Q- During ecological succession
(a) types and numbers of animals remain constant
(b) establishment of a new biotic community is fast in its primary phase
(c) predictable and gradual changes in species composition take place in a given area
(d) changes lead to a community that is in near equilibrium with the environment and is
referred to as pioneer community
Answer: (c)
Q- This ecosystem has the maximum biomass
(a) Grassland ecosystem
(b) Pond ecosystem
(c) Lake ecosystem
(d) Forest ecosystem
Answer: (d)
Q- These are the primary producers of the deep-sea hydrothermal vent ecosystem
(a) blue-green algae
(b) coral reefs
(c) chemosynthetic bacteria
(d) green algae
Answer: (c)
Q- This is a characteristic feature of cropland ecosystem
(a) Absence of weeds
(b) Ecological succession
(c) least genetic diversity
(d) absence of soil entities
Answer: (c)
Q- At the producer level, if 20J of energy is trapped, then how much energy will be available to a peacock as food in the subsequent chain?
Plant -> Mice -> Snake -> Peacock
(a) 0.2 J
(b) 0.02 J
(c) 0.002 J
(d) 0.0002 J
Answer: (b)
Q- Limitations of ecological pyramids involve all these statements, except
(a) they assume a simple food chain and do not consider food webs
(b) in the ecological pyramids, saprotrophs are not given any place
(c) they do not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels
(d) they do not represent relationships between organisms at different trophic levels
Answer: (d)
Q- This entity will be the first one to colonize a bare rock
(a) Herbs and shrubs
(b) Annual plants
(c) Lichens
(d) Perennial plants
Answer: (c)
Q- In an ecosystem, which one of the following types of entities occupies more than one trophic level?
(a) Frog
(b) Phytoplankton
(c) Zooplankton
(d) Fish
Answer: (d)
Q- The rate at which food energy is assimilated at the trophic level of consumers is known as
(a) Gross primary productivity
(b) Net primary productivity
(c) Secondary productivity
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)
Q- Mostly, the flesh of fruit is made of
(a) Collenchyma
(b) Parenchyma
(c) Meristem
(d) Schlerids
Answer: (b)
Q- Prosenchyma is a type of
(a) Chlorenchyma
(b) Collenchyma
(c) Sclerenchyma
(d) Parenchyma
Answer: (d)
3. The tissue where cells are thin-walled, living, isodiametric along with intercellular spaces is
(a) Arenchyma
(b) Prosenchyma
(c) Collenchyma
(d) Parenchyma
Answer: (d)
Q- The plant tissue with the following characteristics is –
– Oval/round-shaped cells
– Cells have a living protoplasm and are dense
– Cell wall is made of cellulose or hemicellulose
– Thin-walled cells
(a) Parenchyma
(b) Collenchyma
(c) Scherenchyma
(d) Epidermis
Answer: (a)
Q- The main purpose that the aerenchyma serves in Parenchyma is
(a) Offers flexibility
(b) Renders Buoyancy
(c) Provides structural framework
(d) Provides mechanical support
Answer: (b)
Q- Which of this is not a function that Parenchyma performs
(a) Stores nutrients and food
(b) Aids in regeneration, healing and repairs wounds
(c) Provides foundation and support
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
Q- The tissue that provides maximum mechanical strength to the plant is
(a) Xylem
(b) Phloem
(c) Parenchyma
(d) Collenchyma
Answer: (a)
Q- Parenchyma cells in the spongy mesophyll exhibit large intercellular spaces promoting:
(a) To become nutrients for the future germinating embryo
(b) Greater exposure to carbon dioxide
(c) To distribute pressure evenly through the structure
(d) No specific reason
Answer: (b)
Q- Vessels are found in
(a) Most of the angiosperms and few gymnosperms
(b) All angiosperms and some gymnosperms
(c) All angiosperms, all gymnosperms and some pteridophytes
(d) All pteridophytes
Answer: (a)
Q- The main difference between parenchyma, collenchyma and sclerenchyma is that
(a) Parenchyma is involved in photosynthesis, secretion and storage
(b) Collenchyma is involved in support and transportation of nutrients
(c) Sclerenchyma is involved in support, protection, transportation of nutrients and water
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
Q- This statement is true about Thalassemia
(a) There is a type of thalassemia depending on the number of mutations in genes
(b) It is caused by mutations in the DNA of cells which make up the haemoglobin
(c) Mild thalassemia may not need treatment
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
Q- This is not a symptom of Thalassemia disease
(a) Abdominal cramps
(b) Weakness and slow growth
(c) Dark urine
(d) Facial bone deformities
Answer: (a)
Q- This type of thalassemia disease is Cooley anaemia
(a) Alloimmunization
(b) Beta-thalassemia
(c) Alpha-thalassemia
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
Q- Name the blood test which can detect if a person is a carrier of thalassemia
(a) Prenatal testing
(b) A complete blood count (CBC)
(c) A Reticulocyte Count
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
Q- Treatment that can be given to thalassemia patients
(a) Stem cell or bone marrow transplant
(b) Blood transfusions
(c) Iron chelation
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
Q- Possible complications of thalassemia
(a) Infection
(b) Iron overload
(c) Only B
(d) Both A and B
Answer: (d)
Q- The complications that can occur in severe thalassemia is
(a) Enlarged spleen
(b) Bone deformities
(c) Problems with the heart
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
Q- Factors leading to an increase in the risk of thalassemia disease
(a) Certain ancestry
(b) Family history of thalassemia
(c) Only B
(d) Both A and B
Answer: (d)
Q- This about alpha-thalassemia is correct
(a) Number of gene mutations decide the severity of the condition
(b) Haemoglobin fails to produce enough alpha protein in alpha-thalassemia
(c) Alpha-thalassemia is common in South-east Asia, southern Asia, India etc
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
Q- This about beta-thalassemia is true
(a) two genes are necessary to make beta-globin chains
(b) Mutation of genes decide the severity of the condition
(c) Beta thalassemia is a common condition in West Asia, North Africa and the Mediterranean islands
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
Q- Amniocentesis, chorionic villi and alpha-fetoprotein sampling are performed to determine_____.
