1. Savlon contains
A. Cetrimide + Chlorhexidine
B. Cetrimide + Chlorhexidine + butyl alcohol
C. Cetrimide + butyl alcohol
D. Cetrimide + Cetavlon
Answer: A
2. True about ASHA are all except
A. One per 1000 rural population
B. Mobiliser of antenatal care
C. Female voluntary worker
D. Skilled birth attendant
Answer: D
3. To eradicate measles the percentage of population to be vaccinated is at least…………%
A. 70
B. 80
C. 85
D. 95
Answer: D
4. Which of the following trace element has vitamin E like action:
A. Selenium
B. Cheomycin
C. Copper
D. Zinc
Answer: A
5. True about NPCDCS is all, EXCEPT:
A. Separate centre for stroke, DM
B. Implementation in some 5 states over 10 district
C. CHC has facilities for diagnosis and treatment of CVD, Diabetes
D. Day care facilities are available at subcentre
Answer: C
6. Cluster testing technique is useful in which of the following conditions?
A. Sexually Transmitted Diseases
B. Poliomyelitis
C. Measles
D. Smallpox
Answer: A
7. Which of the following is false about intrauterine devices (IUDs)?
A. Multiload Cu-375 is a third generation intra-uterine device (IUD)
B. Copper devices are effective as post-coital contraceptives
C. LNG-20 (Mirena) has an effective life of 5 years
D. Pregnancy rates of Lippes Loop and T Cu-200 are similar
Answer: A
8. Which of the following statements about ‘Late Expanding Phase of Demographic Cycle’ is TRUE?
A. Birth Rate is lower than Death Rate
B. High Death Rate and High Birth Rate
C. Death Rate declines more than Birth Rate
D. Death Rate begins to decline while Birth Rate remains unchanged
Answer: C
9. The number of Anganwadi workers supervised by a Mukhyasevika is:
A. 10
B. 15
C. 25
D. 30
Answer: C
10. Minamata disease is caused by toxicity of:
A. Arsenic
B. Antimony
C. Lead
D. Mercury
Answer: D
11. International Red Cross was founded by:
A. Henry Dunant
B. John D Rockfeller
C. Marie Curie
D. None of the above
Answer: A
12. According to the congenital rubella syndrome eradication program, the first priority for rubella vaccination is offered to which of the following group?
A. All female children at one year
B. All non pregnant women
C. All non pregnant women of age 15 to 34
D. All adolescent non pregnant girls 15 to 24 years of age
Answer: C
13. Swajaldhara programme is associated with:
A. Provision of safe drinking water
B. Provision of food supplements for destitute women
C. Provision of relief for victim of sexual abuse
D. Provision of health care for sick tribals
Answer: A
14. Which of the following screening methods is used under RNTCP?
A. Active
B. Passive
C. Mass
D. All of the above
Answer: B
15. A temporary, provisional view held by the people on a point of view is:
A. Opinion
B. Belief
C. Practice
D. Attitude
Answer: A
16. Low glycemic index is classified as value less than:
A. 25
B. 45
C. 55
D. 65
Answer: C
17. As per RNTCP guidelines, Multi drug resistance (MDR) TB is defined as resistance to:
A. Rifampicin
B. Rifampicin and isoniazide
C. Rifampicin, isoniazide and ethambutol
D. None of the above
Answer: B
18. What is the commonest form of plague?
A. Bubonic plague
B. Pneumonic plague
C. Septicaemic plague
D. Hemorrhagic plague
Answer: A
19. Dose of oseltamivir in a child aged 9 months is:
A. 2mg/ kg twice daily for 5 days
B. 2.5 mg/ kg twice daily for 5 days
C. 3 mg/ kg twice daily for 5 days
D. 3.5 mg/ kg twice daily for 5 days
Answer: C
21. Dukoral is:
A. Oral cholera vaccine
B. Oral rotavirus vaccine
C. Oral typhoid vaccine
D. Ready to use therapeutic food
Answer: A
22. Skin fold thickness is measured in all of the following places, EXCEPT:
A. Mid triceps
B. Biceps
C. Supra pubic
D. Supra iliac
Answer: C
23. Quality of life is defined as?
A. Standard of living
B. Level of living
C. Subjective feeling of well being
D. All of the above
Answer: C
24.Web Causation of disease is most appropriate ?
A. Mostly applicable for common disease
B. Better for all the related factors associated with causation of disease
C. Epidemiological ratio
D. Helps to interrupt the risk of transmission
Answer: B
25. BEINGS Model of disease causation does not include
A. Spiritual factors
B. Social factors
C. Religious factors
D. Nutritional factors
Answer: C
26. Definition of disease control is?
A. Agent is eliminated from community
B. Agent persists in community without causing health problem
C. Agent persists in community and causing pulic health problems
D. Any of the above
Answer: B
27. Iodized salt in iodine deficiency control programme is?
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Teriary prevention
D. None
Answer: A
28. A patient prescribed crutches for residual paralysis in poliomyelitis is a type of
A. Primary prevention
B. Primordial prevention
C. Disability limitation
D. Rehabilitation
Answer: D
29. A person has lost his leg in an accident because of which he is not able to walk. This is
A. Disease
B. Disability
C. Impairment
D. Handicap
Answer: B
30. International disease surveillance is for ?
A. Hepatitis
B. Polio
C. TB
D. Leprosy
Answer: B
31. HIV prevalence can be assessed by
A. Sentinel surveillance
B. Active
C. Passive
D. Register
Answer: A
32. Principle for chinese medicine
A. Yang
B. Vin
C. Both
D. None
Answer: C
33. Father of public health
A. Cholera
B. Plague
C. Leptospirosis
D. Anthrox
Answer: A
34.The lawyer who designed the Public Health Act 1848 was ?
