-4%
D. 1-2%
Answer: C
182. The shortest conjugate is ?
A. True conjugate
B. Obstetric conjugate
C. Diagonal conjugate
D. Anatomical conjugate
Answer: B
183. Shortest transverse diameter is ?
A. BPD
B. Bitemporal diameter
C. Bimastoid diameter
D. All are equal in length
Answer: C
184. With reference to fetal heart rate, a nonstress test is considered reactive when?
A. Two fetal heart rate accelerations are noted in 20 minutes
B. One fetal heart rate acceleration is noted in 20 minutes
C. Two fetal heart rate accelerations are noted in 10 minutes
D. Three fetal heart rate accelerations are noted in 30 minutes
Answer: A
185. Variable deceleration is seen in ?
A. Head compression
B. Uteroplacental insufficiency
C. Cord compression
D. None of the above
Answer: C
186. Modified BIOPHYSICAL PROFILE is ?
A. NST + FETAL TONE
B. FETAL TONE + AFI
C. NST + AFI
D. NST+ FETAL TONE + AFI
Answer: C
187. If fetus is having hypoxia, which of the BPP parameter will be affected last ?
A. Fetal tone
B. Fetal breathing movement
C. Fetal movements
D. NST
Answer: A
188. Test used to detect genetic abnormality in embryo,before transferring it to the uterus in IVF is ?
A. Embryo cell biopsy
B. CVS
C. ICSI
D. All of the above
Answer: A
189. In IVF, embryos are transferred back to uterine cavity at cells stage ?
A. 2
B. 2-4
C. 4-8
D. 8-16
Answer: C
190. Azoospermic patient can be a father of a child, by which of the following?
A. IUI
B. ZIFT
C. ICSI
D. Not possible & counsel regarding adoption
Answer: C
191. A primigravida with 36 weeks of pregnancy is in labor with 3 cm dilatation and minimal uterine contraction. On rupture of membranes, fresh bleeding is noted with late fetal deceleration up to 50 beats/min. The patient was taken for LSCS but fetus could no be saved. No abruptio or placenta previa was seen. The likely diagnosis is ?
A. Placenta previa
B. Revealed abruptio
C. Circumvallate placenta
D. Vasa previa
Answer: D
192. All are components of Active Management of the Third Stage of Labor except ?
A. Uterotonic agent within 1 minute of birth
B. Massage of uterus before control cord traction
C. Control cord traction
D. None of the above
Answer: B
193. With which of the following events, the feto maternal haemorrhage risk is the least ?
A. Amniocentesis
B. Cordocentrsis
C. Chorionic villus sampling
D. Abruption
Answer: D
194. Infertility is defined as ?
A. Inability to conceive after 1 year of regular unprotected intercourse
B. Inability to conceive after 1 year of marriage
C. Inability to conceive after 2 years of marriage
D. Inability to conceive in spite of 2 years of regular unprotected intercourse
Answer: A
195. Cord prolapse is least likely with
A. Transverse lie
B. Footling breech
C. Oligohydroamnios
D. Floating head
Answer: C
196. Ideal time to do Glucose challenge test in pregnancy is ?
A. 12-16 weeks
B. 20-24 weeks
C. 24-28 weeks
D. 30-34 weeks
Answer: C
197. After IUFD, when does the mother develop DIC
A. 48 hours
B. 1-2 weeks
C. 3-4 weeks
D. 6 weeks
Answer: C
198. Folic acid required in first trimester of normal pregnancy
A. 100 microgram
B. 400-500 microgram
C. 4 mg
D. 5 mg
Answer: B
199. A 30-year-old is 14 weeks pregnant. She had two painless deliveries at 16 weeks earlier. Next line of management is ?
