1. Post-transplantation hypertension can be caused by:I. Rejection. II. Cyclosporine nephrotoxicity.III. Renal transplant artery stenosis (RTAS).IV. Recurrent disease in the allograft.
A. I,II,III,IV are correct
B. I,II,IV are correct.
C. I & III are correct
D. None of the above is correct.
Answer: A
2. Most common cause of small intestine obstruction is?
A. Intussception
B. Idiopathic adhesions Tumors
C. Tumors
D. Postoperative adhesions
Answer: D
3. Best method to treat a large port-wine hemangioma is?
A. Radiotherapy
B. Tatooing
C. Excision with skin grafting
D. Pulsed dye Laser
Answer: D
4. Cock’s peculiar tumor is
A. Basal cell CA
B. Squamous cell CA
C. Ulcerated sebaceous cyst
D. Cylindroma
Answer: C
5. False about Gastric lymphoma is:
A. Stomach is the most common site
B. Asosciate with H. pylori infection
C. Total gastrectomy with adjuvant chemotherapy is the treatment of choice
D. 5 yr survival rate after treatment is 60%.
Answer: C
6. Which one of the following preservative is used while packing catgut suture?
A. Isopropyl alcohol
B. Colloidal iodine
C. Glutaraldehyde
D. Hydrogen peroxide
Answer: A
7. Primary hyperparathyroidism, phaeochromocytoma may be associated with which type of thyroid cancer?
A. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
B. Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid
C. Anaplastic carcinoma of the thyroid
D. Follicular carcinoma of the thyroid
Answer: A
8. The treatment of choice for squamous cell anal cancer?
A. Laser fulgaration
B. Chemoradiotherapy
C. Abdominoperennial resection
D. Platinum-based chemotherapy
Answer: B
9. Meconium ileus is associated with:
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Infant of diabetic mother
C. Hypothyroidism
D. None of the above
Answer: A
10. Commonest type of anal canal carcinoma is?
A. Squamous cell carcinoma
B. Adenocarcinoma
C. Adenoacanthoma
D. Papillary type
Answer: A
11. Which of the following nerve is commonly damaged during McBurney’s incision?
A. Subcostal nerve
B. 10th thoracic nerve
C. 11th thoracic nerve
D. Iliohypogastric nerve
Answer: D
12. Dysphagia lusoria is due to?
A. Esophageal diverticulum
B. Aneurysm of aorta
C. Esophageal web
D. Compression by aberrant blood vessel
Answer: D
13. All of the following are causes of hemobilia, EXCEPT:
A. Trauma to Abdomen
B. Malignancy
C. Rupture of hepatic artery aneurysm
D. Hepatitis
Answer: D
14. Linitis plastica is a type of :
A. Gastric ulcer
B. Ca stomach
C. Duodenal ulcer
D. None of the above
Answer: B
15. Surgery for undescended testis is recommended at what age?
A. 6 months
B. 12 months
C. 24 months
D. 36 months
Answer: A
16. AOnpatient who has fallen over a loose manhole cover is brought to the clinic. examination a perineal hematoma and blood in the external meatus is noted. Rupture of which of the following structure has resulted in perineal hematoma?
A. Rupture of membranous urethra
B. Rupture of bulbar urethra
C. Pelvic organ blunt trauma
D. Rupture of bladder
Answer: B
17. Commonest carcinoma that can cause splenic metastasis is which of the following?
A. Ca. Pancreas
B. Ca. Stomach
C. Ca. Ovary
D. Ca. Cervix
Answer: C
18. Spleniculi are seen most commonly in:
A. Colon
B. Hilum
C. Liver
D. Lungs
Answer: B
19. Which of the following stage of Breast Ca corresponds with following feature? Breast mass of 6 x 3 cm. size Ipsilateral supraclavicular lymph node Distant metastasis cannot be assessed
A. T4 N3 MX
B. T4 N1 M1
C. T4 N0 M0
D. T3 N3c MX
Answer: D
20. Dacron vascular graft is a:
A. Textile biologic
B. Textile synthetic
C. Nontextile biologic
D. Nontextile synthetic
Answer: B
21. The MOST common type of dislocation of elbow joint is:
A. Posterior
B. Posterolateral
C. Posteromedial
D. Lateral
Answer: A
22. Which of the following gas is most commonly used in laproscopy?
A. CO2
B. N2O
C. O2
D. Helium
Answer: A
23. What is the most common position of appendix?
A. Pelvic
B. Paracolic
C. Retrocaecal
D. Retroperitoneal
Answer: C
24. Most common primary bone tumour of hand is:
A. Osteoma
B. Osteochondroma
C. Enchondroma
D. None of the above
Answer: C
25.Which of the following Vitamin deficiency is seen in short bowel syndrome with ileal resection ?
