1. Mechanism of action of quinolones is?
A. DNA gyrase inhibitors
B. Bind to 30 s unit
C. Bind to bacterial cell membrane
D. Bind to tetrahydofolate reductase
Answer: D
2. Drug NOT used in pulmonary hypertension ‑
A. Calcium channel blocker
B. Endothelin receptor antagonist
C. Alpha blocker
D. Prostacyclin
Answer: C
3. Regarding efficacy and potency of a drug, all are true, EXCEPT:
A. In a clinical setup, efficacy is more important than potency
B. In the log dose response curve, the height of the curve corresponds with efficacy
C. ED50 of the drug corresponds to efficacy
D. Drugs that produce a similar pharmacological effect can have different levels of efficacy
Answer: C
4. Zero-order kinetics is otherwise known as saturation kinetics. It is independent of:
A. Plasma concentration
B. Clearance
C. Volume of distribution
D. Half life
Answer: A
5. Filgrastim is used in treatment of:
A. Anemia
B. Neutropenia
C. Malaria
D. Filarial
Answer: B
6. Guanethidine is used in the treatment of which of the following condition?
A. Thyrotoxic ophthalmopathy
B. Ptosis
C. Bell’s palsy
D. Horner’s syndrome
Answer: A
7. Finasteride is a:
A. 5 alpha reductase inhibitor
B. PDE inhibitor
C. Alpha la blocker
D. Androgen receptor blocker
Answer: A
8. A sensitivity 47-year-old woman presents with complaints of nervousness and increased to hot weather. She is diagnosed with hyperthyroidism and prescribed propylthiouracil. What is the principal mechanism by which this drug acts?
A. Decreasing the efficacy of TSH binding to the thyroid TSH receptor
B. Decreasing the rate of proteolysis of thyroglobulin
C. Increasing the amount of 3,3′,5′-triiodothyronine (reverse T3; rT3)
D. Inhibiting deiodination of thyroxine (T4)
Answer: D
9. Spironolactone should NOT be given with the following pharmacological agent:
A. Chlorothiazide
B. b-blocker
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Amlodipine
Answer: C
10. Maximum plasma protein bound drug is ?
A. NTG
B. Verapamil
C. Aspirin
D. GTN
Answer: B
11. CYP3A inhibitors is/are
A. Ritonavir
B. Amiodarone
C. Verapamil
D. a and c
Answer: D
12. In the metabolism of alcohol, high doses of aspirin & phenytoin, mechanism is ?
A. First pass kinetics
B. First order kinetics
C. Zero order kinetics
D. Second order kinetics
Answer: C
13. Type B adverse drug reaction
A. Augmented effect of drug
B. Unpredictable Bizzare reaction
C. Effect seen on chronic use of drug
D. Delayed effect of drug
Answer: B
14. Urinary bladder spasmolytic having local anaesthetic property
a) Tamsulosin
B. Terazosin
C. Oxybutynin
D. Yohimbine
Answer: C
15. Dopamine all of the following is true Except?
A. Causes increase in GI Isehemia
B. Positive ionotropic
C. Improves renal perfusion
D. Causes Vasoconstriction
Answer: A
16. All are alpha-blocker except?
A. Atenolol
B. Prazosin
C. Indoramine
D. Idazoxan
Answer: A
17. The side effects of digitalis are all except ?
A. Ventricular tachycardia
B. Vasodilatation
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Ventricular Bigemini
Answer: B
18. Which of the following potassium sparing diuretic alters cardiac mortality
A. Spironolactone
B. Amiloride
C. Triamterene
D. Epleronone
Answer: A
19. Anti androgen used in heart failure ?
A. Carvedilol
B. Sampatrilat
C. Spironolactone
D. Abiraterone
Answer: C
20. Iodine content in amiodarone
A. 10 – 20%
B. 20 – 40%
C. 40 – 60%
D. 60 – 80%
Answer: B
21. Which is true about calcium channel blockers
A. Verapamil causes reflex tachycardia
B. Diltiazam causes reflex tachycardia
C. Nifedipine causes reflex tachycardia
D. Nifedipine has longer t1/2 than felodipine
Answer: C
22. Centrally acting antihypertensive drug is ?
A. Phenoxybenzamine
B. Methy ldopa
C. Propanolol
D. Prazosin
Answer: B
23. Wrong about clonidine is
A. Alpha 2 receptor agonist
B. First line for AMID
C. Sudden withdrawal causes rebound hypertension
D. Controls loose motions due to diabetic neuropathy
Answer: B
24. Which of the following causes increased rennin on prolonged use ?
A. Clonidine
B. Enalapril
C. Methyldopa
D. Blocker
Answer: B
25. Side effect of thiazide diuretics are all except ?
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Erectile dysfunction
D. Hypocalcemia
Answer: A
26. Desmopressin is preferred over vasopressin because desmopressin
A. More potent
B. More selective for Vireceptor
C. Has little vasoconstrictor activity
D. a and c
Answer: D
27. In diabetes insipidus, diuretic showing paradoxical antiduretic activity
A. Thiazide
B. Triamterene
C. Spironolactone
D. Furosemide
Answer: A
28. True regarding Conivaptan is
A. Vasopressin Antagonist
B. V2 selective action
C. Given orally
D. All
Answer: A
29. 5 HT 1 agonists used as ?