(a) The most likely date of birth of the foetus
(b) Whether the baby will be normal or abnormal
(c) Whether the mother has a genetic abnormality
(d) A and B
Answer: (b)
Q- Which of the following tests cannot be examined by Amniocentesis procedure?
(a) Chromosome analysis
(b) Detecting genetic defects
(c) Maturity of fetal lungs
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
Q- The fluid sample required for performing the Amniocentesis test is ________.
(a) The amnion
(b) The placenta
(c) The liquid surrounding the immediate fetus
(d) All of the above
Answer: (c)
Q- How many days are required for the Amniocentesis tests results?
(a) 1 day
(b) 1-2 days
(c) 1-2 weeks
(d) 3-4 weeks
Answer: (d)
Q- The amniocentesis procedure is not done before the _________ week after conception.
(a) 4th-5th
(b) 6th-8th
(c) 10th-12th
(d) 15th-16th
Answer: (d)
Q- Which of these procedures has the least risk for an unborn child?
(a) Amniocentesis
(b) Alpha-fetoprotein sampling
(c) Chorionic villi sampling
(d) All have the same risk level
Answer: (b)
Q- Amniocentesis is a prenatal diagnostic test, which can also determine whether an unborn child will have __________ or not.
(a) Obesity
(b) Diabetes
(c) Down’s syndrome
(d) All of the above
Answer: (c)
Q- Which of the following sentence is true for the chorion?
(a) The organ in the uterus connected to the fetus by the umbilical cord
(b) The sac or pouch-like organ within uterus containing the amniotic fluid surrounding the fetus
(c) A membrane developing around an embryo, contributing to the formation of the placenta
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)
Q- Which of the following procedure is involved in injecting a small flexible plastic tube into the uterus through the vagina?
(a) Amniocentesis
(b) Alpha-fetoprotein screening
(c) Chorionic villi sampling
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)
Q- Which of the following medical conditions are responsible for producing incorrect Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) screening results and indicating a fetus has genetic defects?
(a) The mother is anaemic
(b) The mother has Rh-negative blood
(c) The date of conception has been miscalculated
(d) All the above
Answer: (b)
Q-Compared to genus, which of the following is less general in characters?
(a) Family
(b) Species
(c) Division
(d) Class
Answer: (b)
Q- For wheat, which of the following combinations is correct?
(a) Genus Triticum, family Poaceae, order Poales, Class Monocotyledonae
(b) Genus Triticum, family Poaceae, order Poales, Class Dicotyledonae
(c) Genus Triticum, family Poaceae, order Sapindales, Class Monocotyledonae
(d) Genus Triticum, family Anacardiaceae, order Poales, Class Monocotyledonae
Answer: (a)
Q- Regulation of cells’ activity takes place through
(a) Flow of substances
(b) Flow of energy
(c) Flow of hormones
(d) Flow of smoke
Answer: (b)
Q- Assertion(a): “Biological species” concept helps to ask how species are formed
Reason(r): Concept of biological species is centred around the question of how reproductive isolation comes about
(a) Both (a) and (r) are correct, but (r) is not the explanation for (a)
(b) Both (a) and (r) are correct, (r) is the correct explanation for (a)
(c) (a) and (r) both are incorrect
(d) (a) is true, (r) is incorrect
Answer: (d)
Q- The correct sequence of taxonomic categories is:
(a) Species -> genus -> order -> phylum
(b) Species -> order -> genus-> kingdom
(c) Genus -> species -> order -> kingdom
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
Q- Taxonomic hierarchy refer to
(a) Classification of species based on the fossil record
(b) A list of botanists or zoologists who have worked on the taxonomy of a species or group
(c) a group of senior taxonomists who decide the nomenclature of animals and plants
(d) Stepwise arrangement of all categories for classification of animals and plants
Answer: (d)
Q- Which one of these categories has real existence?
(a) Species
(b) Genus
(c) Kingdom
(d) Phylum
Answer: (a)
Q- A true species comprises of a population
(a) Interbreeding
(b) Sharing the same niche
(c) Reproductively isolated
(d) Feeding over the same food
Answer: (c)
Q- Nicotiana sylvestris flowers only during long days while N.tabacum flowers only during short days. Under different photoperiods, they can be induced to flower at the same time and can be cross-fertilized to produce self-fertile offsprings. What is the best reason for considering Nicotiana sylvestris and N.tabacum as separate species?