A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin B 12
C. Vitamin B1
D. Folic acid
Answer: B
26. Double bubble sign seen in :
A. Duodenal atresia
B. Duodenal stenosis
C. Volvulus
D. All
Answer: D
27. In gastrectomy following occurs except
A. Calcium deficiency
B. Steatorrhoea
C. Fe. deficiency
D. Fluid loss
Answer: D
28. All of the following are features of Zollinger Ellison syndrome except
A. Intractable peptic ulcers
B. Severe diarrhoea
C. Beta cell tumors of the pancreas
D. Very high acid output.
Answer: C
29. Curlings ulcer is seen in
A. Burn patients
B. Patients with head injuries
C. Zollinger Ellison syndrome
D. Analgesic drug abuse
Answer: A
30. The most commonly practiced operative procedure for a perforated duodenal ulcer is
A. Vagotomy and pyloroplasty
B. Vagotomy and antrectomy
C. Vagotomy and perforation closure
D. Graham’s omentum patch repair
Answer: D
31. Prepyloric or channel ulcer in the stomach is termed as
A. type 1
B. type 2
C. type 3
D. type 4
Answer: C
32. Commonest cause of pyogenic liver abscess ?
A. Stricture of CBD
B. Biliary Colic
C. Appendicitis
D. Sigmoid Diverticulitis
Answer: A
33. All are true about amoebic liver abscess except:
A. More common in females
B. More common in left lobe of liver
C. Metronidazole is mainstay of treatment
D. a and b
Answer: D
34. False about hydatid cyst of liver:
A. Mostly asymptomatic
B. Most commonly located in right lobe of liver
C. Most common causative organism is echinococcus granulosus
D. Hepatic resection is never done
Answer: D
35. Indications of Liver transplantation are
All/Except
A. Biliary atresia
B. Sclerosing cholangitis
C. Hepatitis A
D. Cirrhosis
Answer: C
36. Kehr’s sign seen in splenic rupture is
A. Pain over left shoulder
B. Pain over right scapula
C. Periumbilical pain
D. Pain over renal angle
Answer: A
37. In which condition, medical treatment of gall stone is indicated
A. Stone is < 15 mm size
B. Radio opaque stone
C. Calcium bilirubinate stone
D. Non functioning gall bladder
Answer: A
38. In a patient of acute cholecystitis, referred pain to the shoulder is k/a
A. Murphy’s sign
B. Gray Turner sign
C. Boa’s sign
D. Cullen’s sign
Answer: C
39. In Patey’s mastectomy the step not done is
A. Nipple and areola removed
B. Surrounding normal tissue of tumor is removed.
C. Pectoralis major removed
D. Pectoralis minor removed
Answer: C
40. Breast conservation surgery not indicated ?
A. Large pendular breast
B. SLE
C. Diffuse microcalcification
D. All
Answer: D
41. In breast carcinoma metastasis,
prognosis depends best upon A. Estrogen receptor status
B. Axillary lymphnode status
C. Size of tumour
D. Site of tumour
Answer: A
42.What is true about HER2/neu overexpression in Ca breast:
A. Good prognosis
B. Responds well to taxanes
C. Responds well to monoclonal antibodies
D. Seen only in breast cancer
Answer: C
43. Mondor’s disease is ?
A. Thrombophlebitis of the Superficial veins of Breast
B. Carcinoma of the breast
C. Premalignant condition of the breast
D. Filariasis of the breast
Answer: A
44. Flap commonly used in breast reconstruction is?
A. Serratus anterior
B. TRAM
C. Flap from arm
D. Delto pectoral flap
Answer: B
45. Lateral aberrant thyroid refers to
A. Congenital thyroid abnormality
B. Metastatic focus in lymph nodes
C. Struma ovarii
D. Lingual thyroid
Answer: B
46.Treatment of choice for medullary carcinoma of thyroid is:
A. Total thyroidectomy
B. Partial thyroidectomy
C. 1131 ablation
D. Hemithyroidectomy
Answer: A
47. In case of hypothyroidism which investigation is most informative and most commonly used ?
A. Serum TSH Level
B. Serum T3, T4 Level
C. Serum Calcitonin assay
D. Serum T3 level
Answer: A
48. M.C. site of CA oesophagus is
A. Middle 1/3rd
B. Upper 1/3rd
C. Lower 1/3rd
D. Lower end of esophagus
Answer: A
49. Which is M.C. site for iatrogenic oesophageal perforation
A. Abdominal portion
B. Cervical portion
C. Above arch of aorta
D. Below arch of aorta
Answer: B
50. Corkscrew esophagus is seen in which of the following conditions ?
A. Carcinoma esophagus
B. Scleroderma
C. Achalasia cardia
D. Diffuse esophagus spasm
Answer: D
51. The most common type of TracheoOesophageal Fistula is
A. Esophageal atresia without tracheoesophageal fistula
B. Esophageal atresia with proximal tracheoesophageal fistula
C. Esophageal atresia with distal tracheoesophageal fistula
D. Esophageal atresia with proximal and distal fistula
Answer: C
52. commonest benign tumor of the esophagus?