A. Anti anxiety drugs
B. Antipsychotic drugs
C. GERD
D. Chemotherapy induced vomiting
Answer: A
30. PGE2 cause all except
A. Water retention
B. Uterine contraction
C. Flushing
D. None
Answer: A
31. All are the following are the functions of PGEl except
A. Erectile dysfunction
B. Erectile dysfunction
C. Induction of puberty
D. PDA
Answer: C
32. Dinoprost is
A. PG El
B. PGE2
C. PGF2 alpha
D. PGI2
Answer: C
33. Which enzyme is irreversibly inhibited by aspirin?
A. Lipooxygenase
B. Cyclooxygenase
C. Thromboxane synthase
D. Phospholipase
Answer: B
34. Which drug doesn’t include DMARD:
A. Chloroquine
B. Vincristine
C. Azathioprine
D. Leflunomide
Answer: B
35. Which of the following drugs is useful in acute attack of gout ?
A. Furosemide
B. Sulfinpyrazone
C. Allopurinol
D. Piroxicam
Answer: D
36. Efficacy of salmeterol is increased if it is given along with
A. Theophylline
B. Corticosteroid
C. Ipratropium
D. Sodium cromoglycate
Answer: B
37. Which is an intermediate acting insulin?
A. Insulin lispro
B. Regular insuin
C. NPH insulin
D. Insulin glargine
Answer: C
38. HbA1C is decreased most by?
A. Biguanides
B. Sulfonylureas
C. Thiazolidinediones
D. Acarbosc
Answer: B
39. Which antidiabetic drug is used both for type I & II DM
A. Sulphonylureas
B. Metformin
C. Acarbose
D. Pramlintide
Answer: D
40. Least glucocorticoid action is seen with ?
A. Fludrocortisone
B. Cortisone
C. Dexamethasone
D. Betamethasone
Answer: B
41. Steroid ingested for long time leads to all of the following except
A. Avascular necrosis of head of femur
B. Cataract
C. Glaucoma
D. Growth retardation
Answer: C
42. Which of the following is a synthetic estrogen ?
A. Estrone
B. Estriol
C. Estradiol
D. Diethylstibestrol
Answer: D
43. Which of the following is an aromatase inhibitor?
A. Tamoxifen
B. Letrozole
C. Danazol
D. Taxane
Answer: B
44. Which of the following is a selective progesterone receptor modulator
A. Onapristone
B. Ulipristal
C. Nomegestrol
D. Toremifene
Answer: B
45. Side effect of oxytocin is all except ?
A. Placental abruption
B. Fetal distress
C. Peripheral vascular disease
D. Water intoxication
Answer: C
46. Short acting non delpolarizing blocker ?
A. Rocurorium
B. Suxamethonium
C. Mivacurium
D. Pancuronium
Answer: C
47. Drug of choice in lignocaine toxicity
A. Bretylium
B. Amiodarone
C. Isoprenaline
D. Diazepan
Answer: D
48. Cardiotoxicity of bupivacaine
A. Depressed pacemaker activity
B. Toxic compound damaging myocardial cells
C. Depressed neural control on heart
D. Vascular thrombosis and Myocardial ischemia
Answer: A
49. Local anaesthetic injected directly into the tissue ?
A. Infiltration anaesthesia
B. Nerve block
C. Field block
D. Bier’s block
Answer: A
50. Which one of the following agents sensitizes the myocardium to catecholamines
A. Isoflurane
B. Ether
C. Halothane
D. Propofol
Answer: C
51. Trilene when used with Sodalime causes ?
A. Renal damage
B. ARDS
C. Myocardial depression
D. Hepatitis
Answer: B
52. Dissociative anaesthesia is produced by
A. Ketamine
B. Etomidate
C. Propofol
D. Thiopentone
Answer: A
53. The drug for OPD analgesia is
A. Morphine
B. Pethidine
C. Fentanyl
D. Alfentanil
Answer: D
54. Inducing agent of choice in shock ?
A. Isoflurane
B. Desflurane
C. Ketamine
D. Thiopentone
Answer: C
55. Fosphenytoin different from phenytoin in which of the following
a) Can be used in absence seizures
B. Can be mixed with saline
C. Can be given orally
D. It is the drug of choice for myoclonic seizures
Answer: B
56. Toxic dose of lithium
A. 0.6
B. 12
C. 2.6
D. <0.6
Answer: C
57. Lithium causes all except
A. Polyuria
B. Nephropathy
C. Ebstein’s anomaly
D. Hyperthyroidism
Answer: D
58. Which of the following is a selective serotonin & nor epinephrine reuptake inhibitor ?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Venlafaxine