(a) They are reproductively distinct
(b) They fail to interbreed in nature
(c) They are physiologically different
(d) They are distinct morphologically
Answer: (b)
Q- One of the first acts in taxonomy is
(a) Identification
(b) Description
(c) Naming
(d) Classification
Answer: (a)
Q- The level of taxonomic study related to biological aspects of taxa, inclusive of intraspecific populations, speciation, evolutionary trends and rates is
(a) theta taxonomy
(b) alpha taxonomy
(c) beta taxonomy
(d) gamma taxonomy
Answer: (d)
Q- The process wherein the labellum in Orchidaceae surfaces at the anterior side via the twisting of the ovary through 180 degree
(a) Articulation
(b) Adnation
(c) Attenuation
(d) Resupination
Answer: (d)
Q- The organization of taxonomic information in logical classification is known as
(a) Phenetic
(b) Systematics
(c) Dendogram
(d) Phylogenetic
Answer: (b)
Q- One of these is not a plant fossil
(a) Rhynia
(b) Lepidocarpon
(c) Lepidodendron
(d) Archaeopteryx
Answer: (d)
Q- The primary advantage of Bentham and Hookers classification is
(a) It is a system whose basis is on evolutionary concepts
(b) It is a natural system of classification of all plant groups
(c) Deemed to be the phylogenetic aspect as well
(d) The taxa description is based on the actual examination of the specimens
Answer: (d)
Q- Α taxonomy pertains to
(a) Chemotaxonomy
(b) Phylogeny
(c) Classical taxonomy
(d) Experimental taxonomy
Answer: (c)
Q- To comprehend general plant relationships, this is one of the best methods
(a) Experimental Taxonomy
(b) Numerical Taxonomy
(c) Cytotaxonomy
(d) Chemotaxonomy
Answer: (d)
Q- The condition of Polyadelphous can be found in
(a) Rutaceae
(b) Leguminosae
(c) Compositae
(d) Liliaceae
Answer: (a)
Q- Linnaeus is credited with the following
(a) Law of Limiting factor
(b) Binomial nomenclature
(c) Concept of inheritance
(d) Theory of heredity
Answer: (b)
Q- The reason why the system of plant classification proposed by Carolus Linnaeus was artificial is
(a) Because it considered the physiological facts along with the morphological traits
(b) Because it was based on the similarities and differences in floral and other morphological characters only
(c) Because it was on the basis of evolutionary relationships of plants
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
Q- The main hormone secreted by the Thyroid gland
(a) T4
(b) T3
(c) (a) and (b) Both
(d) TSH
Answer: (C)
Q- Iodine deficiency can cause
(a) Goitre
(b) Thyroid cancer
(c) Solitary thyroid nodules
(d) Thyroiditis
Answer: (a)
Q- Grave’s disease or Basedow’s disease is due to
(a) Hyperactivity of adrenal cortex
(b) Hypoactivity of the thyroid gland
(c) Hyperactivity of thyroid gland
(d) Hypoactivity of islets of Langerhans
Answer: (c)
Q- The four small glands in the thyroid gland are known as
(a) Adrenal gland
(b) Pineal gland
(c) Parathyroid gland
(d) Endocrine and exocrine gland
Answer: (c)
Q- Sometimes, the thyroid symptoms are mistaken for which condition?
(a) Menopause
(b) Posttraumatic stress
(c) Pregnancy
(d) Crohn’s disease
Answer: (a)
Q- Medications for hypothyroidism include treatment that:
(a) Replaces insulin
(b) Replaces ADH
(c) Replaces TH
(d) Replaces surfactant
Answer: (c)
Q- Which of these diseases is not related to thyroid glands?
(a) Cretinism
(b) Myxoedema
(c) Goitre
(d) Acromegaly
Answer: (d)
Q- In chronically deficient patients, this abnormality is directly related to the enlargement of the thyroid gland
(a) Impaired conversion of T3 and T4
(b) Reduced activity of thyroperoxidase
(c) Elevated levels of TSH
(d) An antibody that binds to the TSH receptor in the thyroid gland
Answer: (c)
Q- ____________ encloses thyroid, responsible for its movement during swallowing
(a) Prevertebral fascia
(b) Pretracheal fascia
(c) Investing layer of the deep cervical fascia
(d) Superficial fascia
Answer: (b)
Q- This condition of chronic inflammation of the thyroid leading to under-activity is
(a) Thyroiditis
(b) Goitre
(c) Hypothyroidism
(d) Hyperthyroidism
Answer: (a)
Q- Which of these is the most advanced phylogenetically among the dicotyledonous families?
(a) Scrophulariaceae
(b) Acanthaceae
(c) Umbelliferae
(d) Compositae
Answer: (d)
Q- The substitute for the newly collected specimen when the original type material is missing in a herbarium is entitled as
(a) Holotype
(b) Neotype
(c) Lectotype
(d) Isotype
Answer: (b)
Q- If all the puddles and ponds are destroyed, the entities likely to be destroyed are
(a) Plasmodium
(b) Ascaris
(c) Leishmania
(d) Trypanosoma
Answer: (a)
Q- In the five-kingdom system of classification, into which kingdom would you classify nitrogen-fixing organisms and archaea?
(a) Fungi
(b) Plantae
(c) Protista
(d) Monera
Answer: (d)
Q- This is considered as a demerit of the ‘Engler and Prantl’ in the system of classification
(a) Gymnosperms are placed between monocotyledons and dicotyledons
(b) Dicotyledons are placed after monocotyledons
(c) Dicotyledons are placed before monocotyledons
(d) Gymnosperms are placed among Dicotyledons
Answer: (b)
Q- Phenetic classification is based on
(a) Observable characteristics of existing entities
(b) The ancestral lineage of existing organisms
(c) Dendrograms based on DNA characteristics
(d) Sexual characteristics
Answer: (a)
Q- Difference between the natural system of plant classification and artificial system of classification is
(a) Considers only one vegetative character
(b) Considers all the similarities between plants
(c) Considers only one floral character
(d) All of the above
Answer: (b)
Q- This system of classification was used by Linnaeus
(a) Phylogenetic system
(b) Natural system
(c) Artificial system
(d) Asexual system
Answer: (c)
Q- Pick the right sequence of taxonomic categories
(a) division-class-family-tribe-order-genus-species
(b) division-class-family-order-tribe-genus-species
(c) division-class-order-family-tribe-genus-species
(d) division-order-class-family-genus-tribe-species
Answer: (c)
Q- ‘New Systematics’ term was coined by
(a) Linnaeus
(b) Bentham and Hooker
(c) A.P. de Candolle
(d) Juliane Huxley
Answer: (d)
Q- Coronary artery disease (CAD) can be determined by this test
(a) Cardiac catherization