A. Leiomyoma
B. Papilloma
C. Adenoma
D. Hemangioma
Answer: A
53. All of the following are risk factors for carcinoma gall bladder, EXCEPT
A. Typhoid carriers
B. Adenomatous gall bladder polyps
C. Choledochal cysts
D. Oral contraceptives
Answer: D
54. Regarding Ca gallbladder
A. Squamous cell ca is the most common
B. Present with jaundice
C. Good prognosis
D. All
Answer: B
55. The Gall stone pain is referred to the shoulder through which of the following nerves:
A. C2-C8
B. T1-T4
C. T8-T12
D. C3-05
Answer: D
56. The best investigative modality for gall bladder stones
A. Oral cholecystogram
B. Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography
C. Ultrasound
D. Intravenous cholangiogram
Answer: C
57. Strawberry gallbladder is seen in ?
A. Gangrene of gallbladder
B. Porcelain gall bladder
C. Adenomatosis
D. Cholesterosis
Answer: D
58. VIPoma is associated with which syndrome:
A. Zollinger Ellison
B. Verner Morrison
C. Carcinoid syndrome
D. Cushing’s syndrome
Answer: B
59. All are resected in whipples operation except ?
A. Duodenum
B. Head of pancreas
C. Neck of pancreas
D. Common bile duct
Answer: C
60. Following genetic counselling in a family for Familial polyposis coli (FPC) next screening test is
A. Flexible sigmoidoscopy
B. Colonoscopy
C. Occult blood in stools
D. APC gene
Answer: D
61. The tendency of colonic carcinoma to metastasize is best assessed by
A. Size of tumor
B. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) levels
C. Depth of penetration of bowel wall
D. Proportion of bowel circumference involved.
Answer: C
62. Following is least common about angiodyplasia of colon
A. Involvement of cecum
B. Involvement of rectum in 50% of cases
C. Affecting age group > 40 yrs.
D. Cause of troublesome lower G.I. hemorrhage
Answer: B
63. Most common type of Intussusception is
A. Ileocolic
B. ileoileal
C. Colo-colic
D. Caeco-colic
Answer: A
64. Features of intestinal obstruction : clinically/ investigation by :
A. Abdominal distension
B. Vomiting
C. Fluid level in X-ray > 4
D. a and b
Answer: D
65. Commonest cause of intussusception is
A. Submucous lipoma
B. Meckel’s diverticulum
C. Hypertrophy of submucous peyer’s patches
D. Polyp
Answer: C
66. What is the T/t of pt with carcinoid tumor of appendix of size more than 2 cm
A. Right hemicolectomy
B. Appendicectomy
C. Appendicectomy + abdominal CT scan
D. Appendicectomy + 24 hrs urinary HIAA
Answer: A
67. A 25 year old man presents with 3 days history of pain in the right lower abdomen and vomitings. patient’s general condition is satisfactory and clinical examination reveals a tender lump in right iliac fossa. The most appropriate management in this case would be
A. Immediate appendicectomy
B. Exploratory laprotomy
C. Oschner Sherren regimen
D. External drainage
Answer: C
68. Which of the following is not a sign seen in acute appendicitis
A. Rovsing’s
B. Rosenstein’s sign
C. Boa’s sign
D. Hamburger sign
Answer: C
69. In carcinoma of anus distal margin of clearance of anal canal of at least
A. 2 cm
B. 5 cm
C. 4 cm
D. 7 cm
Answer: A
70. In case of female commonest hernia is ?
A. Direct inguinal hernia
B. Indirect inguinal hernia
C. Femoral Hernia
D. Incisional hernia
Answer: B
71. Triangle of Doom is bounded by all of the following except:
A. Cooper’s ligament
B. Vas deferens
C. Gonadal vessels
D. Peritoneal reflection
Answer: A
72. Regarding desmoid tumour which is not correct ?
A. Often seen below the umbilicus
B. Unencapsulated
C. More common in women
D. Highly radiosensitive
Answer: D
73. Burst abdomen most commonly occurs on the
A. 2nd day
B. 3rd day
C. 7th day
D. 9th day
Answer: C
74. False regarding hypernephroma is
A. Radiosensitive
B. Arise from cortex usually from pre existing adenoma
C. May present with rapidly developing varicocele
D. Usually adenocarcinoma
Answer: A
75. The posterior urethra is best visualized by ?
A. Static cystogram
B. Retrograde urethrogram
C. Voiding cystogram
D. CT cystogram
Answer: C
76. The Grayhack shunt is established between:
A. Corpora cavernosa and dorsal vein
B. Corpora cavernosa and saphenous vein
C. Corpora cavernosa and glans
D. Corpora cavernosa and corpora spongiosa
Answer: B
77. Which of the following urethral anomaly is the most common
A. Hypospadias
B. Pin hole meatus
C. Epispadias
D. Stricture urethra
Answer: A
78. All the features of membranous urethral injury except
A. blood of meatus
B. Retention of urine
C. Pelvic fracture
D. Perineal butterfly hematoma
Answer: D
79. Congenital hydrocele is best t/t by
A. Eversion of sac
B. Excision of sac
C. Lords procedure
D. herniotomy
Answer: D
80. Which one of the following statement is true of undescended testis
A. Usually descends spontaneously at puberty
B. Orchipexy to be done if no descent by puberty
C. Has a higher incidence of malignancy
D. Maintains normal sperm production
Answer: C
81. What is oliguria
A. Excretion of less than 300m1 in 24 hrs
B. Excretion of less than 500m1 in 24 hrs
C. Excretion of less than 300 ml. in 12 hrs
D. Excretion of less than 100 ml. in 24 hrs
Answer: B
82. Tissue suturing glue contains:
A. Cyanoacrylate
B. Ethanolamine oleate
C. Methacrylate
D. Polychloroprene
Answer: A
83. The tensile strength of wound reaches that of tissue by ?
A. 6 weeks
B. 2 months
C. 4 months
D. None
Answer: D
84. The following statement about keloid is true ?
A. They do not extend into normal skin
B. Local recurrence is common after excision
C. They often undergo malignant change
D. They are more common in whites than in blacks
Answer: B
85. The Vitamin which has inhibitory effect on wound healing is
A. Vitamin -A
B. Vitamin – E
C. Vitamin -C
D. Vitamin B-complex
Answer: B
86. Best skin disinfectant for central line insertion is:
A. Povione iodine
B. Alcohol
C. Cetrimide
D. Chlorhexidine
Answer: D
87. Complication of total parenteral nutrition include ?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hyperosmolar dehydration
D. a and b
Answer: D
88. Content of Na’ in ringer lactate is meq/1
A. 154
B. 12
C. 130
D. 144
Answer: C
89. Actinomycosis is sensitive to ?
A. Streptomycin
B. Nystatin
C. PenciIlin
D. Iodox – uridine
Answer: C
90. Liver transplantation was first done by ?
A. Starzl
B. Huggins
C. Carrel
D. Christian Benard
Answer: A
91. True about Marjolins ulcer
A. Develops in long standing scar
B. Sq cell Ca develops
C. Slow growing lesion
D. All
Answer: D
92. Ainhum is seen in ?
A. Base of great toe
B. Base of fingers tips
C. Base of toe
D. Ankle
Answer: C
93. How much length is increased in Z plasty when it is done at 60 degrees?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