C. Sertaline
D. Arnoxipine
Answer: B
59. All of the following are CNS stimulants except?
A. Amphetamines
B. Benzodiazepines
C. Cocaine
D. Methylphenidate
Answer: B
60. All of the following have interaction with warfarin except
A. Barbiturate
B. Oral contraceptive
C. Cephalosporins
D. Benzodiazepens
Answer: D
61. Which prevents plasminogen activators?
A. Streptokinase
B. Aminocaproic acid
C. Reteplase
D. Clopidogrel
Answer: B
62. Clopidogrel mechanism of action
A. Thromboxane A2 inhibition
B. Inhibit ADP mediated cAMP activation
C. GP IIb/Ina inhibitors
D. None
Answer: B
63. Most potent statin
A. Simvastatin
B. Pravastatin
C. Rosuvastatin
D. Simvastatin
Answer: C
64. Antilipidemic drugs that prevent hypercholesterolemia by inhibiting absorption
A. Ezetimibe
B. Orlistat
C. Cholestyramine
D. Statins
Answer: A
65. Which is not a S/E of Cimetidine ?
A. Impotence
B. Gynaecomastia
C. Atrophic gastritis
D. Galactorrhea
Answer: C
66. The commonest side-effect of Cisapride is
A. Abdominal cramps
B. Diarrhea
C. Headache
D. Convulsions
Answer: B
67. Drug inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis are all except
A. Aminoglycosides
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Clindamycin
D. Sulfonamides
Answer: D
68. Multiple drug resistance is transferred through
A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Conjugation
D. Mutation
Answer: C
69. Longest acting sulphonamide is
A. Sulfadiazine
B. Sulphadoxine
C. Sulfamethoxazole
D. Sulfamethiazole
Answer: B
70. Sulphonamide injection causes decrease in folic acid by?
A. Competitive inhibition
B. Non competitive inhibition
C. Uncompetitive inhibition
D. Allosteric inhibition
Answer: A
71. All are true about ciprofloxacin except ?
A. C/I in pregnancy
B. DNA inhibition
C. Most potent 1st generation fluoroquinolone
D. More active at acidic pH
Answer: D
72. Which of the following is not mechanism for resistance to MRSA
A. Resistance is chromosomally mediated
B. Produced mainly by alteration in PBPs
C. MRSA resistance is absolutely beta-lactamase independent
D. Intrinsic resistance is known
Answer: C
73. Bleeding is seen with the use of
A. Cefaloridine
B. Cefazolin
C. Moxalactum
D. Ceftazidime
Answer: C
74. Widest spectrum aminoglycoside is
A. Streptomycin
B. Amikacin
C. Framycetin
D. Netilmicin
Answer: B
75. Red man syndrome is due to
A. Vancomycin
B. Polymyxin
C. Rifampicin
D. Teicoplanin
Answer: A
76. Not true about clofazamine ?
A. Used in DLE
B. Causes ichthyosis and hyperpigmentation
C. Interferes DNA synthesis
D. Used in lepra reaction
Answer: A
77. Drug used in hepatitis B infection is
A. Entecavir
B. Astacavir
C. Zanamivir
D. Abacavir
Answer: A
78. Which of the following antimalarial is a slow acting schizonticide
a) Artemether
B. Mefloquine
C. Pyrimethamine
D. Quinine
Answer: C
79. Which of the following is not used as treatment for lymphatic filariasis
A. Ivermectin
B. DEC
C. Praziquantel
D. Albendazole
Answer: C
80. Drug that can cause hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is?
A. Tertacyclin
B. Erythromycin
C. Ampicillin
D. Rifampicin
Answer: B
81. Resistance to Methotrexate develops due to?
A. Rapid Cancer cell multiplication
B. Deficiency of thymidylate kinase
C. Deficiency of thymidylate synthetase
D. Increased production of dihydrofolate reductase
Answer: D
82. Which one of the following statements is false regarding vincristine
A. It is an alkaloid
B. Its use is associated with neurotoxicity
C. It does not cause alopecia
D. It is a useful drug for induction of remission in acute
lymphoblastic leukaemia
Answer: C
83. About vinca alkaloids true is ?
A. Inhibits mitotic spindle
B. Enhances polymerization of tubulin
C. Inhibits topoisomerase I
D. Inhibits topoisomerase II
Answer: A
84. All are true regarding Sunitinib except
A. It inhibits tyrosine kinase receptors
B. It is used for renal cell carcinoma
C. It is used for the treatment of GIST
D. It is excreted primarily in urine
Answer: D
85. Which of the following Anti neoplastic drugs SHOULD NOT be given by rapid IV infusion?
A. Cyclophosphamide
B. Cisplatin
C. Bleomycin
D. Cytosine arabinoside
Answer: B
86. Mode of action of azathioprine ?
A. ↑ IL-2
B. T-cell blockade
C. Decreased lymphophagocytic activity
D. Wide-spread antitumor activity
Answer: B
87. Intracranial pressure may be increased by all of the following drugs except
A. Hypervitaminosis
B. Corticosteroids
C. Quinolones
D. Aminoglycosides
Answer: D
88. Which of the following drug causes hirsutism?
A. Phenytoin
B. Valproate
C. Carbamazepine
D. Phenobarbitone
Answer: A
89. Extrapyramidal syndrome like side effects are seen in
A. Haloperidol
B. Clozapine
C. Tetracycline
D. Ketoconazole
Answer: A
90. Which of the following drugs is associated with untoward side effect of renal tubular damage
A. Cisplatin
B. Streptozotocin
C. Methysergide
D. Cyclophosphamide