(b) Electrocardiogram
(c) Treadmill stress test
(d) all of these
Answer: (d)
Q- The modifiable risk factor associated with coronary artery disease is
(a) Age
(b) Obesity
(c) Heredity
(d) Gender
Answer: (b)
Q- This is one of the symptoms of Coronary artery disease
(a) Sleep problems
(b) Headache
(c) Diarrhoea
(d) Pain or discomfort in the chest, lower jaw or arms
Answer: (d)
Q- If a stent is not used in a few cases who have coronary angioplasty done, the artery tends to narrow down or get blocked again in 6 months. This is more likely to happen if:
(a) one smokes
(b) one has unstable angina before the procedure
(c) one has diabetes
(d) all of these
Answer: (d)
Q- Coronary angioplasty, part of CAD’s treatment involves:
(a) A new part of artery replaces the blocked section
(b) to expand artery, medication is used
(c) inflation of a tiny balloon inside an artery
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
Q- Doctors place a stent inside the artery during angioplasty. A stent is a
(a) A new fragment of the artery
(b) A wire mesh tube
(c) A cotton tube
(d) A slow-release medicine capsule
Answer: (b)
Q- The __________ branches into Circumflex artery and left anterior descendary artery
(a) Left main coronary artery
(b) right marginal artery
(c) Posterior descendary artery
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
Q- One of these is not a symptom of acute coronary syndrome
(a) ST Segment elevation myocardial infarction
(b) Non ST segment elevation myocardial infarction
(c) unstable angina
(d) No episodes of dyspnea
Answer: (d)
Q- Ischemia is
(a) restriction of blood supply to tissues
(b) Overflow of blood to tissues
(c) Inadequate deoxygenated blood carrying veins
(d) the medical term for shortness of breath
Answer: (a)
Q- This is the role of the coronary artery
(a) to carry blood away from the heart muscles
(b) to supply blood to heart muscles
(c) to supply blood to all parts of the body
(d) none of these
Answer: (b)
Q- ECG (Electrocardiogram) was developed first by
(a) Wilhelm His
(b) Steward
(c) Hubert Mann
(d) Willem Einthoven
Answer: (d)
Q- This is the classic ECG change in MI (myocardial infarction)
(a) ST-segment elevation
(b) T-wave inversion
(c) Development of an abnormal Q wave
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
Q- In which of these conditions can widen QRS and Tall-tented T waves be observed?
(a) Hyponatremia
(b) Hyperkalemia
(c) Hyperglycemia
(d) Hyperphosphatemia
Answer: (b)
Q- Hypokalemia is the condition of low potassium levels in your blood. Hypokalemia ECG changes are observed by
(a) ST segment elevation
(b) U wave (a position deflection after the T wave)
(c) Tall peaked T waves
(d) Widening of the QRS complex and increased amplitude
Answer: (b)
Q- A normal ECG report must consist of the following information
(a) Rhythm, cardiac axis
(b) Conduction intervals
(c) Description of the ST segments, QRS complexes, T-waves
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
Q- For the normal heartbeat, depolarization stimulus originates in
(a) His-bundle areas
(b) Epicardium
(c) Sinoatrial (SA)node
(d) Atrioventricular (AV) node
Answer: (c)
Q- The characteristics – slurring of the initial QRS deflection, shortened PR interval, and prolonged QRS duration are of this condition
(a) Atrial tachycardia
(b) Left bundle branch block
(c) WPW (Wolff-Parkinson-White) syndrome
(d) Myocardial ischemia
Answer: (c)
Q- P wave indicates
(a) Depolarization of right ventricle
(b) Depolarization of left ventricle
(c) Depolarization of both atria
(d) Atria to ventricular conduction time
Answer: (c)
Q- Ventricular muscle depolarization is indicated by
(a) PR interval
(b) P wave
(c) U wave
(d) The QRS complex
Answer: (d)
Q-ECG identified by the PR interval tends to become longer with every succeeding ECG complex until there is a P wave not followed by a QRS is observed in
(a) Third-Degree Atrioventricular Block
(B) Second-Degree Atrioventricular Block, Type II
(C) Second-Degree Atrioventricular Block, Type I
(D) First-Degree Atrioventricular Block, Type II
Answer: (c)
Q- One of the ways scientists suggest to find a treatment for muscular dystrophy is
(a) replacing muscles
(b) create customized diets for them to be healthier and stronger
(c) attempt to correct defective genes so it creates the right proteins
(d) none of these
Answer: (c)
Q- Define muscular dystrophy
(a) Diseases which destruct the muscles of the body
(b) diseases which cause the muscles to get disproportionate
(c) born with too many or too little muscles
(d) diseases which do not allow muscles to grow
Answer: (a)
Q- Muscular dystrophy can affect
(a) Only humans
(b) Only animals
(c) Both animals and humans
(d) Only plants
Answer: (c)
Q- Another way that scientists propose as a treatment to cure muscular dystrophy is
(a) Removal of defective genes
(b) Replacing defective genes after removing with parents genes again
(c) Discovering chemicals which can substitute the missing chemical
(d) none of these
Answer: (c)
Q- _____________ is not a form of muscular dystrophy
(a) Lunar dystrophy
(b) Myotonic dystrophy
(c) Duchenne muscular dystrophy
(d) Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy
Answer: (a)
Q- The protein whose production gets affected in Duchenne muscular dystrophy is
(a) Actin
(b) Myotropin
(c) Dystrophin
(d) Leucovorin
Answer: (c)
Q- The gene responsible for causing Duchenne muscular dystrophy is found on
(a) Y chromosome
(b) X chromosome
(c) Autosomal chromosome number 5
(d) Autosomal chromosome number 8
Answer: (b)
Q- The enzyme, whose blood levels is increased in patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy is
(a) Carbonic anhydrase
(b) Dystrophin kinase
(c) Adenosine triphosphate
(d) Creatinine phosphokinase
Answer: (d)
Q- Duchenne muscular dystrophy can be cured with
(a) Allopurinol
(b) Creatinine phosphokinase inhibitors
(c) Corticosteroids
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
Q- The involvement of this muscle affects the breathing in Duchenne muscular dystrophy
(a) Triceps
(b) Biceps
(c) Diaphragm
(d) Quadriceps
Answer: (c)
Q- The evolutionary advantage of meiosis can be best explained by which of these statements?