A. Cervical encerclage
B. Evaluation for diabetes mellitus and thyroid disorders
C. Cervical length assessment
D. Tocolytics
Answer: C
200. Upper two -third anterior vaginal wall prolapse is ?
A. Cystocele
B. Urethrocele
C. Rectocele
D. Enterocele
Answer: A
201. Earliest sign after IUFD is ?
A. Overlapping of skull bones
B. Hyperflexion of spine
C. Gas in great vessel
D. Over crowding of ribs
Answer: C
202. True about Gartners cyst is ?
A. Retention cyst in remnants of Wolffian duct
B. Arises from mullerian duct
C. Commonly arises from cervix
D. Impulse on coughing
Answer: A
203. If the anal spincter is injured, it is which degree of Perineal Tear ?
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth
Answer: C
204. If the rectal mucosa is injured, it is which degree of Perineal Tear ?
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth
Answer: D
205. Cryptomenorrhea occurs in ?
A. Fibroids
B. PCOS
C. Imperforate hymen
D. All of the above
Answer: C
206. Best indicator for ovarian reserve is ?
A. AMH
B. LH/FSH ratio
C. FSH
D. Estradiol
Answer: A
207. HPL has activity similar to which hormone ?
A. Oxytocin
B. Growth hormone
C. Insulin
D. All of the above
Answer: B
208. Which of the following is not a soft tissue marker of Down syndrome on USG ?
A. Increase NT
B. Absent nasal bone
C. Exomphalos
D. Polydactyly
Answer: D
209. In a case of recurrent spontaneous abortion the following investigation is unwanted ?
A. Hysteroscopy
B. Testing for antiphospholipid antibodies
C. Testing for TORCH infections
D. Thyroid function tests
Answer: C
210. Dilatation & evacuation is done for all ecxept ?
A. Inevitable abortion
B. Incomplete abortion
C. Threatened abortion
D. None of the above
Answer: C
211. WHO normal Hb value for a non pregnant adult female is ?
A. 10 gm/di
B. 11 gm /dl
C. 12 gm/dl
D. 13 gm/dl
Answer: C
212. Outcomes of occipito posterior position?
A. Deep transverse arrest
B. Occipito sacral arrest
C. Face to pubis delivery
D. All of the above
Answer: D
213. RMP can perform MTP in first trimester if he has assisted in MTPs
A. 5
B. 15
C. 25
D. 50
Answer: C
214. Crying of fetus in utero is called as ?
A. Vagitus uterinus
B. First cry
C. Utero vaginalis
D. Vagitus vagina
Answer: A
215. True about cephalhematoma is :
A. Crosses the suture lines
B. Always present at birth
C. Ventouse delivery is a risk factor
D. All of the above
Answer: C
216. All are causes of anovulatory amenorrhoea except?
A. PCOD
B. Hyperprolactemia
C. Gonadal dysgenesis
D. Drugs
Answer: C
217. What is false about post menopausal state ?
A. Low LH
B. Low estrogen
C. High FSH
D. High androgen
Answer: A
218. In a postmenopausal female, which hormone increases?
A. FSH
B. Estrogen
C. GH
D. None of the above
Answer: A
219. Role of lactobacilli in vaginal secretions
A. To maintain alkaline pH
B. To maintain acidic pH
C. Nutrition
D. None
Answer: B
220. Hegar sign all are true except ?
A. Bimanual palpation method
B. Difficult in obese
C. Can be done at 14 weeks
D. Present in 2/3rd of cases
Answer: C
221. Hegar sign is seen in how many weeks ?
A. 6-10 weeks
B. 10-14 weeks
C. 14-18 weeks
D. 18-22 weeks
Answer: A
222. Palmer sign is related to ?
A. Contraction of uterus
B. Dusky hue of ant vaginal wall
C. Bluish discolouration of ant vaginal wall
D. Increased pulsations felt through lateral fornix
Answer: A
223. New born can be given breast milk after how much time following normal delivery?
A. Half hour
B. 1 hours
C. 2 hours
D. 3 hours
Answer: A
224. 4 month amenorrhoea with increased FSH, LH & decreased estrogen in a 35 yrs old?
A. Premature menopause
B. Menopause
C. Late menopause
D. Perimenopause
Answer: A
225. 35 yr old with 4 months amenorrhea with increased FSH, decreased estrogen. What is the diagnosis?
A. Premature ovarian failure
B. PCOD
C. Pituitary failure
D. Hypothalamic failure
Answer: A
226. Contraction stress test false is ?
A. Oxytocin not used
B. Invasive method
C. Detects fetal well being
D. Negative test is associated with good fetal outcome
Answer: A
227. NST, what is seen except?
A. Variability
B. Acceleration
C. Time period
D. Oxytocin
Answer: D
228. Menstrual regulation effective upto ?
A. 14 days
B. 21 days
C. 4weeks
D. 6 weeks
Answer: A
229. pH of vagina in pregnant woman is usually ?