A. John snow
B. Edwin Chadwick
C. Joseph Lister
D. William Fan
Answer: B
35. One of the following is not true of International Classification of Disease
A. It is revised once in 10 years
B. It was devised by UNICEF
C. The 10th revision consists of 21 major chapters
D. It is accepted for National and International use
Answer: B
36. Most important component of level of living is
A. Health
B. Education
C. Occupation
D. Housing
Answer: A
37. Simplest measure of mortality ?
A. Crude death rate
B. Case fatality rate
C. Proportional mortality rate
D. Specific death rate
Answer: A
38. Limitation of case fatality rate
A. Not useful in acute infectious disease
B. Not related to virulence
C. Time period not specified
D. It is not related to survival rate
Answer: C
39. All are true about incidence, except
A. Numerator includes new cases
B. Denominator includes population at risk
C. Does not include unit of time
D. It is a rate
Answer: C
40. Which one of the following is not a special incidence rate
A. Attack rate
B. Secondary attack rate
C. Hospital admission rate
D. Standardized mortality rate
Answer: D
41. For calculation of incidence denominator is taken as?
A. Mid year population
B. Population at risk
C. Total number of cases
D. Total number of deaths
Answer: B
42. All of the following are characteristics of case control study except
A. Quick results are obtained
B. Measures incidence rate
C. Proceeds from effect to cause
D. Inexpensive study
Answer: B
43. Attributable risk means
A. Fatality of a disease
B. Disease risk ratio between exposed and non-exposed
C. Risk difference between exposed and non-exposed
D. Communicability of a disease
Answer: C
44. Advantage of case-control over a cohort study ?
A. Attributable risk can be calculated
B. Odd’s ratio can be calculated
C. For rare disease
D. b and c
Answer: D
45. Berkesonian bias is a type of ?
A. Selection bias
B. Interviever bias
C. Information bias
D. Recell bias
Answer: A
46. Problem of bias is maximum with
A. Cohort study
B. Case study
C. Case control study
D. Experimental study
Answer: C
47. Randomization is done to reduce ?
A. Recall bias
B. Selection bias
C. Berksonian bias
D. Reporting bias
Answer: B
48. Suspected cause preceding the observed effect is an example for
A. Temporal association
B. Consistency of association
C. Strength of association
D. Coherence of association
Answer: A
49.The difference between contamination and infection is that in infection-
A. Infectious agent is on body surface or on nonhuman objects
B. Infectious agent is in the body of human
C. Arthropods on the body surface
D. None
Answer: B
50. Following are examples of human “dead end” disease except
A. Bubonic plague
B. Japanies ecephalitis
C. Hydatid disease
D. Leishmaniasis
Answer: D
51. Secondary attack rate is a measure of
A. Communicability
B. Lethality
C. Strength of association
D. None
Answer: A
52. Transovarian transmission is seen in
A. Rickettsia diseases
B. Malaria
C. Filaria
D. None
Answer: A
53. Active and passive immunity should be given together in all except
A. Tetanus
B. Rabies
C. Measles
D. Hepatitis B
Answer: C
54. Post-exposure prophylaxis is indicated in ?
A. HBV
B. Rabies
C. Diphtheria
D. All
Answer: D
55. Congenital acquired immunity is NOT found in
A. Pertussis
B. Mumps
C. Rubella
D. Measles
Answer: A
56. Name of mumps vaccine is
A. Jeryl Lynn
B. Edmonshon zagreb
C. Schwatz
D. Moraten
Answer: A
57. All vaccines are given in disaster,except ?
A. Cholera
B. Influenza
C. Measles
D. Tetanus
Answer: A
58. 6th month immunization given is
A. Measles
B. DPT
C. BCG
D. All
Answer: A
59. Mass vaccination is ineffective in
A. Measles
B. Polio
C. Tetanus
D. None
Answer: D
60. The amount of bleaching powder necessary to disinfect choleric stools, is
A. 50 gm/lit
B. 75 gm/lit
C. 90 gm/lit
D. 100 gm/lit
Answer: A
61. Time between infection and maximum infectivity is known as?
A. Incubation period
B. Serial interval
C. Generation time
D. Communicable period
Answer: C
62. Recall bias is most commonly associated with which study design
A. Case control study
B. Cohort study
C. Cohort case control study
D. Cross-sectional study
Answer: A
63. Chronic carrier state is not seen in all except ?
A. Poliomyelitis
B. Measles
C. Malaria
D. Tetanus
Answer: C
64. Screening for condition recommended when ?
A. Low case fatality rate
B. Diagnostic tools not available
C. No effective treatment available
D. Early diagnosis can change disease course because of
effective treatment
Answer: D
65. If prevalence of a disease increases, what is true?
A. PPV increases
B. PPV decreases
C. No effect on PPV
D. PPV may increase or decrease
Answer: A
66. High sensitive
A. Low false positive
B. Low false negative
C. Low true negative
D. Low true positive
Answer: B
67. Screening procedure is best for Ca of
A. Prostate
B. Colon
C. Gastric
D. None
Answer: B
68. Most reliable test for screening of diabetes mellitus?
A. Random sugar
B. Fasting sugar
C. Glucose tolerance test
D. Urine sugar
Answer: B
69. Multiphasic screening means
A. Application of the two or more screening tests in combination at one time
B. Application of two or more screening tests in combination at different time
C. Application of two or more screening tests in combination at different geographical areas
D. Application of separate screening tests for different diseases
Answer: A
70. The frequently occurring value in a data is
A. Median
B. Mode
C. Standard deviation
D. Mean
Answer: B
71.Most common deviation used in social medicine is-
A. Mean
B. Range
C. Variance
D. Standard deviation
Answer: D
72. Shape of normal distribution curve?
A. J shape
B. U shape
C. Bell shape
D. None
Answer: C
73. One standard deviation in normal standard curve includes value
A. 50%
B. 68%
C. 95%
D. 100%
Answer: B
74. Height to weight is a/an
A. Association
B. Correlation
C. Proportion
D. Index
Answer: A
75. If correlation between weight and heights are very strong what will be the correlation coefficient ?
A. +1
B. > 1
C. 0
D. None
Answer: A
76. Correlation in height & weight are measured by?
A. Coefficient of variation
B. Range of variation
C. Correlation coefficient
D. None
Answer: C
77. Trends can be represented by
A. Line diagram
B. Bar diagram
C. Scatter diagram
D. None
Answer: A
78. People are separated into groups, from each group people are selected randomly. What type of sampling is this
A. Simple random
B. Stratified random
C. Systemic random
D. Cluster
Answer: B
79. Analysis done for expenditure of large proportion for small number and vice versa ?
A. ABC analysis
B. SUS analysis
C. HML analysis
D. VED analysis
Answer: A
80. Sample registration system is done once in ?
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 2 years
D. 5 years
Answer: A
81. In a Left skewed curve, true statement is?
A. Mean = Median
B. Mean < Mode
C. Mean>Mode
D. Mean = Mode
Answer: B
82. Chi-square test is for?
A. Standard error of Mean
B. Standard error of Proportion
C. Standard error of difference between 2 Means
D. Standard error of difference between Proportions
Answer: D
83. All are non-parametric tests except