Answer: A
91. All of the following are known adverse effects of thalidomide, except:
A. Diarrhoea
B. Teratogenicity
C. DVT
D. Neuropathy
Answer: A
92. First order kinetics is:
A. Absorption of the drug is independent of the serum concentration
B. Elimination of the drug is independent of the serum concentration.
C. Elimination of the drug is proportional to the serum concentration
D. Absorption of the drug is proportional to the serum concentration
Answer: C
93. Which of the following drug is not given in acute mania:
A. Lithium
B. Lamotrigine
C. Valproate
D. Olanzapine
Answer: B
94. Statin having longest half life:
A. Rosuvastatin
B. Pravastatin
C. Simvastatin
D. Lovastatin
Answer: A
95. Low molecular weight heparin mainly inhibits which factor:
A. Factor Ilia
B. Factor VIIIa
C. Factor Xa
D. Factor XIIa
Answer: C
96. Drug of choice for plasmodium vivax is:
A. Mefloquine
B. Chloroquine
C. Artesunate
D. Quinine
Answer: B
97. Which of the following is teratogenic:
A. Folate
B. Cyanocobalamin
C. Vitamin A
D. Vitamin C
Answer: C
98. Half life of albumin is:
A. 5 days
B. 10 days
C. 20 days
D. 40 days
Answer: C
99. Which of the following is an ionic channel ?
A. α -1 receptors
B. β – 1 receptors
C. Nicotinic cholinergic receptors
D. Muscarinic cholinergic receptors
Answer: C
100. Dose-response curve in Hormesis ?
A. Straight line
B. Sigmoid
C. Inverted U or J shaped
D. Hyperbola
Answer: C
101. Most effective agent to prevent motion sickness is?
A. Ephedrine
B. Nedocromil
C. Cyproheptadine
D. Hyoscine
Answer: D
102. Agent used for treatment of heparin induced thrombocytopenia ?
A. Lepirudin
B. Abciximab
C. Warfarin
D. Alteplase
Answer: A
103. Most commonly used cholinesterase regenerator at NM junction is ?
A. Pralidoxime
B. Obidxime
C. Diacetyl monoxime
D. Edrophonium
Answer: A
104. Maximum sterilising action is shown by which anti TB drug ?
A. Rifampicin
B. INH
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Streptomycin
Answer: A
105. Cyclic peptide chain is present in ?
A. Gramicidin A
B. Gramicidin B
C. Gramicidin D
D. Gramicidin S
Answer: D
106. Neuropsychiatry symptoms are seen with which anti TB drug ?
A. INH
B. Rifampicin
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Streptomycin
Answer: A
107. Maintenance dose is calculated by using value of?
A. Clearance
B. Volume of distribution
C. Oral bioavailability
D. Daily dosage
Answer: A
108. Anticancer drug with disulfuram like action
A. Procarbazine
B. Nitrosurea
C. 5 FU
D. Methotrexate
Answer: A
109. CB 1 antagonist used in smoking cessation is ?
A. Naloxona
B. Rimonabant
C. Vareniloline
D. Bupripion
Answer: B
110. IV diazepam has which of the following effect which is not seen by other routes ?
A. Analgesia
B. Sedation
C. Hypotension
D. Coronary dilatation
Answer: D
111. Bromocriptine is used in following clinical situations except ?
A. Type II DM
B. Hepatic Coma
C. Cyclical mastalgia
D. Hyperprolactinemia
Answer: D
112. Following is true about GnRH agonists except ?
A. Used in cases of precocious puberty
B. They have action similar to gonadotropin releasing hormone
C. Long acting preparations can be used as nasal spray
D. Ganirelix is the most potent agent
Answer: D
113. Female on carbimazole therapy presents with sudden fever, rigors and sore throat. Which is the investigation of choice for this patient?
A. Check blood counts
B. Check C reactive protein
C. Take throat Swab
D. Treat for malaria
Answer: A
114. Selective beta 2 blocker is ?
A. Butoxamine
B. Betoxolol
C. Esmolol
D. Bisoprolol
Answer: A
115. Beta blocker with membrane stabilizing property are all except ?
A. Acebutolol
B. Betaxolol
C. Carvedilol
D. Bevantolol
Answer: D
116. Longest acting beta blokeris ?
A. Nodalol
B. Esmolol
C. Carvedilol
D. Acebnolol
Answer: A
117. Bevacizumab is used in ?
A. Carcinoma colon
B. Liver carcinoma
C. Renal cell carcinoma
D. Pancreatic carcinoma
Answer: A
118. Cabergoline is used in
A. Acromegaly
B. Hyper prolactinoma
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
Answer: C
119. Flu like symptoms is side effect of which anti TB drug ?
A. NH
B. Rifampicin
C. Pyrzinamide
D. Streptomycin
Answer: B
120. Which of the following SSRI is a prodrug?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Paroxetine
C. Citalopram
D. Fluvoxamine
Answer: A
121. Tamoxifen ?
A. SSRI
B. SERM
C. SNRI
D. DNRI
Answer: B
122. Letrozole belongs to which group?
A. SERM
B. SERD
C. LHRH analogues
D. Aromatse inhibitors
Answer: D
123. TADALAFIL false is ?
A. It is longest acting phosphodiesterase inhibitor
B. It cannot be used for the treatment of PAH
C. It is used in erectile dysfunction
D. Its half life is 17-5 hours
Answer: B
124. Amphetamine causes which of the following ?
A. IUGR
B. Cardiac anamoly
C. Cleft lip
D. All the above
Answer: D
125. Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in liver dysfunction?