Answer: C
94. The procedure of choice for the evaluation of aortic aneurysm is
A. Ultasonography
B. Computed tomography
C. Magnetic resonance imaging
D. Arteriography
Answer: B
95. Pseudoclaudication is caused by
A. Femoral Artery stenosis
B. Popliteal Artery stenosis
C. Lumbar canal stenosis
D. Radial Artery stenosis
Answer: C
96. Kaposi sarcoma is commonly seen in ?
A. Upper limbs
B. Lower limbs
C. Head and Neck
D. Trunk
Answer: B
97. All of the following are risk factors for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) except
A. Duration of surgery more than thirty minutes
B. Obesity
C. Age less than forty years
D. Use of the oestrogen-progesterone contraceptive pills
Answer: C
98. DVT, investigation of choice is
A. Doppler
B. Plethysmography
C. Venography
D. X-ray
Answer: A
99. Surgery in varicose veins is NOT attempted in presence of –
A. Deep vein thrombosis
B. Multiple incompetent perforators
C. Varicose veins with leg ulcer
D. All of the above
Answer: A
100. Treatment of rib fracture ?
A. Immediate thoracotomy
B. IPPV
C. Analgesics
D. b and c
Answer: C
101. Trauma and Injury Severity Score (TRISS) includes:
A. GCS + BP + RR
B. RTS + ISS + Age
C. RTS + ISS + GCS
D. RTS + GCS + Age
Answer: B
102. Treatment of choice for stab injury caecum ?
A. Caecostomy
B. Ileo-transverse anastomosis
C. Transverse colostomy
D. Sigmoid colostomy
Answer: B
103. Brain abscess in cyanotic heart disease is commonly located in
A. Cerebellar hemisphere
B. Thalamus
C. Temporal lobe
D. Parietal lobe
Answer: D
104. All are true about carcinoma palate, except
A. Slow growing
B. Bilateral lymphatic spread
C. Adenocarcinoma
D. Presents with pain
Answer: D
105. Epulis arises from
A. Enamel
B. Root of teeth
C. Gingiva
D. Pulp
Answer: C
106. Commonest site of carcinoma tongue
A. Apical
B. Lateral borders
C. Dorsum
D. Posterior 1/3
Answer: B
107. In case of benign mixed parotid tumours T/t of choice is
A. Superficial Parotidectomy
B. Total parotidectomy
C. Leave facial nerve and remove all gland
D. Radical Parotidectomy
Answer: A
108. True regarding cystic hygroma is
A. Non transilluminant
B. Lined by columnar epithelium epithelium
C. Develops from jugular lymphatic sequestration
D. All
Answer: C
109. The best treatment for cystic hygroma is
A. Surgical excision
B. Radiotherapy
C. Sclerotherapy
D. Chemotherapy
Answer: A
110. Sistrunk’s operation is used in
A. Parotid tumour
B. Thyroglossal fistula
C. Thyroglossal cyst
D. b and c
Answer: D
111. Adson’s test is positive in
A. Cervical rib
B. Cervical spondylosis
C. Cervical fracture
D. Cervical dislocation
Answer: A
112. Neuroblastomas – good prognositc factor is ?
A. N-myc amplification
B. RAS oncogene
C. Hyperdiploidy
D. Translocations
Answer: C
113. Opsoclonus – Myoclonus is a phenomenon seen in ?
A. Wilms tumor
B. Neuroblastoma
C. Meningioma
D. Cortical tuberculoma
Answer: B
114. In thymoma, all are seen except
A. Hypogamma globulinemia
B. Hyperalbuminemia
C. Red cell aplasia
D. Myaesthenia Gravis
Answer: B
115. Interlobar sequestration of lung takes its blood supply from
A. Internal mammary artery
B. Descending abdominal aorta
C. Pulmonary artery
D. None of the above
Answer: B
116. Foreign body aspiration in supine position causes which of the following parts of the lung commonly to be affected
A. Apical left lobe
B. Apical lobe of right lung
C. Apical part of the lower lobe
D. Posterobasal segment of left lung
Answer: C
117. IVC filter is used in following except
A. To reduces symptoms
B. Negligible size of emboli
C. To prolong life
D. To prevent progress of native blood vessel disease
Answer: B
118. Empyema necessitans is defined as so when ?
A. Plural empyema is under pressure
B. Pleural empyema has ruptured into bronchus
C. Pleural empyema has ruptured into the pericardium
D. Pleural empyema is showing extension to the subcutaneous tissue
Answer: D
119. All of the following about Gastrointestinal carcinoid tumors are true, Except:
A. Small intestine and appendix account for almost 60% of all gastrointestinal carcinoid
B. 5 year survival for carcinoid tumors is >60%
C. Rectum is spared
D. Appendicial carcinoids are more common in females than males
Answer: C
120. Radiation exposure during infancy has been linked to which one of the following carcinoma
A. Breast
B. Melanoma
C. Thyroid
D. Lung
Answer: C
121. Smoking may be associated with all of the following cancers, except:
A. Ca Larynx
B. Ca Nasopharynx
C. Ca Bladder
D. None
Answer: D
122. What is the treatment of choice in desmoid tumors ?
A. Irradiation
B. Wide excision
C. Local excision
D. Local excision following radiation
Answer: B
123. The commando operation is
A. Abdomino-perineal resection of the rectum for carcinoma
B. Disarticulation of the hip for gas gangrene of the leg
C. Extended radical mastectomy
D. Excision of carcinoma of the tongue, the floor of the mouth, part
of the jaw and lymph nodes enbloc
Answer: D
124. Corpora amylaciae is seen in
A. Thymus
B. Lymph node
C. Spleen
D. Prostate
Answer: D
125. Stereotactic radiosurgery is done for
A. Glioblastoma multiforme
B. Medulloblastoma spinal cord
C. Ependymoma
D. AV malformation of brain
Answer: D
126. In which one of the following conditions is gas under diaphragm not seen
A.Perforated duodenal ulcer
B. Typhoid perforation
C. After laparotomy
D. Spontaneous rupture of oesophagus
Answer: D
127. All of the following are true regarding fluid resuscitation in burn patients except:
A. Consider intravenous resuscitation in children with burns greater than 15% TBSA
B. Oral fluids must contain salts
C. Most preferred fluid is Ringer’s lactate
D. Half of the calculated volume of fluid should be given in first 8 hours
Answer: A
128. The following is the commonest site for venous ulcer: [March 2013 ]
A. Lower third of leg and ankle
B. Instep of foot
C. Lower 2/ 3rd of leg
D. Middle 1/3rd of leg
Answer: A
129. Which of the following is spared in lumbar sympathectomy: [September 2009]