A. Chi-square test
B. Sign test
C. Fisher exact test
D. Student t-test
Answer: D
84. Incubation period of influenza
A. 18 – 72 hrs
B. 1 – 6 hrs
C. 5 – 10 days
D. < 1 hrs
Answer: A
85. Rash of chickenpox can be differentiated from the rash of small pox by all except ?
A. Pleomorphic
B. Centripetal
C. Deep-seated
D. Unilocular
Answer: C
86. Chicken pox vaccine is
A. Live vaccine
B. Killed vaccine
C. Conjugated vaccine
D. None
Answer: A
87. Reconstituted measles vaccine should be used with in
A. 1 hour
B. 3 hour
C. 6 hour
D. 12 hour
Answer: A
88. India started 2-dose vaccination strategy for measles, in
A. 2008
B. 2009
C. 2010
D. 2011
Answer: C
89. Measles vaccination is given at
A. 9 months
B. At birth
C. 4 weeks
D. 8 weeks
Answer: A
90. In measeles vaccine can be given within
A. 3 months
B. 5 months
C. 7 months
D. 6 months
Answer: D
91. Incubation period of swine flu
A. 1-3 days
B. 2-3 weeks
C. 10-15 days
D. 5 weeks
Answer: A
92. Ideal temperature for DPT storage ?
A. Room temperature
B. 4 to 8°C
C. 0 to – 20°C
D. None
Answer: B
93. According to EVINCE fast breathing in 5 months child is defined as
A. >30/min
B. 40
C. 50
D. 60
Answer: C
94.Most important feature to diagnose severe pneumonia-
A. Cyanosis
B. Chest indrawing
C. Nasal flaring
D. Fast breathing
Answer: B
95. Why a TB patient is recommend a regimen of 4 drugs on 1st visit
A. To avoid emergence of persistors
B. To avoid side effects
C. To cure early
D. None
Answer: A
96. TB multidrug regimen is given to
A. Prevent resistance
B. Broad spectrum
C. Prevent side effects
D. None
Answer: A
97. 4 drugs in AKT used because
A. Decrease in resistance by mutation
B. Decrease in resistance by conjugation
C. To cure disease early
D. None
Answer: A
98.The direct BCG vaccination in India is given up to age of-
A. 10 year
B. 15 year
C. 20 year
D. None
Answer: D
99. Polio virus is shed in stool up to
A. 6 weeks
B. 8 weeks
C. 10 weeks
D. 12 weeks
Answer: D
100. All are true about polio, except
A. 99% non paralytic
B. Flaccid paralysis
C. Exaggerated tendon reflexes
D. Aseptic meningitis
Answer: C
101. Trivalent oral polio vaccine contains, type 3 virus
A. 100,000 TCID 50
B. 200,000 TCID 50
C. 300,000 TCID 50
D. 400,000 TCID 50
Answer: C
102. Criteria for defining polio epidemic are all except ?
A. 2 or more cases
B. Cases should occur in same locality
C. Caused by same virus type
D. Cases occurring during 6 month period
Answer: D
103. Which is cholera vaccine
A. Ty21 A
B. HGD -103
C. WC-rBS
D. None
Answer: C
104. ORS contains 75 mEq/l
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Glucose
D. Chloride
Answer: A
105. ORS new osmolarity is
A. 270
B. 245
C. 290
D. 310
Answer: B
106.In typhoid a permanent carrier is one who excretes bacilli for more than –
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 3 years
Answer: C
107. Incubation period of plasmodium vivax is
A. 5-7 days
B. 7-10 days
C. 10-14 days
D. 15-30 days
Answer: C
108. Malaria is transmitted in Rural areas by ?
A. Anopheles stephensi
B. Anopheles dirus
C. Anopheles culicifacies
D. None
Answer: C
109. Most common anopheles mosquito for malaria in India
A. Anopheles stephensi
B. Anopheles subpictus
C. Anopheles fluviatilis
D. Anopheles dims
Answer: A
110. Dose of chloroquine at 4-8 year
A. 150 mg
B. 300 mg
C. 450 mg.
D. 600 mg.
Answer: B
111. Prophylaxis for malaria not used
A. Doxycycline
B. Artesunate
C. Chloroquine
D. Mefloquine
Answer: B
112. Chemoprophylaxis of chloroquine includes
A. 300 mg BD/week
B. 600 mg OD/week
C. 600 mg/week
D. 300 mg OD/week
Answer: D
113. Maximum density of micro filariasis in blood is reported to be between –
A. 9 pm to 11 pm
B. 11 pm to 2 am
C. 8 pm to 10 pm
D. 2 am to 5 am
Answer: B
114. Concentration of diethylcarbamazine in DEC medicated salt in endemic filariasis is
A. 2-4 gm/kg
B. 3-6 gm/kg
C. 5- 1 0 gm/kg
D. 10- 15 gm/kg
Answer: A
115. Based on the type of life cycle, zoonoses are classified into all of the following except
A. Cyclo-zoonoses
B. Meta-zoonoses
C. Anthropozoonoses
D. Sporozoonoses
Answer: C
116. Which of the following is a zoonotic disease ?
A. Hydatid cyst
B. Malaria
C. Filariasis
D. dengue fever
Answer: A
117. Which virus is used to produce rabies vaccine ?
A. Wild
B. Street
C. Fixed
D. Live Attenuated
Answer: C
118. Schedule of intradermal rabies vaccine is ?
A. 2-2-0-1-0-1
B. 8-0-4-0-1-1
C. 8-4-4-1-0-1
D. 2-0-2-0-0
Answer: D
119.Site for injection of cell culture rabies vaccine-
A. Gluteus
B. Subcutaneous
C. Deltoid
D. Anterior abdominal wall
Answer: C
120. Yellow fever aedes agypti index should be ?
A. <1%
B. < 5%
C. <10%
D. < 20%
Answer: A
121. The distance from airport or seaport which has to be free from mosquitoes is
A. 400m
B. 500m
C. 1 km
D. 100m
Answer: A
122. The international quarantine period for yellow fever as approved by the Government of India is ?
A. 6 days
B. 9 days
C. 10 days
D. 12 days
Answer: A
123. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis is caused by
A. L-braziliensis
B. L. tropica
C. L. donovani
D. L-orientalis
Answer: A
124. Epidemic typhus cause & vector
A. Rickettessiae prowazekii & Louse
B. R. typhi & mite
C. R. conorii & tick
D. R. akari & mite
Answer: A
125. Vector of scrub typhus in man ?
A. O. tsutsugamushi
B. Leptotrombidium deliense
C. Lice
D. Pediculus humanus
Answer: B
126. To achieve neonatal tetanus elimination, incidence of neonatal tetanus per 1000 live births should be reduced to less than
A. 0.1
B. 02
C. 0.5
D. 1.0
Answer: A
127. “Multibacillary” is a spectrum of disease, seen in
A. Leprosy
B. TB
C. Tetanus
D. Trachoma
Answer: A
128. 2 yrs duration in terms of leprosy is with regard to
A. Rx of paucibacillary leprosy
B. Rx of multibacillary leprosy
C. Post Rx surveillance of paucibacillary leprosy
D. Post Rx surveillance of multibacillary leprosy
Answer: C
129. Life span of cut380a A. 10 yrs
B. 20 yrs
C. 1 yrs
D. None
Answer: A
130. Copper T is ideally inserted at
A. Just before menstruation
B. On the 26th day
C. Just after menstruation
D. On the 14th day
Answer: C
131. Absolute contraindication for IUD (Intra Uterine Contraceptive Device) are all except ?
A. Pregnancy
B. Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding
C. Pelvic inflammatory disease
D. Uterine malformation
Answer: D
132.All of the following are postcoital contraception methods except-
A. Mifepristone
B. IUD
C. Levonorgestrol
D. Barrier methods
Answer: D
133. Mean birth weight in India
A. 2.0 – 2.4 kg
B. 2.4 – 2.5 kg
C. 2.5 – 2.9 kg
D. > 3.0 kg
Answer: C
134. MCH care is assessed by
A. Death rate
B. Birth rate
C. Maternal mortality rate
D. Anemia in mother
Answer: C
135. Quarter of postnatal mother death is caused by ?
A. Infection
B. Bleeding
C. Eclampsia
D. Anemia
Answer: B
136. Maternal mortality is maximum in which period
A. Antepartum
B. Peripartum
C. Postpartum
D. None
Answer: B
137.Maximum maternal mortality during peripartum period occurs at –
A. Last trimester
B. During labor
C. Immediate post-partum
D. Delayed post-partum
Answer: C
138. Calculate IMR if in a population of 100000 there are 3000 live births in a year and 150 infant deaths in the same year