A. Pefloxacin
B. Vancomycin
C. Amikacin
D. Hydralazine
Answer: A
126. Bevacizumab is ?
A. Anti VEGF antibody
B. Histone decyclase inhibitor
C. Proteasome inhibitor
D. Her2 neu inhibitor
Answer: A
127. Irreversible hearing loss caused by ?
A. Gentamycin
B. Clarithromycin
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Answer: A
128. Mechanism of action of colchicine is ?
A. Inhibits gouty inflammation
B. Inhbits the release of chemotactic factors
C. Inhibits granulocyte migration
D. All the above
Answer: D
129. Drug used in treatment of migraine ?
A. 5HT1 agonist
B. 5HT1 antagonist
C. Dl agonist
D. D1 antagonist
Answer: A
130. Drug of choice for MRSA infection ?
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Oxacillin
C. Vancomycin
D. Clindamycin
Answer: C
131. Hypolipidemic drugs act on all except ?
A. HMG Co A reductase
B. Lipoprotein lipase
C. Acyl CoA, cholesterol acyl transferase 1
D. Peripheral decarboxylase
Answer: D
132. Following are the side effects of fenfluramine except ?
A. Pulmonary hypertension
B. Valvular defects
C. Sudden deaths
D. Dizziness
Answer: D
133. Cholinergic drug which acts on heart by decrease in levels of cAMP and due to opening of K+ channels is?
A. Methacholine
B. Oxotremorine
C. Bethanechol
D. DMPP
Answer: A
134. Pramlintide is ?
A. Synthetic amylin analogue
B. Inhibitor of DPP 4
C. GLP 1 analogue
D. PPAR gamma
Answer: A
135. Mannitol is not useful for ?
A. Glaucoma
B. Raised ICT
C. Impending renal failure
D. Pulmonary edema
Answer: D
136. Which anti TB drug is avoided in HIV patient ?
A. INH
B. Rifampicin
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Streptomycin
Answer: B
137. Vit K is available as all except ?
A. Menoquinone
B. Menadione
C. Phytonadione
D. Phyto quinone
Answer: D
138. Which of the following anticancer drugs are competitive inhibitors of tyrosine kinase ?
A. Imatinib and sunitinib
B. Letrozole
C. Bicalutamide
D. Fulvestrant
Answer: A
139. Thalidomide is used in ?
A. Mutilple myeloma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Basal cell carcinoma
D. Masopharyngeal carcinoma
Answer: A
140. Which drug prevent peripheral conversion of T4 to T3
A. Propylthiouracil
B. Propranolol
C. Iodides
D. a and b both
Answer: D
141. Daclizumab acts through ?
A. cGMP activation
B. Adenyl cyclase inhibition
C. IL 2 receptor blocker
D. IL10 receptor blocker
Answer: C
142. 1, 25 dihydrocholecalciferol acts on ?