(a) Meiosis alternates with mitosis from one to the next generation
(b) Meiosis is essential for sexual reproduction
(c) Passing of the same genetic system from one to next generation
(d) Genetic recombination is possible from one to next generation
Answer: (d)
Q- One of these events does not take place during meiosis
(a) One successive division without any DNA replication
(b) Chiasmata formation and crossing over
(c) Segregation of homologous chromosomes
(d) Separation of sister chromatids
Answer: (a)
Q- The meiotic division takes place in
(a) Meristematic cells
(b) Conductive cells
(c) Reproductive cells
(d) Vegetative cells
Answer: (c)
Q- Name the event wherein the paternal and maternal chromosomes change their material with each other in cell division
(a) Crossing over
(b) Synapsis
(c) Dyad forming
(d) Bivalent forming
Answer: (a)
Q- The reason for daughter cells to differ from parent cells and also each other in meiosis is;
(a) Segregation and crossing over
(b) Segregation and independent assortment
(c) Segregation, crossing over and independent assortment
(d) Independent assortment and crossing over
Answer: (c)
Q- Continuous variations are due to
(a) Mutation
(b) Crossing over
(c) Polyploidy
(d) Chromosomal aberrations
Answer: (b)
Q- Synapsis takes place between
(a) Spindle fibre and centromere
(b) mRNA and ribosomes
(c) a female and a male gamete
(d) Two homologous chromosomes
Answer: (d)
Q- Mendelian factor (Aa) is segregated during
(a) Anaphase I
(b) Anaphase II
(c) Diplotene
(d) Zygotene/Pachytene
Answer: (a)
Q- The stage of prophase I wherein crossing over occurs is
(a) Zygotene
(b) Diplotene
(c) Leptotene
(d) Pachytene
Answer: (d)
Q- Meiosis I is reductional division and meiosis II is equational division because of
(a) Separation of chromatids
(b) Crossing over
(c) The disjunction of homologous chromosomes
(d) The pairing of homologous chromosomes
Answer: (a)
Q- Which of this bacteria is resistant to penicillin as it lacks a cell wall?
(a) Spirochetes
(b) Cyanobacteria
(c) Mycoplasmas
(d) Bdellovibrios
Answer: (c)
Q- What is a cluster of polar flagella called?
(a) Petritrichous
(b) Monotrichous
(c) Amphitrichous
(d) Lophotrichous
Answer: (d)
Q- Which of these is a cocci occurring in single or pairs?
(a) Diplococci
(b) Streptococci
(c) Tetracocci
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)
Q- Flagella in bacteria enable them to
(a) reproduce
(b) locomote
(c) Thrive in nutrient agar
(d) Adhere to tissue surfaces
Answer: (b)
Q- This about cell wall of gram-positive bacteria is true
(a) cell wall comprises of many layers
(b) the cell wall is thicker than the associated gram-negative bacteria
(c) Cell wall comprises of teichoic acids
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
Q- What is Chemotaxis?
(a) Swimming towards a bacteria
(b) Swimming away of a bacteria
(c) In the presence of a chemical compound, swimming towards or away of a bacteria
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
Q- Which of these is exposed on the outer surface of a gram-negative bacterium?
(a) Braun lipoprotein
(b) O-antigen of lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
(c) Polysaccharide portion of lipoteichoic acid (LTA)
(d) Electron transport system components
Answer: (b)
Q- The covalent bond which links the cell walls of gram-positive bacteria containing two modified sugars – N – acetylmuramic acid (NAM) and N-acetyl glucosamine (NAG) is
(a) glycosidic bond
(b) 1,4-glycosidic bond
(c) 1,6-glycosidic bond
(d) glycosidic bond
Answer: (b)
Q- Which one of these has a Chinese letter arrangement?
(a) Clostridium tetani
(b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(c) Bacillus anthracis
(d) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Answer: (d)
Q- This is analogous to mesosomes of bacteria
(a) Golgi apparatus of eukaryotes
(b) Lysosomes of eukaryotes
(c) Mitochondria of eukaryotes
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)
Q- Monascus purpureus is utilized in the production of
(a) citric acid
(b) ethanol
(c) statins
(d) streptokinase
Answer: (c)
Q- The type of fermentation observed in yeasts is
(a) acrylic fermentation
(b) lactic acid fermentation
(c) pyruvic fermentation
(d) alcoholic fermentation
Answer: (d)
Q- In lactic acid fermentation, the final electron acceptor is:
(a) Lactic acid
(b) Pyruvate
(c) Oxygen
(d) NAD
Answer: (b)
Q- Which of these is not a product of fermentation?
(a) Lactate
(b) Oxygen
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Ethanol
Answer: (b)
Q- Which of the following is not a vegetable or fruit-based fermented product?
(a) Wine
(b) Sauerkraut
(c) Beer
(d) Vinegar
Answer: (d)
Q- One of the most commonly used fermented cereal amongst these is
(a) Wheat
(b) Bread
(c) Rice
(d) Yoghurt
Answer: (b)
Q- Glucose molecule during the process of glycolysis is broken down into
(a) Four pyruvic acid
(b) Three pyruvic acid
(c) Two pyruvic acid
(d) One pyruvic acid
Answer: (c)
Q- Fermentation occurs in the
(a) presence of oxygen
(b) absence of oxygen
(c) presence of nitrogen
(d) presence of carbon
Answer: (b)
Q- The least yield of ATP is observed in
(a) aerobic respiration
(b) anaerobic respiration
(c) fermentation
(d) same in (a), (b), and (c)
Answer: (c)
Q- Anaerobic respiration by yeast produces
(a) CO2
(b) Wine and Beer
(c) Alcohol
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
Q- Which of these is the fibre obtained from the coconut’s husk
(a) Perlite
(b) Vermiculture
(c) Coir
(d) Rockwool
Answer: (c)
Q- The form of hydroponics that does not require a growing medium at all is
(a) Aquaculture
(b) Static solution culture
(c) Medium culture
(d) Aeroponics
Answer: (d)
Q- Plants with larger roots can be cultivated with which of the following types of hydroponics
(a) Ebb and flow system
(b) Drip system
(c) Nutrient Film technique
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
Q- Hydroponics is a method of cultivation of plants without the use of
(a) water
(b) air
(c) soil
(d) sunlight
Answer: (c)
Q- Which of the following is not true about hydroponics?