A. 75
B. 18
C. 5
D. 50
Answer: D
139. Which is the least common cause among these of infant mortality in India
A. Infections
B. Prematurity
C. Birth injuries
D. Congenital malformations
Answer: C
140. Best indicator of availability, utilization & effectiveness of health services
A. IMR
B. MMR
C. Hospital bed OCR
D. DALY
Answer: A
141. Most common cause of infant mortality?
A. LBW
B. Injury
C. ART
D. Tetanus
Answer: A
142. Perinatal mortality rate include which of the following?
A. Abortions + Still birth early neonatal deaths
B. Still birth + early neonatal deaths
C. Abortions + early neonatal deaths
D. Deaths up to 42 dys after birth
Answer: B
143. Human milk with respect to cow milk has
A. Less fat
B. Less protein
C. Less carbohydrate
D. a and b
Answer: D
144. What is absent in breast milk ?
A. Vit K
B. Vit C
C. Lactose
D. Vit A
Answer: A
145. Colostrums has in compared to normal milk ?
A. Decreased K
B. Decreased Na
C. Increased proteins
D. Increased calories
Answer: C
146. In normal delivery, breast feeding should be started?
A. 6 hour after delivary
B. 2 hour after delivary
C. 4 hour after delivary
D. None
Answer: D
147. ICDS was launched at
A. Community development block
B. Town level
C. City level
D. District level
Answer: A
148. Nutritional supplement for two year old child under ICDS scheme is
A. 200 Calorie
B. 300 Calorie
C. 400 Calorie
D. 500 Calorie
Answer: D
149. Direct cash transfer scheme to adolescent girls is covered under
A. Indira Gandhi scheme
B. Rajiv Gandhi scheme
C. CSSM
D. RCH
Answer: B
150. Child protection scheme is under which ministry
A. Ministry of health and family welfare
B. Ministry of Social welfare
C. Ministry of women and child development
D. Ministry of education
Answer: C
151. Homes where children are placed under the care of doctors and psychiatrists are called
A. Foster homes
B. Borstals
C. Remand homes
D. Child guidance clinics
Answer: C
152. Ujjwala is for
A. Child abuse
B. Child trafficking
C. Child labour
D. None
Answer: B
153. Perinatal mortality includes deaths
A. After 28 weeks of gestation
B. First 7 days after birth
C. Both
D. From period of viability
Answer: C
154. Energy requirement in late pregnancy
A. 2500 cal
B. 1400 cal
C. 1000 cal
D. 1000 cal
Answer: A
155. Protein quality assessment is best done by ?
A. NPU
B. Biological value
C. Digestibillity coefficient
D. Amino acid score
Answer: A
156. The highest concentrations of Vitamin A is seen in
A. Polar bear liver
B. Cod liver oil
C. Shark liver oil
D. Papaya
Answer: B
157. ‘Vitamin A requirement in infant is
A. 350 g
B. 600 g
C. 800 g
D. 1000 g
Answer: A
158. Jowar is Pellogerogenic due to excess of
A. Leucine
B. Lysine
C. Tryptophan
D. Methionine
Answer: A
159. For every 100 kilocalories, vitamin B, required is
A. 0.05 mg
B. 0.5 mg
C. 5.0 mg
D. 1.0 gn
Answer: A
160. Daily iron requirement in healthy Indian male is
A. 35 mg
B. 17 mg
C. 10 mg
D. 5 mg
Answer: B
161. Iodine RDA is
A. 300 microgram
B. 500 microgram
C. 150 microgram
D. 50 microgram
Answer: C
162. Iodine deficiency control programme ?
A. Health education
B. Water testing
C. Fortification of salt
D. None
Answer: C
163. Iodine comes in iodine salt. Required at production and consumer level respectively
A. 20 & 10 PPNI
B. 30 & 10 PPM
C. 30& 15 PPM
D. 30 & 20 PPM
Answer: C
164. Maximum calcium is seen in
A. Jowar
B. Bajara
C. Ragi
D. None
Answer: C
165. Which nut has highest protein content
A. Walnut
B. Groundnut
C. Almond
D. Coconut
Answer: B
166. Students receive how much cereal /day in mid day meal prog
A. 50 gm
B. 100 gm
C. 150 gm
D. 75 gm
Answer: D
167. Mid day meal programmed comes under ?
A. Ministry of Social Welfare
B. Ministry of education
C. Ministry of Human Resources Developments
D. None
Answer: B
168. Calcium requirement above the normal during the first six month of lactation is
A. 400Mgiday
B. 550mg/day
C. 600mg/day
D. 750mg/day
Answer: C
169. Adult non-pregnant female requires, Calcium per day
A. 400 mg
B. 600 mg
C. 800 mg
D. 1000 mg
Answer: B
170. The ICDS scheme is sponsored by
A. Ministry of health & family welfare
B. Ministry of Social welfare
C. Ministry of education
D. None
Answer: B
171. Most common cause of pollution of drinking water
A. Domestic waste
B. Industrial waste
C. Radioactive substances
D. Agricultural pollutants
Answer: B
172. Which of the following is water-related disease
A. Yellow fever
B. Scabies
C. Cholera
D. Dysentery
Answer: A
173. True about slow sand filter is
A. Occupies less space
B. More expensive
C. Requires longer duration
D. Sand size 0.4 – 0.7 mm
Answer: C
174. Test for coliform count ?
A. Eijkman test
B. Casoni’s test
C. Nitrate test
D. Urease test
Answer: A
175. Above which level of heat stress index it is not possible to work comfortably
A. 20 – 40
B. 40 – 60
C. 60 – 80
D. 80 – 100
Answer: B
176. Which of the following is not a indoor air pollutant?
A. Carbon monoxide
B. Nitrous oxide
C. Radon
D. Mercury
Answer: D
177. Which agency monitors air quality in India ?
A. Central pollution control board
B. Central air quality board
C. Central public works dept
D. None
Answer: A
178. In winter, water vapours and pollutants comes to lie in the lowermost layer of atmosphere by
A. Acid rain