A. Surface receptors
B. Cytosolic receptors
C. Intranuclear receptors
D. None of the above
Answer: C
143. Following is false about aripiprazole except ?
A. Only antipsychotic with D1 agonistic activity
B. It has 5HT1A antagonistic action
C. It has maximum sedating potential
D. It is the drug of choice in treatment of acute mania
Answer: D
144. Mechanism of action of actinomycin D is ?
A. Inhibits DNA dependent RNA synthesis
B. Activates DNA dependent RNA synthesis
C. Inhibits RNA dependent DNA synthesis
D. Activates RNA dependent DNA synthesis
Answer: A
145. Neostigmine is used in the following except ?
A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Cobra bite
C. Atony of bladder
D. Glaucoma
Answer: D
146. Xenobiotics are metabolized to ?
A. Increase water solubility
B. Increase lipid solubility
C. Make them nonpolar
D. None of the above
Answer: A
147. Dose of centchroman is ?
A. 30 mg
B. 60 mg
C. 120 mg
D. 240 mg
Answer: A
148. Pharmacoviglance is used for ?
A. To monitor drug toxicity
B. To monitor unauthorized drug manufacture
C. Monitoring of students
D. Check costs
Answer: A
149. Branch that deals with medicinal drugs obtained from plants and other natural resources
A. Pharmacognosy
B. Pharmacogenetics
C. Pharmacogenomics
D. Pharmacopia
Answer: A
150. Drugs causing peptic ulcer are all except ?
A. Clopidogrel
B. NSAID
C. Mycophenolate mofetil
D. Propylthiouracil
Answer: D
151. Which is the antidepressant with no anticholinergic effects?
A. Imipramine
B. Mianserine
C. Fluoxamine
D. Amitryptiline
Answer: C
152. Inverse agonist of benzodiazepine receptor is
A. Phenobarbitone
B. Flumazenil
C. Beta carboline
D. Gabapentin
Answer: C
153. Dantrolene acts on ?
A. Raynodine receptor
B. Cannabinoid receptor
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Answer: A
154. Colistin is obtained from ?
A. Bacteria
B. Fungi
C. Actinmycetes
D. Herbs
Answer: A
155. Drug not acting on P2y12 receptor is ?
A. Ticlopidine
B. Clopidrogel
C. Dipyridamole
D. Prasugrel
Answer: C
156. All release histamine except ?
A. Pancuronium
B. D- TC
C. Succinylcholine
D. Mivacurium
Answer: A
157. False regarding Cytochrome P 450 is ?
A. They are essential for the production of cholesterols, steroids, prostacyclins and thromboxane A2
B. They absorb light with 45nm wavelength
C. They occur predominantly in liver
D. They are non heme proteins
Answer: D
158. Omalizumab is ?
A. Anti IgM antibody
B. AntilgG antibody
C. Anti IgE antibody
D. Anti IgD antibody
Answer: C
159. Nicotinic acid ?
A. Increases HDL
B. Increased triglyceride synthesis
C. Type II hyperlipoproteinemia
D. Decreased hydrolysis of VLDL
Answer: A
160. HIV integrase inhibitor is ?
A. Elvitegravir
B. Abacavir
C. Maraviroc
D. Tenofovir
Answer: A
161. Platelet adhesion is inhibited by ?
A. Nitric oxide
B. Substance P
C. Thrombin
D. IL 2
Answer: A
162. Which of the following is the longest acting oral anticoagulant ?
A. Bishydroxycoumarin
B. Warfarin
C. Acenocoumarol
D. Phenindione
Answer: A
163. Function of M2 receptor in heart ?
A. SA node hyperpolarisation
B. AV node increased velocity of conduction
C. Increased contractility of ventricles
D. Increased Ach release from cholinergic nerve endings
Answer: A
164. Methysergide is banned as it causes ?
A. Pulmonary fibrosis
B. Pleural effusion
C. Syncope
D. Myocarditis
Answer: A
165. Dopamine at 1-2 Microgram/ Kg/ min produces?
A. Renal vasodilatation
B. Positive ionotropic effect
C. Mesenteric vasoconstriction
D. Generalised vasoconstriction
Answer: A
166. Which of the following is a univalent direct thrombin inhibitor?
A. Argatroban
B. Hirudin
C. Bivalirudin
D. Lepirudin
Answer: A
167. Treatment agent for scarlet fever is
A. Penicillin
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Erythromycin
D. Chloramphenicol
Answer: A
168. Atomoxetine is used for ?
A. Nocturnal enuresis
B. ADHD
C. Temper tantrums
D. Patent ductus arteriosus
Answer: B
169. Which of the following can prolong QT interval?
A. Nalidixic acid
B. Ofloxacin
C. Gatifloxacin
D. Pefloxacin
Answer: C
170. Streptokinase causes increase in ?
A. Plasmin
B. Thrombin
C. Kallikrein
D. Angiotensin II
Answer: A
171. Beta blocker with d isomer responsible for beta blocker action is ?
A. Nebivolol
B. Timolol
C. Esmolol
D. Propranolol
Answer: A
172. Tocilizumab is antibody against ?
A. IL 2
B. IL 4
C. IL 6
D. IL 8
Answer: C
173. Fomepizole acts as antidote for ?
A. Methanol poisoning
B. Cannabis poisoning
C. Lead poisoning
D. Cadmium Poisoning
Answer: A
174. About rectal route true is ?
A. Used for irritant and unpleasant drugs
B. Cannot be used in unconscious patient
C. There is predictable absorption of drug
D. Diazepam cannot be given via rectal route of administration
Answer: A
175. Transdermal patch is not used for following drug?
A. GTN
B. Fentanyl
C. Nicotine
D. Naloxone
Answer: D
176. Buprenorphine partial agonist at which opioid receptor?
A. Mu
B. Kappa
C. Delta
D. Lambda
Answer: A
177. Treatment for impetigo ?
A. Dicloxacillin
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Gentamycin
D. Amoxicillin and clavulanic acid
Answer: A
178. Following are the side effects of thiazides except?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hepatic coma
D. Impotence
Answer: B
179. Weight gain is seen with all of the following antipsychiatric medications except ?
A. Quetiapine
B. Risperidone
C. Clozapine
D. Molindone
Answer: D
180. Loading dose depends on ?
A. Volume of distribution
B. Elimination rate
C. Half life
D. Plasma volume
Answer: A
181. Which of the following drugs has both antihelminth and antiprotozoal activity ?
A. Nitazoxanide
B. Emetine
C. Chloroquine
D. Diloxanide furoate
Answer: A
182. Reason for hepatic involvement in oral contraceptives is ?
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Estrogen +Progesterone
D. Mixed trace elements
Answer: A
183. A = ACE inhibitor, B = beta blocker, C = calcium channel blocker, D= diuretics. For elderly with hypertension antihypertensive drug of choice is ?
A. A or D
B. A or B
C. A or C
D. C or D
Answer: D
184. Which drug is used in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?
A. Riluzole
B. Glatirame
C. Tacrine
D. Olanzapine
Answer: A
185. Rotigotine is ?
A. Dopamine agonist
B. Dopamine antagonist
C. GABA agonist
D. GABA antagonist
Answer: A
186. Counterfeit drug is ?
A. Fake medicine
B. Contains the wrong ingredient
C. They have active ingredient in wrong dose
D. All the above
Answer: D
187. Most common receptor for typical antipsychotics is ?
A. D1
B. D2
C. D3
D. D4
Answer: B
188. Incretin like function is seen in ?
A. Exenatide
B. Miglital
C. Poiglitazone
D. Repaglinide
Answer: A
189. Patient on treatment on carbidopa + levodopa for 10 yrs now has weaning off effect. What should be added to restore
action ?
A. Tolcapone
B. Amantadine
C. Rasagiline
D. Benzhexol
Answer: A
190. Which of these is not used for the treatment of typhoid ?
A. Chloramphenicol
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Ceftriaxone
D. Cefixime
Answer: D
191. LT antagonists are used in asthma for ?
A. Along with beta agonists to reduce steroids
B. In place of beta blockers as sole therapy
C. Prophylactic therapy for mild to moderate asthma
D. Definitive therapy in acute attack of asthma
Answer: C
192. Which is a long acting insulin?
A. Lispro
B. Aspart
C. Glargine
D. Glulicine
Answer: C
193. Steroid with max mineralocorticoid activity ?
A. Fludrocortisone
B. DOCA
C. Prednisolone
D. Triamsinolone
Answer: A
194. Young child weighing 20 kg was given a drug in the dose 100mg/kg body weight. The plasma concentration of the drug is 2mg/ dl and the clearance is 200 ml/hr. What is the time required to reach steady state plasma concentration