(a) Requires high investment
(b) Technical knowledge required
(c) Can be misused to cultivate banned crops
(d) Plants through hydroponics cannot be cultivated everywhere
Answer: (d)
Q- Salts and water in hydroponic plants are absorbed by
(a) Leaves
(b) Stem
(c) Roots
(d) Outer Layer of plants
Answer: (d)
Q- The scientist who used nutrient culture solution in hydroponic cultures was
(a) Knop
(b) Sachs
(c) Wallace
(d) Webster
Answer: (a)
Q-Deficiency of mineral nutrition does not cause which of these
(a) Chlorosis
(b) Etiolation
(c) Necrosis
(d) Shortening internode
Answer: (b)
Q- Roots of a plant in hydroponics are submerged in a solution of dissolved _________
(a) fertilizers
(b) oxygen
(c) mineral salts
(d) chemicals
Answer: (a)
Q- Which of these plants may not be suitable for cultivation through hydroponics
(a) Tomatoes
(b) Carrot
(c) Cucumber
(d) Strawberries
Answer: (b)
Q- The process by which fruits are developed without fertilization is called _________.
(a) Apomixis
(b) Parthenocarpy
(c) Parthenogenesis
(d) Self-pollination
Answer: (b)
Q- In which of the plant species, parthenocarpy takes place?
(a) Mango
(b) Banana
(c) Peach
(d) Jackfruit
Answer: (b)
Q- Which of these plants will lose their economic value if its fruits are as a result of induced parthenocarpy?
(a) Banana
(b) Orange
(c) Grape
(d) Pomegranate
Answer: (d)
Q- Which of the following plant hormones stimulates the development of parthenocarpic fruit?
(a) Auxin
(b) Cytokinin
(c) Gibberellins
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
Q- Which of the following statement is false about parthenocarpy?
(a) Fruits developed are seedless
(b) The Ovary is stimulated with pollination
(c) The process is used as it yields high quality and consistency
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)
Q- The fruit in tomato is classified into _____.
(a) Pepo
(b) Pome
(c) Drupe
(d) Berry
Answer: (d)
Q- Which of the following statement is false about Fabaceae?
(a) It was earlier mentioned to as Papilionoideae
(b) It is widely distributed across the world
(c) It is common to find plants with fibrous root system here
(d) It is a subfamily of family Leguminosae
Answer: (c)
Q- Which of the following statement is false about Hilum?
(a) Hilum lies underneath micropyle
(b) Ccar over the seed coat
(c) Growing seeds are attached to the fruit through the hilum
(d) All of the above
Answer: (a)
Q- What is the fruit of wheat and rice called?
(a) Follicle
(b) Caryopsis
(c) Siliqua
(d) Achene
Answer: (b)
Q- Which of the following is not an agricultural product?
(a) Rice
(b) Jute
(c) Alum
(d) Cotton
Answer: (c)
Q- This factor contributes to the carbon cycle
(a) fossil fuel combustion
(b) respiration
(c) photosynthesis
(d) all of these
Answer: (d)
Q- The source of carbon to plants in the carbon cycle is
(a) fossil fuels
(b) carbonate rocks
(c) atmospheric carbon dioxide
(d) all of the above
Answer: (c)
Q- The role of bacteria in the carbon cycle is
(a) Breakdown of organic compounds
(b) Chemosynthesis
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) Assimilation of nitrogen compounds
Answer: (a)
Q- In the carbon cycle, the human body returns carbon to the atmosphere through this way:
(a) formation of glucose
(b) waste products
(c) photosynthesis
(d) cellular respiration
Answer: (d)
Q- Respiration and photosynthesis are central to this process
(a) nitrogen cycle
(b) phosphorous cycle
(c) carbon cycle
(d) sulphur cycle
Answer: (c)
Q- The difference between the phosphorous cycle and carbon cycle lies in the fact that
(a) the phosphorous cycle does not include a gaseous phase but the carbon cycle does
(b) phosphorous does not enter living entities but carbon enters
(c) the phosphorous cycle includes a solid phase, the carbon cycle does not
(d) primary reservoir of the phosphorous cycle is the atmosphere, but rocks are the primary reservoirs for carbon cycle
Answer: (a)
Q- Most of the global warming is due to the perturbation of which of these cycles?
(a) Global nitrogen cycle
(b) Global carbon cycle
(c) Global water cycle
(d) All of these cycles equally contribute
Answer: (b)
Q- This carbon isotope is radioactive and very rare
(a) Carbon – 11
(b) Carbon – 12
(c) Carbon – 13
(d) Carbon – 14
Answer: (d)
Q- By this method, the majority of carbon moves from the lithosphere to the atmosphere
(a) erosion
(b) deposition
(c) weathering
(d) fossil fuel burning
Answer: (d)
Q- These entities sequester most carbon from the atmosphere
(a) Plants
(b) Archaea
(c) Bacteria
(d) Insects
Answer: (a)
Q- Haemophilia is caused by
(a) Bacteria
(b) Virus
(c) Genetic mutation
(d) Cause unknown
Answer: (c)
Q- This is a complication of haemophilia
(a) Bleeding in the head
(b) joint swelling
(c) death
(d) all of these
Answer: (d)
Q- In patients with haemophilia, which of these can increase the risk of cerebral microbleeds?