B. Greenhouse effect
C. Temperature inversion
D. None
Answer: C
179. The source of endogenous radiation is
A. Radon
B. Potassium
C. Thorium
D. Uranium
Answer: B
180. The maximum permissible level of occupational exposure to radiation is…per year
A. 5 rad
B. 2 rad.
C. 10 rad
D. 50 rad
Answer: A
181. Psychrometer Psychrometer is used to measure
A. Humidity
B. Air velocity
C. Room temperature
D. Radiant temperature
Answer: A
182. Not safe disposal but gelid for soil building
A. Incineration
B. Controlled tipping
C. Composting
D. None
Answer: C
183. The heart to the activated sludge process is ?
A. Primary sedimentation tank
B. Sludge digester
C. Aeration tank
D. Final settling tank
Answer: C
184. Transovarian transmission of infection occurs in
A. Fleas
B. Ticks
C. Mosquitoes
D. b and c
Answer: D
185.Transovarian transmission Is seen in which infection –
A. Plague
B. Guinea
C. Yellow fever
D. All
Answer: C
186. Study of physical, social and cultural history of man is known as?
A. Social science
B. Anthropology
C. Acculturation
D. Sociology
Answer: B
187. Sociology
A. Study of human relationship
B. Study of behavior
C. Both
D. None
Answer: C
188. Study of person to person interrelationship in a society Economics
A. Economics
B. Suciology
C. Psychology
D. Anthropology
Answer: B
189. Custom is defined as
A. Established pattern of behavior
B. Prescribed order of cremony
C. Ban to a particular activity
D. None
Answer: A
190. Chronological age 10yrs, mental age 4yrs. What that person called as?
A. Idiot
B. Imbecile
C. Normal
D. Genius
Answer: B
191. Objectives of National Mental Health programme are all accept –
A. Promote community participation
B. Promote application of mental health knowledge
C. Provides free antipsychotic drugs to all
D. Provide accessibility of mental health care
Answer: C
192. Effect of environment on genes is called?
A. Positive Eugenics
B. Negative Eugenics
C. Euthenics
D. Enthenics
Answer: C
193. Hardly-weinberg law is related to
A. Population genetics
B. Health economics
C. Social medicine
D. None of the above
Answer: A
194. Acculturation is?
A. Traige
B. Cultural changes due to socialisation
C. Attitude
D. Belief
Answer: B
195. Amount of waste infectious produced in hospitals?
A. 45%
B. 65%
C. 80%
D. 100%
Answer: A
196. Which waste cannot be incinerated
A. Anatomic waste
B. Microbiology waste
C. Halogenated plastic
D. Infectious waste
Answer: C
197. Best for Incineration of infectiouswaste ?
A. Double – chamber
B. Single – chamber
C. Triple – chamber
D. None
Answer: A
198. Which is the calamity with most amount of damage
A. Flood
B. Earthquake
C. Landslides
D. Volcanoes
Answer: A
199. True about triage
A. Yellow-least priority
B. Red -morbidity
C. Green-ambulatory
D. Blue-ambulatory
Answer: C
200. High priority in triage is for
A. Red color
B. Yellow color
C. Green color
D. Black color
Answer: A
201. Which of the following is the nodal center for disaster management
A. PHC
B. CHC
C. Control room
D. None
Answer: C
202. Black color in triage
A. Death
B. Transfer
C. High priority
D. Low priority
Answer: A
203. Propaganda Is defined as
A. Forcing of knowledge into mind
B. Active aquiring of knowledge
C. Requiring knowledge after thinking
D. Training of people to use judgment before acting
Answer: A
204. All are true about panel discussion except ?
A. Two way discussion
B. 6 to 20 members participates
C. Chief members initiates
D. Each one prepares the topic of discussion
Answer: B
205. Multi-purpose worker scheme in India was introduced following the recommendation of ?
A. Srivastava Committee
B. Bhore Committee
C. Kartar Singh Committee
D. fsludaliar Committee
Answer: C
206. Bajaj committee in 1986 proposed?
A. Multipurpose health worker
B. Manpower and planning
C. Rural Health Service
D. Integrated health services
Answer: B
207. Millennium developmental goal for HIV/ AIDS ?
A. 6
B. 3
C. 8
D. 1
Answer: A
208. A trained dal caters for a population of
A. 1000
B. 2000
C. 3000
D. 4000
Answer: A
209. Kit B is given at
A. PHC
B. Subccnter
C. CHC
D. FRU level
Answer: B
210. All are principles of primary health care except?
A. Intersectoral coordination
B. Community participation
C. Appropriate technology
D. Decentralised approach
Answer: D
211. NVBDCP includes all except?
A. Malaria
B. Filarial
C. Kala azar
D. Chikungunya
Answer: D
212. National Leprosy Eradication Programme was started in
A. 1949
B. 1955
C. 1973
D. 1983
Answer: D
213. Revised strategy for NPCB includes all except ?
A. Fixed facility surgery
B. IOL implantation for cataract
C. Mobile surgical camps
D. Uniform distribution
Answer: C
214. Under RCH programme, intervention done in selected districts
A. Immunization
B. Treatment of STD
C. ORS therapy
D. Vitamin A supplementation
Answer: B
215. IMNCI target group
A. Upto 5yrs
B. Upto 10 yrs
C. Upto 15 yrs
D. Upto 20 yrs
Answer: A
216. ASHA gets remuneration on all except ?
A. Institutional delivery
B. Zero dose of OPV and BCG
C. Recording birth weight
D. Birth registration
Answer: B
217. Indira Gandhi Matritva Sahyog Yojana is for ?
A. > 65 years old
B. > 50 years old
C. > 30 years old
D. > 19 years old
Answer: D
218. Under National Cancer control Programme, oncology wings were sanctioned to