A. 4.0
B. 4.5
C. 5
D. >5
Answer: A
230. Vaginal pH before puberty is?
A. 7
B. 6
C. 4.5
D. 5
Answer: A
231. Decidual reaction is due to which hormone ?
A. Progesterone
B. Estrogen
C. LH
D. FSH
Answer: A
232. Inhibin levels are checked on which day of menstrual cycle ?
A. Day 3
B. Day 4
C. Day 5
D. Day 6
Answer: A
233. Best test for ovulation ?
A. Serum estrogen
B. Serum progesterone
C. Both
D. None
Answer: B
234. Cardiac output increases maximum at which week?
A. 26-28wks
B. 30-32 wks
C. 32-34 wks
D. 34-36 wks
Answer: C
235. In pregnancy plasma volume increased maximum at what gestational age?
A. 10 wks
B. 20 wks
C. 25 wks
D. 30 wks
Answer: D
236. 5 month pregnant female, which of the following is true?
A. 50% have soft systolic murmur
B. Cardiac output is reduced
C. Systemic vascular resistance is increased
D. Increase in CVP
Answer: A
237. Spinnbarkeit is maximum shown at which phase?
A. Menstrual phase
B. Ovulatory
C. Post ovulatory
D. Pre follicular
Answer: B
238. Rarest presentation is?
A. Cephalic
B. Breech
C. Shoulder
D. Vertex
Answer: C
239. Fertile period of female is measured by ?
A. LH
B. FSH
C. Estrogen
D. Oxytocin
Answer: A
240. External version is done after?
A. 34 weeks
B. 36 weeks
C. 38 weeks
D. 40 weeks
Answer: B
241. Least common presentation of twins ?
A. Both vertex
B. Both breech
C. Both transverse
D. First vertex and 2nd transverse
Answer: C
242.Presenting part in transverse lie ?
A. Shoulder
B. Face
C. Vertex
D. Brow
Answer: A
243. Severely anaemic pregnant patient in cardiac failure. Choice of transfusion?
A. Platelets
B. Packed cells
C. Whole blood
D. Exchange transfusion
Answer: B
244. Hydrops fetalis is due to ?
A. Rh mismatch
B. Hyperproteinemia
C. Placental hypoplasia
D. All of the above
Answer: A
245. Caput succedaneum indicates that fetus was alive till ?
A. Immediately after birth
B. Till 2-3 days after birth
C. 2-3 weeks after birth
D. 2-3 months after birth
Answer: A
246. Caput succedeum is said to occur in baby?
A. Within 24 hrs
B. 2-3 days
C. 2-3 weeks
D. 2-3 months
Answer: A
247. For uterine prolapse in pregnancy, Ring pessary can be inserted upto ?
A. 12 weeks
B. 14 weeks
C. 16weeks
D. 18 weeks
Answer: D
248. Not a method for delivery of after-coming head of breech ?
A. Forceps method
B. Burns and Marshall method
C. Malar flexion and shoulder traction
D. Half hand method
Answer: D
249. Investigation of choice in post menopausal bleeding?
A. PAP smear
B. Laproscopy
C. Fractional curettage
D. Ultrasound
Answer: C
250. Preferred IUD for menorrhagea ?
A. NOVA T
B. Cu IUD
C. Mirena
D. Gyne fix
Answer: C
251. Preferred treatment for menorrhagea in reproductive age group?
A. NOVA T
B. Cu IUD
C. OCPs
D. Hysterectomy
Answer: C
252. Drug not used commonly for menorrhagea ?
A. Methergin
B. Clomiphene
C. GnRH
D. NSAIDS
Answer: A
253. Drug causing abruption placenta ?
A. Methadone
B. Cocaine
C. Amphetamine
D. Fluoxetine
Answer: B
254.Classical C section indicated in ?