(a) cardiovascular risk factors
(b) increased age
(c) Hepatitis C infection
(d) all of these
Answer: (d)
Q- This disease falls under the same category as colourblindness in man
(a) Presbyopia
(b) Night blindness
(c) Diabetes insipidus
(d) Haemophilia
Answer: (d)
Q- This is ineffective against antibiotics
(a) bacterial infected gonorrhoea
(b) bacterial infected wound
(c) haemophilia
(d) bacterial infected throat
Answer: (c)
Q- This lacks in patients with haemophilia A
(a) X chromosome
(b) Calcium
(c) Antihemophilic factor
(d) Plasma thromboplastin
Answer: (c)
Q- Rarely females experience the physiological defect of haemophilia as they do so only when they are
(a) carrier for the defect
(b) wives of haemophilic husbands
(c) homozygous for the defect
(d) heterozygous for the defect
Answer: (c)
Q- Haemophilia is
(a) X – linked
(b) Y – linked
(c) Z – linked
(d) Autosomal
Answer: (a)
Q- Haemophilia is as a result of a lack of
(a) STH
(b) ADH
(c) AHF
(d) ACTH
Answer: (c)
Q- The reason why haemophilia is more commonly observed in human males than in females is due to
(a) the disease is due to Y-linked recessive mutation
(b) the disease is due to X-linked recessive mutation
(c) as a huge population of girls die in infancy
(d) the disease is due to X-linked dominant mutation
Answer: (b)
Q- This fungi division includes ‘Club fungi’
(a) Zygomycota
(b) Deuteromycota
(c) Basidiomycota
(d) Ascomycota
Answer: (c)
Q- This group is used to represent pathological fungi
(a) Penicillium
(b) Truffles, mushrooms and morels
(c) Smuts, rusts and moulds
(d) All of the above
Answer: (c)
Q- The fungi which derive their food directly from dead organic matter are known as
(a) Predators
(b) Decomposers
(c) Mutualists
(d) Parasitic fungi
Answer: (b)
Q- What is the name of the special hyphal tips through which parasitic fungi absorb nutrients directly from the cytoplasm of the living host?
(a) Haustoria
(b) Mildew
(c) Constricting ring
(d) All of the above
Answer: (a)
Q- Which of these entities is an indicator of the SO2 pollution of air?
(a) Puffballs
(b) Mushrooms
(c) Mosses
(d) Lichens
Answer: (d)
Q- The fungal disease – the black rust of wheat is caused by
(a) Melampsora lini
(b) Claviceps purpurea
(c) Puccinia graminis tritici
(d) Albugo candida
Answer: (c)
Q- What does ‘Perfect stage’ of a fungus indicate?
(a) indicates that it can reproduce asexually
(b) indicates that it is perfectly healthy
(c) indicates that it is able to form perfect sexual spores
(d) All of the above
Answer: (c)
Q- Death angel/death cap (amanita) and Jack O Lantern mushroom are all examples of
(a) Poisonous mushrooms
(b) Edible mushrooms
(c) None of the above
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: (a)
Q- Covered smut of Sorghum is caused by
(a) Sphacelotheca sorghi
(b) Sphacelotheca cruenta
(c) Sphacelotheca reiliana
(d) Tolyposporium ehrenbergii
Answer: (a)
Q- Oyster mushroom is an example of predator fungi that attacks
(a) Tapeworms
(b) Pinworms
(c) Platyhelminthes
(d) Roundworms
Answer: (d)
Q- Which of the following factors promotes the opening of the stomatal aperture?
(a) A decrease in guard cell turgidity
(b) When the outer walls of the guard cells contracts
(c) Radial orientation of the cellulose microfibrils in the cell wall of the guard cells
(d) The longitudinal orientation of the cellulose microfibrils in the cell wall of guard cells
Answer: (c)
Q- Which of the following is made of dead cells?
(a) Phloem
(b) Phellem
(c) Collenchyma
(d) Xylem parenchyma
Answer: (b)
Q- Which of the following statement are true about the Tyloses – the balloon-shaped structures?
(a) Characterise the sapwood
(b) Original in the lumen of vessels
(c) Are linked to the ascent sap through xylem vessels
(d) Are extensions of the xylem parenchyma cells into vessels
Answer: (d)
Q- Which of the following events takes place in a ring girdled plant?
(a) The eath of the root first
(b) The death of the shoot first
(a) The shoots and the root dies first
(d) Neither the shoot nor the root will die
Answer: (c)
Q- This is one of the most recent and valid explanations for stomatal movements.
(a) Starch hydrolysis
(b) Transpiration
(c) Guard cell photosynthesis
(d) Potassium efflux and the influx
Answer: (d)
Q- Which of the following are the primary water-conducting elements of xylem in gymnosperms?
(a) Fibres
(b) Vessels
(c) Tracheids
(d) Transfusion tissue
Answer: (c)
Q- Which of the following is not a lateral meristem?
(a) Phellogen
(b) Cork cambium
(c) Intercalary meristem
(d) Interfascicular cambium
Answer: (c)
Q- In monocots, grafting is not possible as _________
(a) They show parallel venation
(b) they have scattered vascular bundles
(c) they lack cambium
(d) they are herbaceous
Answer: (c)
Q- Vascular bundles are closed in monocots as:
(a) presence of vascular cambium between xylem and phloem
(b) presence of xylem and phloem
(c) absence of vascular cambium
(d) xylem and phloem occur in separate bundles
Answer: (c)
Q- Difference between heartwood and sapwood is that heartwood
(a) shows the presence of fibres and rays
(b) has dead and non-conducting elements
(c) lacks parenchyma and vessels
(d) is susceptible to pathogens and pests
Answer: (b)
Q- A DNA molecule in which both strands have radioactive thymidine is permitted to replicate in an environment that contains non-radioactive thymidine. What is the right number of DNA molecules which possess some radioactive thymidine post three duplications?
(a) one such molecule
(b) two such molecules
(c) four such molecules
(d) eight such molecules
Answer: (b)
Q- If the DNA strand has nitrogenous base sequence ATTGCC, the mRNA will have?