A. Regional Cancer institutes
B. District Hospitals
C. Medical college Hospitals
D. Voluntary Agenecies treating cancer patients
Answer: C
219. What is the BMI for an obese person:
A. Less than 18.5
B. 18.5-24.9
C. 25-29.9
D. More than 30
Answer: D
220. True for epidemiological triad
A. Time, place, person
B. Agent, host, environment
C. Disease, prevention, treatment
D. Agent, man, disease
Answer: B
221. BCG vaccine is diluted with: [September 2005]
A. Normal saline
B. Distilled water
C. Dextrose
D. Colloids
Answer: A
222. Measles is infective for: [March 2009]
A. One day before and 4 days after rash
B. Four days before and five days after rash
C. Entire incubation period
D. Only during scabs falling
Answer: B
223. Denominator for calculating perinatal mortality rate is: [September 2009]
A. 1000 births
B. 1000 live births
C. 1000 still births
D. 1000 population
Answer: B
224. Richest source of vitamin D is: [September 2003]
A. Fish
B. Soyabean
C. Halibut liver oil
D. Vegetables
Answer: C
225. Differences between human milk and cow milk are all of the following except: [September 2005]
A. Cow milk has comparatively more fat
B. Cow milk has comparatively more protein
C. Cow milk has comparatively more calcium
D. Cow milk is iron deficient
Answer: D
226. Amount of proteins in human milk (in gms): [September 2007]
A. 1.1
B. 2.2
C. 3.3
D. 4.4
Answer: A
227. Vitamin K is required for: [March 2005]
A. Chelation
B. Transamination
C. Carboxylation
D. None of the above
Answer: C
228. All are true for ASHA worker EXCEPT: [March 2013]
A. Informs about birth and deaths in her village to PHC
B. Education atleast till 4th class or higher
C. Local resident
D. Works per 1000 people of an area
Answer: B
229. A continuous quantitative data can be depicted with the help of: [September 2009]
A. Bar diagram
B. Pie chart
C. Histogram
D. Pictogram
Answer: C
230. Group of 4-8 experts talking in front of a large group of audience is known as: [September 2011]
A. Symposium
B. Workshop
C. Seminar
D. Panel discussion
Answer: D
231. Preobesity is defined as a BMI of:
A. 18.5-24.9
B. 25-29.9
C. 35-39.9
D. 40-44.9
Answer: B
232. Which of the following is Amphixenoses ?
A. Anthrax
B. Rabies
C. Trypanosoma cruzi
D. Salmonella
Answer: C
233. Health index characteristics are all except ?
A. Validity
B. Reliability
C. Affordability
D. Feasibility
Answer: C
234. Screening is a type of ?
A. Primordial prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Primary prevention
D. Tertiary prevention
Answer: B
235. Net reproduction rate is ?
A. Number of live births per 1000 mid-year population
B. Number of live birth per 1000 women of child bearing age
C. Number of daughters a newborn girl will have during life time
D. None of the above
Answer: C
236. Third generation IUCD ?
A. Mirena
B. Nova-T
C. Lippe’s loop
D. CuT-200
Answer: A
237. In positively skewed deviation ?
A. Mean = Median = Mode
B. Mean > Medians > Mode
C. Mode > Median > Mean
D. None of the above
Answer: B
238. Influenza pandemic is
A. Seasonal trend
B. Cyclical trend
C. Secular tred
D. None of the above
Answer: B
239. Not true about population pyramid ?
A. India has broad base
B. India has narrow base
C. India has narrow apex
D. Developing countries have bulge in the center
Answer: B
240. In malaria control, insecticide used for insectiside treated bed nets (ITBN)
A. Deltamethrin
B. Malathion
C. Lindone
D. Fenitrothion
Answer: A
241. Kanawati index is used for ?
A. Air population
B. PEM
C. Obesity definition
D. Infectivity
Answer: B
242. Gomez classification is based on ?
A. Weight retardation
B. Height retardation
C. Mid arm circumference
D. Stunting
Answer: A
243. Human anatomical wastes are treated/disposed by ?
A. Autoclaving
B. Chemical disinfection
C. Incineration
D. Microwaving
Answer: C
244. Cytotoxic drugs are treated/disposed by ?
A. Autoclaving
B. Chemical disinfection
C. Incineration
D. Microwaving
Answer: C
245. In calendar method of contraception, first day of fertile period is?
A. 10th day of shortest menstural cycle
B. 18th day of shortest menstural cycle
C. 10th day of longest menstural cycle
D. 18th day of longest menstural cycle
Answer: A
246. Most common type of polio is ?
A. Non-paralytic polio
B. Paralytic polio
C. Abortive illness
D. Inapparent infection
Answer: D
247. Mortality of rabies is ?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
Answer: D
248. Kala-azar is transmitted by ?
A. Reduvid bug
B. Sandfly
C. Tsetse fly
D. Mosquito
Answer: B
249. Fluoride helps in ?
A. Vision
B. Dentition
C. Myelination
D. Joint stability
Answer: B
250. Cholera vaccination is indicated ?
A. To control epidemics
B. For travellers
C. In endemic areas
D. In Neonates
Answer: C
.
251. Screening is not recommended if ?
A. Prevalence of disease is high
B. Life expectancy can be prolonged by early diagnosis
C. Diagnostic test should be available
D. Diseases with no latent period
Answer: D
252. To determine the endemicity of hepatitis B, what should be measured ?
A. HBsAg
B. HBcAg
C. HBeAg
D. Anti-HBeAg
Answer: A
253. An epidemiologist visits a village and wants to collect data for recent parasitic activity. What should be measure ?