A. L1
B. L2
C. L3
D. L4
Answer: A
130. Brodie-Trendelenburg test is positive in:
A. Deep vein thrombosis
B. Sapheno-femoral incompetence
C. Thromboangiitis obliterans
D. Below-knee perforators incompetence
Answer: B
131. Cullen’s sign is seen in: [March 2004]
A. Acute cholecystitis
B. Acute hepatitis
C. Acute pancreatitis
D. Blunt injury abdomen
Answer: C
132. Acute pancreatitis causes all of the following except: [March 2005, March 2013 (g)]
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Increased amylase level
C. Subcutaneous fat necrosis
D. Hyperlipidemia
Answer: A
133. Charcot’s triad is defined by all of the following except: [September 2007, March 2009]
A. Fever
B. Gall stones
C. Jaundice
D. Pain
Answer: B
134. Most sensitive and specific for acute pancreatitis amongst the following is: [September 2008]
A. S.amylase
B. S.Alanine transaminase
C. S.lipase
D. C-reactive protein
Answer: C
135. Treatment of an incidentally detected Appendicular carcinoid measuring 2.5 cm is: [September 2002]
A. Right hemicolectomy
B. Limited resection of the right colon
C. Total colectomy
D. Appendicectomy
Answer: A
136. Heller’s myotomy is done for: [September 2007, 2009, 2010]
A. Esophageal carcinoma
B. Pyloric hypertrophy
C. Achalasia cardia
D. Inguinal hernia
Answer: C
137. All of the following testicular tumours are germ cell tumours EXCEPT: [March 2013 ]
A. Seminoma
B. Teratoma
C. Choriocarcinoma
D. Sertoli cell tumour
Answer: D
138. Cobra head appearance on excretory urography is suggestive of: [March 2010]
A. Horseshoe kidney
B. Duplication of renal pelvis
C. Simple cyst of kidney
D. Ureterocele
Answer: D
139. Orchidopexy for incompletely descended testis is done after the age of: [September 2011]
A. At birth
B. 1 year
C. 2 years
D. 5 years
Answer: B
140. MC site for thyroglossal cyst is:
A. Beneath the foramen caecum
B. Floor of mouth
C. Above hyoid
D. Subhyoid
Answer: D
141. True about Branchial cyst is: [March 2013 (h)]
A. Cysts are more common than sinuses
B. Mostly arises from 2nd branchial system
C. Causes dysphagia and hoarseness
D. Sinus should always be operated
Answer: B
142. All of the following are false for Gall Bladder carcinoma except: [March 2005]
A. Carries a good prognosis
B. Gallstones may be a predisposing factor
C. Commonly squamous cell carcinoma
D. Jaundice is rare
Answer: B
143. Cryoprecipitate contains: [March 2009]
A. Factor II
B. Factor V
C. Factor VIII
D. Factor IX
Answer: C
144. Adson test is positive in: [September 2007]
A. Cervical spondylosis
B. Cervical rib
C. Cervical vertebra fracture
D. Superior vena cava syndrome
Answer: B
145.Drugs for paralytic ileus for bowel resection surgery are all except ?
A. Alvinopam
B. Dihydroergotamine
C. Naloxone
D. Methylnaltrexone
Answer: C
146. An adult hypertensive male presented with sudden onset severe headache and vomiting. On examination, there is marked neck rigidity and no focal neurological deficit was found. The symptoms are most likely due to:
A. Intracerebral parenchymal hemorrhage
B. Ischemic stroke
C. Meningitis
D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Answer: D
147. Gasless abdomen seen in
A.Ulcerative colitis
B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Intussusception
D. Necrotising enterocolitis
Answer: B
148. Dohlman procedure for
A. Meckel’s diverticulum
B. Zenker’s diverticulum
C. Dermatomyositis
D. Menetrier’s disease
Answer: B
149. If a mother is donating kidney to her son is an example
A. Isograft
B. Allograft
C. Autograft
D. Xenograft
Answer: B
150. Uvula vesicae is produced by which prostate lobe?
A. Anterior lobe
B. Post lobe
C. Median lobe
D. Lateral lobe
Answer: C
151. True about Barrett’s esophagus are all of the following except:
A. Causes adenocarcinoma
B. Patient is usually asymptomatic
C. Histology of the lesion shows mucus secreting goblet cells
D. Chronic gastroesophageal reflux is a predisposing factor
Answer: A
152. Parathyroid auto implantation takes place in which of the muscle?
A. Biceps
B. Triceps
C. Brachioradialis
D. Sartorius
Answer: C
153. Bell’s palsy is associated with the lesion in which of the nerve?
A. 11th cranial nerve
B. 7th cranial nerve
C. 9th cranial nerve
D. 3rd cranial nerve
Answer: B
154. Cushing ulcer is seen in case of
A. Burns
B. Head injury
C. Cell necrosis
D. Stress
Answer: B
155. Most common indication for liver transplant in children
A. Biliary atresia
B. Cirrhosis
C. Hepatitis
D. Drug reactions
Answer: A
156. Most common type of gallstone is
A. Mixed stones
B. Pure cholesterol stones
C. Pigment stones
D. Calcium bilirubinate
Answer: A
157. Serpiginous ulcer distal esophagus
A. CMV
B. Herpes
C. Pill
D. Corrosive
Answer: A
158. Omphalocele is caused by?
A. Duplications of intestinal loops
B. Abnormal rotation of the intestinal loop
C. Failure of gut to return to the body cavity from its physiological herniation
D. Reversed rotation of the intestinal loop
Answer: C
159. Which of the following is true about coeliac plexus block?
A. Located retroperitoneally at the level of L3
B. Usually done unilaterally
C. Useful for the painful conditions of lower abdomen
D. Most common side effect is diarrhea and hypotension
Answer: D
160. Most commonly performed and acceptable method of bariatric surgery is:
A. Biliopancreatic diversion
B. Biliopancreatic diversion with ilcostomy
C. Laparoscopic gastric banding
D. Roux-en-Y gastric bypass.
Answer: D
161. A patient after road traffic accident presented with tension pneumothorax. What is the first line of management?
A. Insert wide bore needle in 2nd intercostal space
B. Immediate chest X-ray
C. CT scanEmergency thoracotomy
D. Emergency thoracotomy
Answer: A
162. Prehn sign is positive in
A. Acute epidydimoorchitis
B. Chronic orchitis
C. Testicular torsion
D. None
Answer: A
163.Definitive surgery is a part of which stage of damage control surgery?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