A. 10 hrs
B. 20hrs
C. 30hrs
D. 40hrs
Answer: B
195. Patient on verapamil should not be given beta blocker as ?
A. Conduction block
B. Bronchospasm
C. Neurogenic shock
D. Anaphylaxis
Answer: A
196. Drug that decreases LpA in blood ?
A. Statin
B. Nicotinic acid
C. Ezetimibe
D. CETP inhibitors
Answer: B
197. Glucuronidation takes place in ?
A. Liver
B. RBC
C. Pancreas
D. Thyroid
Answer: A
198. Digitalis produces which of the following changes in ECG ?
A. Tall T waves
B. ST segment elevation
C. Prolonged QT interval
D. Prolonged PR interval
Answer: D
199. Antifungal which can be used orally but not iv is?
A. Voriconazole
B. Amphoterecin B
C. Terbinafine
D. None of the above
Answer: C
200. Mechanism of action tacrolimus is ?
A. Inhibition of calcineurin
B. Antimetabolite
C. mTOR inhibitor
D. Inhibition of DNA synthesis
Answer: A
201. Long acting corticosteroid is ?
A. Triamcinolone
B. Betamethasone
C. Hydrocortisone
D. Prednisolone
Answer: B
202. Plasma protein bound drug distributed in which compartment ?
A. Extracellular
B. Intravascular
C. Interstitial
D. Extravascular
Answer: B
203. Adrenocortical suppression causing drugs are all except ?
A. Prednisone
B. Ketoconazole
C. Mitotane
D. Spironolactone
Answer: D
204. Following are the advantages of sustained release preparation over the conventional preparations except ?
A. Decreased frequency of administration
B. Improved compliance
C. Less incidence of high peak side effects
D. Drugs with half life > 4 hours are suitable
Answer: D
205. Which antiepileptic drug is least secreted in breast milk ?
A. Ethosuximide
B. Clonazepam
C. Gabapentin
D. Carbamazepine
Answer: B
206. Drug which decreases efficacy of testosterone
A. Isoniazid
B. Ketoconazole
C. Rifampicin
D. None
Answer: B
207. Fluoroquinolone with minimum bioavailability ?
A. Levofloxacin
B. Moxifloxacin
C. Norfloxacin
D. Ciprofloxacin
Answer: C
208. Danazol has which of the following actions ?
A. Weak androgenic
B. Progestational
C. Anabolic
D. All the above
Answer: D
209. Agonist antagonist combination acting on the same receptor is ?
A. Isoprenaline and propranolol
B. Adrenaline and histamine
C. Salbutamol and leukotriene
D. Estrogen and tamoxifen
Answer: A
210. Not a drug recommended for P. falciparum is ?
A. Quinine
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Artemether
D. Doxycycline
Answer: B
211. Following is true about iron dextran except ?
A. It is parenteral iron preparation
B. It can be given either iv or im
C. It binds to transferrin
D. It is not excreted
Answer: C
212. Compared to high molecular weight heparin following is true about low molecular weight heparin ?
A. Monitoring is not needed for low molecular weight heparin
B. Daily two subcutaneous doses are essential
C. They are easily filtered at the glomerulus
D. They do not interact with plasma proteins
Answer: B
213. Most variable absorption is seen with which route?
A. Oral
B. Intramscular
C. Intravenous
D. Per rectal
Answer: A
214. Cephalosporin causing thrombocytopenia is ?
A. Cefixime
B. Ceftazidime
C. Cefoperazone
D. Cefdinir
Answer: B
215. Varenicline acts by ?
A. Partial nicotine receptor agonist
B. Nicotine receptor antagonist
C. Both agonist and antagonist at nicotine receptor
D. None of the above
Answer: A
216. Anti-inflammatory dose of aspirin ?
A. 500 mg/d
B. 1 – 2 g/d
C. 3 – 6 g/d
D. 6 – 12 g/d
Answer: C
217. Which of the following drug substrate combinations do not match ?
A. CYP 3A4/5 – simvastatin
B. CYP 2D6 – SSRI
C. CYP 2C8/9 – mifepristone
D. CYP 2C19 – propranolol
Answer: C
218. Drugs which potentiate effect of NMDA at NMDA receptors are all except ?
A. Ketamine
B. Aspartic acid
C. D alanine
D. Homocysteic acid
Answer: A
219. Most common renal sequel of lithium toxicity is ?
A. Nephrogenic DM
B. Renal tubular acidosis
C. Glycosuria
D. MPGN
Answer: A
220. Mechanism of action of timolol is ?
A. Nonselective beta blocker
B. Nonselective alpha blocker
C. Selective beta 1 blocker
D. Selective beta 2 blocker
Answer: A
221. Mechanism of action of levosimenden is ?
A. Inoconstrictor
B. Potassium channel opener
C. Sodium channel opener
D. Beta blocker
Answer: B
222. Which of the following is not an anti histaminic drug of the ethanolamine group?
A. Clemastine
B. Diphenhydramine
C. Dimenhydrinate
D. Chlorpheniramine
Answer: D
223. All of the following can precipitate porphyria except ?
A. Steroids
B. Griesiofulvin
C. Penicillin
D. Estrogen
Answer: C
224. A drug having 40% absorption and hepatic extraction ratio of 0.6. What is the bioavailability of that drug?
A. 16%
B. 24%
C. 20%
D. 28%
Answer: A
225. XDR TB is resistance to ?
A. Isoniazid
B. Isoniazid + Rifampicin
C. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Ethambutol
D. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Kanamycin
Answer: D
226. Most serious side effect of valproate is
A. Fulminant hepatits
B. Spina bifida
C. Weight gain
D. Thrombocytopenia
Answer: A