A. Spleen rate
B. Infant parasite rate
C. Slide positivity rate
D. Slide falciparum rate
Answer: B
254. Recommended daily dietary requirement of folate (folic acid) in children ?
A. 80-120 μg
B. 200 μg
C. 400 μg
D. 600 μg
Answer: A
255. Minimum number of ANC visits required as per 2010 MOHFW (Ministry of Health and Family Welfare) guidelines ?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D
256. WHO defines adolescent age between ?
A. 10-19 years of age
B. 10-14 years of age
C. 10-25 years of age
D. 9-14 years of age
Answer: A
257. All are true about DOTS, except ?
A. Short course of chemotherapy
B. Drugs are given free of cost
C. Supervised drugs intake in intensive phase
D. Daily treatment is recommended
Answer: D
258. India causing maximum death ?
A. Drowning
B. Road traffic accident
C. Burns
D. Poisoning
Answer: B
259. Hepatitis A vaccine available ?
A. Live attenuated
B. Killed (Inactivated)
C. Both live and inactivated
D. Subunit vaccine
Answer: C
260. Extra energy, needed per day during pregnancy?
A. 150 Kcal
B. 200 Kcal
C. 300 Kcal
D. 350 Kcal
Answer: D
261. Vagabond disease is transmitted by ?
A. Louse
B. Mite
C. Tick
D. Black Fly
Answer: A
262. Recommended content of Iodine in salt at production level ?
A. 10 ppm
B. 15 ppm
C. 20 ppm
D. 30 ppm
Answer: D
263. False about transmission of Rubella ?
A. Droplet infection
B. Vertical transmission
C. Infection in early pregnancy causes milder disease
D. Fetus affected in late pregnancy may have only deafness
Answer: C
264. Interval between primary and secondary cases ?
A. Latent period
B. Communicable period
C. Serial interval
D. Generation time
Answer: C
265. Best way to dispose e-waste is?
A. Burning
B. Incineration
C. In a landfill
D. Recycling
Answer: D
266. Vector for transmission of sleeping sickness ?
A. Sandfly
B. Black fly
C. Tse-tse fly
D. Hard tick
Answer: C
267. Definition of relapse in TB ?
A. A patient who returns sputum positive after leaving treatment for at least 2 months.
B. A pateint who returns sputum positive which was cured by previous treatment
C. A patient who remains sputum positive after 5 months of treatment
D. None of the above
Answer: B
268. According to DOTS-PLUS guidelines 2013 treatment of multidrug resistance TB includes all except ?
A. Total duration 24-27 months
B. Intensive phase – 6 drugs
C. Continutation phase – 2 drugs
D. Intensive phase 6-9 months
Answer: C
269. Notifiable diseases to WHO are all except ?
A. Cholera
B. Plague
C. Yellow fever
D. Tuberculosis
Answer: D
270. Continuous scrutiny of health related factors is called ?
A. Isolation
B. Surveillancec
C. Monitoring
D. Quarntine
Answer: B
271. Natural history of disease is studied with ?
A. Longitudinal studies
B. Cross-sectional studies
C. Both
D. None
Answer: A
272. India belongs to which stage of the demographic cycle ?
A. Slow stationary
B. High stationary
C. Early stationary
D. Late expanding
Answer: D
273. RCH-II major strategies are all except ?
A. Essential obstetric care
B. Emergency obstetric care
C. Family planning
D. Strengthening referral system
Answer: C
274. Disability adjusted life year (DALY) is a measure of ?
A. Life expectancy
B. Effectiveness of treatment
C. Quality of life
D. Human development
Answer: B
275. Which of the following is used to represent continuous (quantitative) data ?
A. Bar diagram
B. Pie chart
C. Histogram
D. Map diagram
Answer: C
276. Amino acid deficient in both Wheat and Maize ?
A. Lysine
B. Threonine
C. Tryptophan
D. Methionine
Answer: A
277. Risk period for maximum fetal damage by congenital rubella ?
A. First trimester of pregnancy
B. Second trimester of pregnancy
C. Third trimester of pregnancy
D. Risk is same throughout the pregnancy
Answer: A
278. Medical audit is done ?
A. To improve patients care
B. For doctor’s benefit
C. For hospital staff management
D. For decreasing cost of treatment
Answer: A
279. Post exposure prophylaxis is given in all except ?
A. Rabies
B. Chickenpox
C. Measles
D. Typhoid
Answer: D
280. Good sources of vitamin ‘C’ are all except ?
A. Amala
B. Lime
C. Guava
D. Egg
Answer: D
281. The validity of a test denotes ?
A. Precision
B. Accuracy
C. Reproducibility
D. Reliability
Answer: B
282. Maximum protein is found in ?
A. Egg
B. Soyabean
C. Rice
D. Wheat
Answer: B
283. STOP TB Strategy was lauched in ?
A. 2002
B. 2006
C. 2010
D. 2013
Answer: B
284. One TB unit is recommended for how much population in Hilly areas ?
A. 50,000
B. 100,000
C. 150,000
D. 250,000
Answer: D
285. Durkheim work was related to ?
A. Recommendation of multipurpose worker
B. Management in Health manpower
C. Division of labor
D. Integratation of medical and health services
Answer: C
286. AFP surveillance registry indicator is ?
A. Number of AFP cases reported
B. Number of wild polio-virus positive cases
C. Number of non-polio AFP < 5 years
D. Number of non-polio AFP < 15 years
Answer: A
287. The most common cause of blindness in India is ?
A. Cataract
B. Trachoma
C. Refractive errors
D. Vitamin A deficiency
Answer: A
288. All are true about epidemiological features of cholera except ?
A. Epidemic is self limiting
B. Poor sanitation is a cause of epidemic
C. El Tor biotype has decreased endemicity
D. Onset of epidemic is abrupt
Answer: C
289. Incidence is calculated by ?
A. Cross sectional study
B. Cohort study
C. Case control study
D. None
Answer: B
290. A problem village is one where ?
A. Source of water > 1.6 km away
B. Water available > 15 meters depth
C. Excess of fluoride in water
D. All of the above
Answer: D
291. Most common presentation of mumps ?
A. Pain and lacrimation of eye
B. Pain and swelling of parotid glands
C. Pain and swelling of submandibular and sublingual glands
D. Aseptic meningitis
Answer: B
292. Prevalence of Influenza in India ?
A. 10 per 10000 population
B. 10 per 100000 population
C. 10 per 1000 population
D. Data regarding prevalence of influenza is not adequate