Answer: D
164. Which of the following is not true about Boerhaave syndrome?
A. Perforation of the esophagus due to barotrauma
B. Most common site is left posteromedial aspect 3 – 5 cms above the gastroesophageal junction
C. Pain is the early manifestation
D. Most cases follow a bout of heavy eating or drinking
Answer: B
165. All of the following are indications for bariatric surgery except
A. BMI>40 kg/m2
B. BMI> 35 kg/m2 with atleast one comorbidity
C. BMI>30 with long standing diabetes
D. Failure of other methods of weight loss
Answer: C
166. Indications for emergency thoracotomy are all of the following except
A. Major tracheobronchial injuries
B. Cardiac tamponade
C. Penetrating injuries to anterior chest
D. Tension Pneumothorax
Answer: D
167. A female undergone surgery for left breast cancer 3 yrs back now developed blue nodule on same side
A. Lymphangiosarcoma
B. Recurrence
C. Hemangioma
D. Cellulitis
Answer: A
168. Blood loss in class III hemorrhagic shock
A. < 750 ml
B. 750 – 1500 ml
C. 1500-2000 ml
D. > 2000 ml
169. Most common cancer in men is
A. Bladder cancer
B. Colorectal cancer
C. Prostate cancer
D. Oral cancer
Answer: C
170.A nerve injured in radical neck dissection leads to loss of sensation in medial side of the arm, nerve injured is?
A. Long thoracic nerve
B. Thoracodorsal nerve
C. Dorsal scapular nerve
D. Medial cutaneous nerve of arm
Answer: D
171. Gold standard investigation for chronic pancreatitis?
A. MRI
B. ERCP
C. Pancreatic function tests
D. Fecal fat estimation
Answer: B
172. Most accurate method for the diagnosis Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD) is
A. Histological study
B. Manometry
C. 24-hour pH recording and electrical impedance measurement
D. Barium swallow studies
E. Upper GI endoscopy
Answer: C
173. All are features of SIRS except
A. RR> 24 & Paco2 <22mm hg
B. WBC >11 or <4
C. Temperature <36 and >38
D. PR >90
Answer: A
174. Which of the following primarily governs the uptake of Tc-99m MDP in body?
A. Amount of osteogenic activity
B. Amount of iodine uptake
C. Amount of calcium uptake
D. Amount of catecholamine activity
Answer: A
175. Technitium-99m pertechnetate labelled methylene diphosphonate is structurally similar to
A. Calcium phosphate
B. Phosphorus
C. Sodium bicarbonate
D. Magnesiumsulfate
Answer: A
176. Neuroimaging features of neurocysticercosis are considered as criteria for definitive diagnosis
A. Major
B. Minor
C. Probable
D. Absolute
Answer: A
177. Laproscopic procedure patient develops shoulder pain due to
A. Subphrenic abscess
B. Positional pain during surgery
C. Subdiaphragmatic migration of gas
D. Injury to liver
Answer: C
178. A patient comes with a complaint of shoulder pain after laparoscopic surgery. What should be the next step in management?
A. Oral paracetamol for 2 – 3 days
B. USG of shoulder region
C. Diagnostic shoulder arthroscopy
D. Intraarticular lignocaine injection
Answer: A
179. Which of the following should be done for an acute onset painful scrotal swelling in 12 years old male?
A. Doppler stethoscope evaluation
B. Administer analgesics
C. Advise bed rest
D. Administer antibiotics
Answer: A
180. Which of the following electrolyte abnormalities can be seen after brain injury?
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypomagnesemia
D. All the above
Answer: A
181. Earliest hematological change following splenectomy is
A. Leukocytosis and thrombocytosis
B. Presence of Heinz bodies
C. Evidence of Howell Jolly bodies
D. Poikilocytosis
Answer: A
182. Percuteneous chemical lumbar sympathectomy is practised using
A. Phenol
B. Ethanol
C. Formalin
D. Acetic acid
Answer: A
183. Typical of rectus sheath hematoma is
A. Severe tenderness
B. Bluish discoloration
C. Firm painful mass
D. Ecchymosis
Answer: C
184. Burr hole is done for
A. Chronic SDH
B. EDH
C. SAH
D. Contusion
Answer: A
185.Following road traffic accident patient suffers polytrauma and is evaluated in the emergency section of the hospital. His pulse rate is 116, respiratory rate is 24, blood pressure of 122/78 mm of Hg and patient is mildly anxious. What is the approximate blood loss patient has following trauma?
A. <750 ml
B. 750 – 1500 ml
C. 1500 – 2000 ml
D. >2000 ml
Answer: B
186. Sebaceous cyst occurs occur in all the following locations in body except
A. Palms and soles
B. Axilla
C. Back
D. Pubic area
Answer: A
187. Cortisol levels remain elevated for how many week/s following hemorrhage?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A
188. A child swallowed a watch battery containing alkaline content. What next
A. Immediate X-ray measurements
B. Remove surgically immediately
C. CT abdomen
D. Laxatives
Answer: A
189. Surgical treatment of congenital hydrocele recommended if it fails to resolve by what age?
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 4 years
Answer: B
190. What percentage of gall stones are radio opaque?
A. 10- 20
B. 30 – 40
C. 50 – 60
D. 70 – 80
Answer: A
191. Hemorrhage commonly seen with trivial trauma in elderly
A. Subdural hemorrhage
B. Extradural hemorrhage
C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
D. Intraparenchymal hemorrhage
Answer: A
192. Which of the following provides excellent details about the chemodectomas?
A. Xray
B. CT angiography
C. MRI
D. PET SCAN
Answer: C
193. Acral lentigines type of malignant melanoma occurs in
A. Face
B. Nape of neck
C. Mucosa
D. Sun exposed areas
Answer: C
194. Hoarseness of voice in lung carcinoma is due to invasion of which structure?
A. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
B. Internal laryngeal nerve
C. Glossopharyngeal nerve
D. Vagus nerve
Answer: A
195. Percentage of renal stones that are radio-opaque
A. 20
B. 40
C. 60
D. 80
Answer: D
196. Indications of thoracotomy in blunt chest trauma include all except
A. Initial drainage of > 500 ml of fresh blood
B. Rupture of bronchous
C. Continued bleeding of > 200 ml/ hr for >/= 3hrs
D. Unsuccessful attempt at drainage of cardiac tamponade
Answer: A
197. Visual examination is used as screening test for
A. Melanoma
B. Breast cancer
C. Thyroid cancer
D. Testicular cancer
Answer: A
198. Embolisation of tumors is done using
A. Polyvinyl alcohol
B. Autologous blood clots
C. Absolute ethanol
D. All the above
Answer: D
199.Upto Level III lymph node dissection is done for which nodal status of oropharyngeal cancer?