227. Hydroxyurea mechanism of action in cancer is by inhibiting the enzyme ?
A. Ribonucleotide diphosphate reductase
B. Ribonucleotide oxidase
C. DNA lyase
D. DNA synthetase
Answer: A
228. Nitrosoureas used in the treatment of cancer are?
A. Carmustine
B. 5FU
C. Methotrexate
D. Cisplatin
Answer: A
229. Gemcitabine is used mainly in which cancer ?
A. Colorectal
B. Breast
C. Pancreatic
D. Cranipharyngioma
Answer: C
230. Oxcarbazepine true is all except ?
A. Metabolises itself
B. Less chances of hyponatremia than carbazepine
C. It is less enzyme inducer than carbamazepine
D. Less chances of hepatotoxicity than carbamazepine
Answer: B
231. Heparin activates following factors except ?
A. IIa
B. VIIa
C. IXa
D. Xa
Answer: B
232. Maximum liver toxicity is seen with which anti -TB drug?
A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampicin
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Streptomycin
Answer: C
233. Fastest acting antithyroid drugs ?
A. Iodides of Na/ K
B. Propylthiuracil
C. Methimazole
D. Nitrates
Answer: A
234. Natalizumab is used in treatment of ?
A. Muliple sclerosis
B. Breast carcinoma
C. Psoriasis
D. B cell lymphoma
Answer: A
235. Special feature of glargine insulin is ?
A. It produces a smooth peakless effect
B. It is not suitable for once daily administration
C. It remains souble at pH 7
D. It can control meal time hyperglycemia
Answer: A
236. Mechanism of action Trilostane ?
A. 11 beta hydroxylase inhibitor
B. 1 alpha hydroxylase inhibitor
C. 3 betahydroxysteroiddehydrgenase inhibitor
D. 7 alpha hydrolase inhibitor
Answer: C
237. Treatment of choice for cheese reaction ?
A. Prazocin
B. Pentazocin
C. Phentolamine
D. Phenoxybenzamine
Answer: C
238. Why quinine is unsafe in pregnancy?
A. It causes hemolysis
B. It causes hypokalemia
C. It causes hyponatremia
D. It causes smooth muscle contraction
Answer: A
239. Anti HIV drug used for prevention of vertical transmission ?
A. Nevirapine
B. Lamivudine
C. Efavirez
D. Tenofovir
Answer: A
240. Which does not act by blocking NMDA receptors?
A. Methoxetamine
B. Methadone
C. Ketamine
D. Diltiazem
Answer: D
241. Essential drugs ?
A. Included in national pharmacopoeia
B. Should always be present at PHC
C. Those that satisfy the primary health care needs of the population
D. Life saving medications
Answer: C
242. Most common mitochondrial enzyme for metabolism detoxification reaction is ?
A. CYP 3A4
B. CYP 1A2
C. CYP 2A6
D. CYP 2B6
Answer: A
243. Nonselective beta adrenergic antagonist is
A. Nodalol
B. Atenolol
C. Bisoprolol
D. Esmolol
Answer: A
244. Insulin secretion increasing drug by acting on beta cells of pancreas is
A. Rapaglinide
B. Metformin
C. Poiglitazone
D. Acarbose
Answer: A
245. Antihypertensive which can not be given in pregnancy ?
A. Labetolol
B. Propranolol
C. Esmolol
D. Hydralazine
Answer: B
246. Beta blockers mask all effects of hypoglycaemia except ?
A. Sweating
B. Palpitations
C. Dizziness
D. Tremors
Answer: C
247. Latest oral direct thrombin inhibitor is?
A. Ximelagatran
B. Indraparinux
C. Dabigatran
D. Fondaparinux
Answer: C
248. Adverse effects of phenytoin include all of the following except?
A. Lymphadenopathy
B. Ataxia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hirsutism
Answer: C
249. Post marketing surveillance included in which phase of drug clinical trial?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
Answer: D
250. Which of the following is most active against slowly dividing tubercular bacilli ?
A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampicin
C. Streptomycin
D. Ethambutol
Answer: B
251. Drug contraindicated in G6PD deficiency?
A. Chloroquine
B. Primaquine
C. Quinine
D. Halofantrine
Answer: A:B:C
252. Cardiac conduction defect seen with Tricyclic anti depressants are due to ?
A. NE & serotonin uptake inhibitor
B. Antimuscarinic action on heart
C. Only NE uptake inhibition
D. Both NE uptake inhibition and antimuscarinic action on heart
Answer: D
253. At mu receptor, buphrenorphine is?
A. Partial agonist
B. Partial antagonist
C. Complete agonist
D. Complete antagonist
Answer: A
254. Remission with SSRI or TCA patient again having relapse. There may be deficiency of ?
A. Pyridoxine
B. Cobalamine
C. Ascorbate
D. Retinol
Answer: B
255. Side effect of salmeterol is ?
A. Tremor
B. Seizure
C. Hypertension
D. Hyperkalaemia
Answer: A
256. Parenteral direct thrombin inhibitor ?
A. Ximelagatran
B. Dabigatran
C. Argatroban
D. Heparin
Answer: C
257. Increased insulin secretion from beta cells is done by ?
A. Metformin
B. Pramlidine
C. Repaglinide
D. Pioglitazone
Answer: C
258. Verapamil is used in all, except ?
A. Angina pectoris
B. Atrial fibrillation
C. Ventricular tachycardia
D. None of the above
Answer: C
259. Plasma protein bound drug distributed in which compartment ?
A. Extracellular
B. Intravascular
C. Interstitial
D. Extravascular
Answer: B
260. Most effective agent to prevent motion sickness is?
A. Ephedrine
B. Nedocromil
C. Cyproheptidine
D. Hyoscine
Answer: D