(a) ATTGCA
(b) UGGACC
(c) UAACGG
(d) ATCGCC
Answer: (c)
Q- The type of coiling in DNA is
(a) Zig-zag
(b) Left-handed
(c) Opposite
(d) Right-handed
Answer: (d)
Q- Tryptophan synthetase of E.coli, a typical bifunctional oligomeric enzyme consists of
(a) a protein A and one subunit A
(b) a protein designated A
(c) two proteins designated A and B
(d) a protein designated B
Answer: (c)
Q- This statement about enzymes is true
(a) enzymes accelerate reactions by lowering the activation energy
(b) enzymes are proteins whose three-dimensional form is key to their function
(c) enzymes do not alter the overall change in free energy for a reaction
(d) all of these
Answer: (d)
Q- The enzyme COX-1 is vital for human health in this way:
(a) it is a chemical derivative of aspirin
(b) catalyzes the hormone-production which maintains the stomach lining
(c) critical for the biosynthesis of DNA
(d) helps in the transportation of carbon dioxide in the blood
Answer: (b)
Q- The hot spots of biodiversity are characterized by:
(a) low endemicity and low threat of extinction
(b) low endemicity and high threat of extinction
(c) high endemicity and low threat of extinction
(d) high endemicity and high threat of extinction
Answer: (d)
Q- Presence of plants organised into well defined vertical layers based on their heights can be best observed in
(a) grassland
(b) tropical savannah
(c) tropical rain forest
(d) temperate forest
Answer: (c)
Q- Which of these is related to Ex-situ conservation of threatened plants and animals?
(a) Biodiversity hotspots
(b) Wildlife safari parks
(c) Amazon rainforest
(d) Himalayan region
Answer: (b)
Q- The region of biosphere reserve that is protected legally, where no human activity takes place is known as
(a) transition zone
(b) buffer zone
(c) core zone
(d) restoration zone
Answer: (c)
Q- Pick the correct match
(a) Stratification – Population
(b) Aerenchyma – Opuntia
(c) Age Pyramid – Biome
(d) Parthenium hysterophorus – a threat to biodiversity
Answer: (d)
Q- The National aquatic animal of India is
(a) Sea horse
(b) River Dolphin
(c) Blue whale
(d) Gangetic shark
Answer: (b)
Q- The nature of an enzyme is
(a) Lipid
(b) Vitamin
(c) Carbohydrate
(d) Protein
Answer: (d)
Q- In alcoholism, this enzyme is elevated
(a) acid phosphatase
(b) hepatitis
(c) serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase
(d) glutamyl transpeptidase
Answer: (d)
Q- With regards to enzyme action, this statement is incorrect
(a) Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase
(b) the substrate binds with the enzyme at its active site
(c) the non-competitve inhibitor binds the enzyme at a site distinct from that binding the substrate
(d) addition of a lot of succinates does not reverse the inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate
Answer: (d)
Q- What is the count of genes that determine the synthesis of one enzyme?
(a) One
(b) Four
(c) Eight
(d) Sixteen
Answer: (a)
Q- This enzyme was first isolated and purified in the form of crystals
(a) Urease
(b) pepsin
(c) Amylase
(d) Ribonuclease
Answer: (a)
Q- Macromolecule chitin is
(a) a simple polysaccharide
(b) sulphur containing polysaccharide
(c) phosphorous containing polysaccharide
(d) nitrogen containing polysaccharide
Answer: (d)
Q- Enzyme-driven metabolic pathways can be made more efficient by
(a) grouping enzymes into multienzyme free-floating complexes
(b) concentrating enzymes with specific cellular compartments
(c) fixing enzymes into membranes so they are adjacent to each other
(d) all of these
Answer: (d)
Q- DNA fingerprinting recognizes the differences in
(a) satellite DNA
(b) bulk DNA
(c) Repetitive DNA
(d) both (a) and (c)
Answer: (d)
Q- This force can stabilize a DNA double-helix
(a) Hydrophilic sugar-phosphate groups are found on the exterior of the helix where interaction with water occurs
(b) Hydrophobic bases are present in the interior of the helix, each base-pair is stabilized by the same number of hydrogen bonds
(c) covalent base stacking interactions may take place between neighbouring bases within the same strand in the helix
(d) non-covalent N-glycosidic bonds may form between nitrogenous bases in opposite strands in the helix
Answer: (a)
Q- In this type of DNA replication, of the two newly formed molecules, one is purely a new one and the other is an old one
(a) dispersive
(b) conservative
(c) semiconservative
(d) both (b) and (c)
Answer: (c)
Q- The process of DNA replication is affected by an enzyme known as
(a) Mutase
(b) Ligase
(c) Polymerase I
(d) Ribonuclease
Answer: (c)
Q- In DNA, the enzyme which breaks the H2 bonds is
(a) Ligase
(b) Helicase
(c) Topoisomerase
(d) Polymerase
Answer: (b)
Q- The total DNA comprises what amount of cytoplasmic DNA in cells?
(a) 95-99%
(b) 65-75%
(c) 45-50%
(d) 1-5%
Answer: (d)
Q- The bases are held together in a DNA double helix by hydrogen bonds. These bonds are
(a) Ionic bonds
(b) Covalent bonds
(c) Non-covalent bonds
(d) Van der Waals forces
Answer: (c)
Q- The most important reason for biodiversity loss in today’s age is
(a) over-exploitation
(b) co-extinctions
(c) alien species invasions
(d) fragmentation and habitat loss
Answer: (d)
Q- Biodiversity loss can lead to everything except this
(a) increased resistance to the environmental perturbance
(b) a decline in plant production
(c) increased variability in water use
(d) increased variability in pest and disease cycle
Answer: (a)
Q- Which of these is not a reason accounting for greater biodiversity of tropics?
(a) more niche specialization
(b) availability of more solar energy
(c) more time for species diversification
(d) large seasonal variations in environmental factors
Answer: (d)
Q- The main difference between the ‘Sixth extinction’ and the previous five extinctions is that, the sixth extinction
(a) mainly affects plants
(b) mainly occurs on islands
(c) occurs at a faster rate
(d) is exclusive of human activities
Answer: (c)