A. N1
B. N2
C. N3
D. N4
Answer: A
200. Breast surgery is considered under what category of cardiac risk?
A. > 10 %
B. 5 – 10 %
C. 1 – 5 %
D. <1%
Answer: D
201. What is the order of disorientation, which a person goes through after an event of trauma to head?
A. First time, then place followed by person
B. First place, then time followed by person
C. First person, then time followed by place
D. First time, then person followed by place
Answer: A
202. Which of the following is the preferred route of access for total parenteral nutrition in a patient who requires the same for <14 days and there is otherwise no indication for use of central catheter?
A. Internal jugular vein
B. External jugular vein
C. Periphaeral vein
D. PICC line
Answer: C
203. Which of the following is not true about use of graft in vascular surgery
A. Autologous saphenous vein achieves superior patency rates to prosthetic materials especially in femorodistal bypass
B. The patency of the PTFE grafts may be improved by interposition of a vein cuff at proximal anastomosis
C. Doppler ultrasound assessment is the method of choice for quality assurance on completion of operative procedure
D. In the absence of specific contraindications aspirin should be prescribed for all the patients of peripheral vascular disease
Answer: B
204. For lower lip carcinoma of <1cm in size. The treatment of choice will be
A. Radiation
B. Chemotherapy
C. Excision
D. Radiation and chemotherapy
Answer: C
205. Preferred treatment for oral tongue carcinoma which infiltrates the local cortical bone is
A. Subtotal glossectomy
B. Subtotal glossectomy + selective neck dissection
C. Subtotal glossectomy + selective neck dissection + mandibulectomy
D. Total glossectomy + selective neck dissection + mandibulectomy
Answer: C
206. Intracranial pressure is not raised during
A. Hyperventilation
B. Status epilepticus
C. Head injury
D. Subdural hematoma
Answer: A
207. Outcome of burns depends on
A. Extent of burns
B. Type of resuscitation fluid
C. Maintenance of airway
D. Skin grafting
Answer: A
208. Immediate physiological response to sudden decrease in blood volume is
A. Release of epinephrine
B. Shift of fluid from intracellular to interstitial compartment
C. Release of angiotensin
D. Release of thyroxine
Answer: A
209. Cardinal rule for dressing of pressure ulcer is to
A. Keep ulcer tissue dry and surrounding intact tissue dry
B. Keep ulcer tissue dry and surrounding intact tissue moist
C. Keep ulcer tissue moist and surrounding intact tissue dry
D. Keep the ulcer tissue moist and surrounding intact tissue moist
Answer: C
210. What is the meaning of the French word “Debridement”
A. Unleash or Cut Open
B. Debulk
C. Sanitize
D. Rehydration
Answer: A
211. Slip sign is seen in
A. Lipoma
B. Desmoid tumor
C. Sebaceous cyst
D. Hernia
Answer: A
212. For reimplantation digits are stored in
A. Ice packs
B. Deep freeze
C. Cold saline
D. Plastic bags with ice
Answer: D
213. Characteristic site for development of venous leg ulcers is
A. Skin of gaiter region
B. Behind lateral malleolus
C. Shin of tibia
D. Medial aspect of knee
Answer: A
214. Which of the following is true about the management of venous ulcer of lower limb?
A. Initial treatment is debridement and surgery
B. Compression dressings should ideally be applied on twice weekly basis
C. Antibiotics do not speed up the ulcer healing
D. Biological dressings do not have potential to improve healing
Answer: C
215. Which of the following suture has max tensile strength and minimum tissue reaction
A. Poliglecaprone
B. Polypropylene
C. Polygalctine
D. Polydioxanone
Answer: B
216. Blunt trauma exploratory laparotomy done nonexpansile swelling found on mesenteric border of intestine, management
A. Resection and anastomosis
B. Ligation
C. Excision of swelling
D. None
Answer: D
217. In SVC syndrome for non small cell carcinoma of lung management done
A. Radiotherapy
B. Immunotherapy
C. Chemotherapy
D. Surgery
Answer: A
218. Hadfields operation is performed for which of the following pathology?
A. Duct ectasia
B. Fibroadenoma
C. Mondors disease
D. Inflammatory breast carcinoma
Answer: A
219. Microdochotomy is treatment for
A. Duct ectasia
B. Breast abscess
C. Duct papilloma
D. DCIS
Answer: C
220. Previous radition therapy for which disease particularly increases the risk of breast carcinoma development?
A. Hodgkins lymphoma
B. Mantle cell lymphoma
C. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
D. Lung carcinoma
Answer: A
221. LAHSAL code is used to represent congenital malformation of
A. Lip
B. Alveolus
C. Hard and soft palate
D. All the above
Answer: D
222. Which of the following histological type of breast carcinoma worst prognosis?
A. Tubular
B. Colloid
C. Papillary
D. Scirrhous
Answer: D
223. Kernahen’s striped ‘Y’ classification, Main reference point is
A. Incisive foramen
B. Soft palate
C. Hard palate
D. Third molar
Answer: A
224. The most commonly used myocutaneous pedicle graft for pelvis surgeries contains muscle segments from
A. Rectus abdominis muscle
B. External oblique muscle
C. Internal oblique muscle
D. Transversus abdominis muscle
Answer: A
225. 52 years female patient presents with 4 cm diameter diagnosed breast cancer lesion with ipsilateral axillary and contralateral supraclavicular lymphadenopathy. As per AJCC system, patient belongs to which stage of breast cancer?