A. CA Cervix
B. Central placenta praevia
C. Failed induction
D. Fetal distress
Answer: A
255. Definitive indication of LSCS ?
A. Mento ant
B. Contracted pelvis
C. Occipito posterior
D. Vertex
Answer: B
256. After delivery upto which week is known as puerperium?
A. 2 weeks
B. 4 weeks
C. 6 weeks
D. 8 weeks
Answer: C
257. Which of these steps is followed first for the management of shoulder dystocia after McRoberts maneuver?
A. Sharp flexion of hip joints towards abdomen
B. Supra pubic pressure
C. 90 degree rotation of posterior shoulder
D. Emergency c-section
Answer: B
258. Peripartum cardiomyopathy occurs at
A. Within 7 days
B. Within 6 weeks
C. Within 24 months
D. Within 5 months
Answer: D
259. Nerve mostly compressed in pregnancy puerperium:
A. Radial nerve
B. Median nerve
C. Femoral nerve
D. Facial nerve
Answer: C
260. In pregnancy which of the following level is altered mostly:
A. Total T3
B. Free T3
C. Free T4
D. TSH
Answer: A
261. What is meant by Superfecundation?
A. Fertilization of two or more ova in one intercourse
B. Fertilization of two or more ova in different intercourses in same menstrual cycle
C. Fertilization of ova and then it’s division
D. Fertilization of second ovum first being implanted
Answer: B
262. Acute fatty liver commonly seen in pregnancy at
A. 3rd trimester
B. 1st trimester
C. Immediate postpartum
D. Intrapartum
Answer: A
263. Fetal heart starts contracting at
A. 10-12 days
B. 10-12 weeks
C. 3-5 weeks
D. 3- 5 month
Answer: C
264. Which of the following is correct regarding placenta?
A. Placental artery provides nutrients through umbilical cord to baby
B. Placenta has Wharton’s jelly
C. Placenta has 2 veins and 1 artery
D. Estrogen is secreted by placenta
Answer: B
265.Anesthesia of choice for cesarean section in severe pre-eclampsia :
A. Spinal
B. GA
C. Epidural
D. Spinal+epidural
Answer: C
266. Which of the following is not a high-risk pregnancy?
A. Previous history of manual removal of placenta
B. Anemia
C. Diabetes
D. Obesity
Answer: A
267. Which of the following is not used in preeclampsia?
A. Methyldopa
B. Atenolol
C. Labetalol
D. Hydralazine
Answer: B
268. Postmenopausal women 1st line of drug for osteoporosis is
A. OCP
B. Bisphosphonates
C. Raloxifene
D. Strontium
Answer: B
269. A 36-week old pregnant lady with previous twin delivery. What is the Ovarian score?
A. G2P1
B. G2P2
C. G3P2
D. G3P3
Answer: A
270. DCDA twins, 38wks, first twin breech mother has BP 140/96, 1+ proteinuria what’s the management
A. Immediate LSCS
B. Induction at 40 weeks
C. Immediate induction and delivery
D. Induction if signs of preeclampsia
Answer: A
271. A 32-year-old woman complains of amenorrhea since the delivery of a baby 15 months previously, despite the fact that she did not breastfeed her baby. The delivery was complicated by excessive hemorrhage that required a transfusion of 2.5 liters of blood. She has also been fatigued and has gained an additional 4.5Kg since the baby was born. Laboratory data show the following:
Serum LH < 1 IU/L (normal, 4-24 IU/L)
Serum estradiol 5 pg/mL (normal, 20 100 pg/mL)
Serum TSH 0.1 mU/L (normal, 0.5 – 5 mU/L)
Serum GH 3 ng/mL (normal, < 5 ng/mL)
Serum ACTH 28 pg/mL (normal, 10 – 50 pg/mL)
Serum prolactin 2 ng/mL (normal,
Injection of 500 μg of TRH failed to produce the expected rise in both serum TSH and prolactin. Which of the following diagnoses most likely explains the findings in this patient?
A. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
B. Isolated gonadotropin deficiency
B. Isolated gonadotropin deficiency
C. Primary amenorrhea
D. Sheehan’s syndrome
Answer: D
272. A 7 weeks pregnant lady has 1 accidental exposure to x-ray. Which of the following should be done?
A. Continue pregnancy
B. Terminate pregnancy
C. Chromosome analysis
D. Pre invasive diagnostic testing
Answer: A
273. In Modern obstetrics, for sensitized Rhnegative mother what should be done to evaluate the condition of the mother?
A. MCA doppler peak systolic volume
B. Fetal blood
C. Amniocentesis
D. Biophysical profile
Answer: A
274. A patient delivered at home with a complete perineal tear came to the hospital after 2 weeks. What management will you prefer?
A. Immediate repair
B. Repair 3 weeks post-delivery
C. Repair 6 weeks post-delivery
D. Repair 3 months post-delivery
Answer: D
275. All are used for postcoital contraception except
A.CuT
B. Ru 486
C. High dose estrogen
D. Danazol
Answer: D
276. 33 yr old female with heavy menstrual bleeding for 6 months comes to the gynaecology OPD. On examination, no abnormality was seen. USG also appeared normal. The patient was tried to be managed on non-hormonal treatment but it failed. What will be the next management step?
A. Hormonal therapy
B. Endometrial sampling
C. Hysterectomy
D. Hysterectomy
Answer: B