A. Ilia
B. None
C. IIIc
D. IV
Answer: D
226. Revascularization and angiogenesis process after skin grafting is seen after how many days after the procedure?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
Answer: B
227. Best prognosis for carcinoma breast is seen with which of the following?
A. <1cm size, nodes -ye , ER/ PR +ve, her 2/ neu -ye
B. <1cm size, nodes -ye , ER/ PR -ye, her 2/ neu +ve
C. <2cm size, nodes -ye , ER/ PR +ve, her 2/ neu -ye
D. <2cm size, nodes -ye , ER/ PR -ye, her 2/ neu +ve
Answer: A
228. Favorable prognosis with > 90% 5 year survival rate for carcinoma breast is seen in which of the following?
A. Screen detected ductal carcinoma in situ
B. Screen detected lobular carcinoma in situ
C. Node negative tumor with favourable histology
D. None of the above
Answer: A
229. What percentage of reduction in dying from breast cancer can be achieved with annual screening after age of 50 yrs with mammography?
A. 15- 20 %
B. 20- 25 %
C. 25- 30 %
D. 30- 35 %
Answer: C
230. Which of the following hormonal levels influence the development of benign breast disease?
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Lutenizing hormone
D. Testosterone
Answer: A:B
231. Which of the following is true about breast reconstruction surgery
A. Easiest reconstruction is done using silicon gel implant
B. TRAM flap gives better cosmetic results than LD flap
C. Radiotherapy in post op period does not influence the outcome after breast reconstruction
D. Nipple reconstruction cannot be performed under local anesthesia
Answer: A
232. Treatment of large omphalocele defect can be done by
A. Primary closure
B. Staged closure using PTFE mesh
C. Painting intact sac daily with antiseptic solution
D. All the above
Answer: D
233. Which of the following is not true about Pateys mastectomy
A. It is also called modified radical mastectomy
B. Intercosto brachial nerves are usually preserved
C. All lymph nodes of axilla are removed
D. Pectoralis muscle is either divided or retracted
Answer: B
234. Dermoepidermal burn is what degree of
burn A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
Answer: B
235. Macroprolactinoma ideal treatment is
A. Excision
B. Bromocriptine
C. Stereotactic radio surgery
D. Observation
Answer: B
236. Initial treatment for most patient of growth hormone secreting pituitary adenoma is
A. Transphenoidal surgical resection
B. Somatostatin analogs
C. GH rector antagonists
D. Dopamine agonists
Answer: A
237. Radioiodine preferred in treatment in
A. Young patients
B. Pregnancy
C. Recent onset of toxic goiter
D. Post surgery for papillary thyroid cancer
Answer: C
238. Parathyroid adenomas account for how much percentage of patients with primary hyperparathyroidism?
A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 70%
D. 80%
Answer: D
239. Investigation of choice for hepatic metastasis form stomach cancer is
A. MRI
B. CECT
C. USG
D. HIDA
Answer: B
240. Normal urine flow rate in healthy adults in urodynamic study is
A. 10 ml/sec
B. 20 ml/sec
C. 25 ml/sec
D. 5 ml/sec
Answer: B
241.Radical nephrectomy involves resection of the following except
A. Gerotas fascia
B. Ipsilateral adrenal gland
C. Surrounding hilar lymph nodes
D. Proximal para-aortic lymph nodes
Answer: D
242. Prognosis of surgery for liver secondaries is best for which cancer?
A. Colorectal
B. Neuroendocrine
C. Genitourinary
D. Esophageal
Answer: C
243. Indicatons of liver transplant in PCM poisoning are all except
A. SGPT increase
B. PT/INR
C. High creatinine
D. Encephalopathy
Answer: A
244. Harder renal stone having less satisfactory results with ECWL is
A. Oxalate stone
B. Phosphate stone
C. Urate stone
D. Cystine stone
Answer: D
245. Milan criteria is for
A. Selecting patients for Liver transplantation
B. Selecting patients for Lung transplantation
C. Selecting patients for Kidney transplantation
D. Selecting patients for heart trnasplantation
Answer: A
246. What should be the plan of management for a patient for whom while undergoing simple cholecystectomy T2 gall bladder carcinoma is discovered?
A. Resection of 4b-5 segement, dissection of the N1-2 nodes and excision of port sites
B. Post operative adjuvant chemotherapy
C. Radical cholecystectomy
D. Whipples procedure
Answer: A
247. Following are the sign/s suggestive of obstruction of urinary tract on CT Scan
A. Hyroureter
B. Perinephric stranding
C. Thickening of the lateroconal fascia
D. All the above
Answer: D
248. Treatment of choice for bladder stone
A. Transurethral litholapaxy
B. Percutaneous suprapubic litholapaxy
C. Vesicotomy and stone retrieval
D. Intravenous antibiotics
Answer: A
249. 3cm stone in cystic duct near the ampulla of vater, The Method of removal is a
A. Transduodenal approach
B. Supraduodenal approach
C. Lithotripsy
D. Chemical dissolution
Answer: A
250. 40 years old male complains of loin pain since 1 month. Patient’s complaint of pain has severely increased over last 2
hours and pain now radiates from loin and to groin and anterior thigh and patient is writhing in bed for comfort. What is the most probable etiology?
A. Bladder calculus
B. Ureteric calculus
C. Vesico ureteric reflux
D. Hydronephrosis
Answer: B
251. What is the main hazard of ectopic testis
A. Impotence
B. Carcinoma development
C. Liable to injury
D. Hernia development
Answer: C
252. Traditionally scrotal carcinoma is associated with which of the following occupations?
A. Chimney sweeps
B. Mule spinners
C. Coal worker
D. Wood workers
Answer: A
253. Which of the following are the treatment options for cystocele?
A. Anterior colporrhaphy
B. Transvaginal tape
C. Transobturator tape
D. All the above
Answer: D
254. Most common site of penile carcinoma is
A. Glans
B. Prepuce
C. Shaft
D. Coronal sulcus
Answer: A
255. Best time for surgery of hypospadias is at what age A. 0 – 4 months
B. 4 – 6 months
C. 6 – 10 months
D. > 2 years
Answer: C
256. Commonest site of hypospadias is
A. Just proximal to glans
B. In the meid of penis
C. Scrotum
D. Perineum
Answer: A
257. Which enzyme is of diagnostic importance in chronic pancreatitis
A. Amylase
B. Pancreatic polypeptide
C. Lipase
D. Serum Interleukin 6 levels
Answer: C
258. Most common screening test for acute pancreatitis
A. Serum amylase
B. Serum lipase
C. Urine trypsinogen
D. Insulin
Answer: C