Answer: D
293. Billings method of contraception is based on ?
A. Change in temperature
B. Change in cervical mucus
C. Safe period (calendar method)
D. Coitus interruptus
Answer: B
294. In epidemics measles vaccine is to be given within how many days of exposure ?
A. 3 days
B. 7 days
C. 10 days
D. 15 days
Answer: A
295. Yellow bag is used for
A. Waste sharp
B. Cytotoxic drugs
C. Animal waste
D. Chemical waste
Answer: C
296. Isolation is not done in ?
A. Cholera
B. Diphtheria
C. Mumps
D. Hepatitis
Answer: C:D
297. Association of Two variables explained by 3rd variable is ?
A. Spurious association
B. Indirect association
C. Direct association
D. Causal association
Answer: B
298. Numerator in negative predictive value ?
A. True positive
B. False positive
C. True negative
D. False negative
Answer: C
299. Stage of contraction of family starts at ?
A. Marriage
B. Birth of first child
C. Birth of last child
D. Leaving home of first child
Answer: D
300. Clinical audit means ?
A. Measuring hospital records
B. Measuring current patients care against explicit criteria
C. Measuring input-output analysis
D. Measuring shortest time needed to complete task
Answer: B
301. Nutrient which is lost maximum in polished rice?
A. Proteins
B. Thiamine
C. Ascorbic acid
D. Calcitriol
Answer: B
302. Zinc supplement given in 12 month baby
A. lgm/day
B. 10 mg/day
C. 5 mg/day
D. 15 mg/day
Answer: C
303. Which line of death certificate represent major antecedent cause of death
A. Ia
B. Ib
C. Ic
D. II
Answer: C
304. Biological value of protein is
A. Increase in weight per unit protein consumed
B. Percentage of ingested protein retained inside the body
C. Percentage of absorbed nitrogen retained
D. Percentage of energy provided by a protein of food
Answer: C
305. RDA of zinc in a child ?
A. 10 mg
B. 20 mg
C. 6-8 mg
D. 4-5 mg
Answer: C
306. Mental health programme was started in?
A. 1982
B. 1987
C. 1990
D. 1995
Answer: A
307. Test used to assess quantitative observations before and after an intervention ?
A. Unpaired T-test
B. Paired T-test
C. Chi-square test
D. Fisher-T-test
Answer: B
308. Virus not sensitive to disinfection by chlorination
A. Rotavirus
B. Norwalk virus
C. Poliovirus
D. None
Answer: C
309. Vaccine which should not be frozen
A. OPV
B. Measles
C. HBV
D. Yellow fever
Answer: C
310. Koplik spot is pathognomic of which infection ?
A. Rubella
B. Influenza
C. Mumps
D. Measles
Answer: D
311. Spread of chicken pox is maximum ?
A. After formation of scab
B. Just before and after onset of rash
C. One week before onset of rash
D. During convelescence
Answer: B
312. Breast milk is deficient in which vitamin
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B1
C. Vitamin K
D. Vitamin C
Answer: C
313. Percentage of women 15-24 years age group in India ?
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40%
Answer: B
314. Under MCH programme, adult IFA tablet contains ?
A. 100 mg elemental iron and 0.1 mg FA
B. 100 mg elemental iron and 0.5 mg FA
C. 20 mg elemental iron and 0.1 mg FA
D. 20 mg elemental iron and 0-5 mg FA
Answer: B
315. Amplifier for Japanese encephalitis ?
A. Horse
B. Pigs
C. Dogs
D. Monkey
Answer: B
316. IQ in mild mental retardation is
A. 50-70
B. 35-49
C. 20-34
D. < 20
Answer: A
317. Most common type of mental retardation ?
A. Mild
B. Moderate
C. Severe
D. Profound
Answer: A
318. Disease associated with excessive maize diet ?
A. Wernicke’s encephalopathy
B. Pellagra
C. Beri-Beri
D. Scurvy
Answer: B
319. Prevalence of HIV infection in antenatal women is less than 1% and in high risk population is less than 5%. The state belongs to ?
A. Group I
B. Group II
C. Group III
D. Group IV
Answer: C
320. In AIDs control programme, For treatment of STDs, blue colored pack is used for treatment of
A. Urethral discharge
B. Scrotal swelling
C. Genital ulcers
D. Ano-rectal discharge
Answer: C
321. Not true about vaccines ?
A. Two live vaccines can be given at same time at different sites
B. Two live vaccines at same site should be given at least 3 weeks apart
C. In vaccine vial monitor if the color of inner square is same as outer background, vaccine is good for use
D. Live and killed vaccines can be given together
Answer: C
322. A patient comes with CLW on knee 10×2 cm, 12 hours old. He had taken TT 6 months back for another injury. What should be done ?
A. Nothing should be done
B. One dose of TT with immunoglobulin
C. Full course of TT
D. Full course of TT with immunoglobulin
Answer: B
323.Lack of ability of a part to do normal function is called as ?
A. Impairment
B. Disease
C. Disability
D. Handicap
Answer: C
324. ICDS meals for pregnant women provides ?
A. 300 calories & 10 grams protein
B. 500 calories & 15 grams protein
C. 600 calories & 10 grams protein
D. 600 calories & 20 grams protein
Answer: D
325. Mid-day meals provided in schools provide ?
A. 1/2 of total calories & 1/2 of protein
B. 1/3 of total calories & 1/2 of protein
C. 1/2 of total calories & 1/3 of protein
D. 1/3 of total calories & 1/4 of protein
Answer: B
326. Which drug is not included in RNTCP regime for MDR TB ?
A. Cycloserine
B. Ethionamide
C. Levofloxacin
D. PAS
Answer: D
327. Primordial prevention is done to prevent development of ?
A. Disease
B. Risk factors
C. Impairment
D. Disability
Answer: B
328. First step in epidemic done by an epidemiologist?
A. Identity the cases
B. Confirm the diagnosis
C. Identify the prone people
D. Identify the causative factors
Answer: B
329. Formula to calculate sensitivity of a screening test ?
A. True positive/true positive + false negative
B. True negative/true positive + false negative
C. True positive/true negative + false positive
D. True negative/true negative + false positive
Answer: A
330. False regarding larvae of anopheles ?
A. Long siphon tube
B. Parallel to water
C. Palmate hairs
D. None of the above
Answer: A
331. Recommended level of fluoride in drinking water?
A. 0.2-0.5 mg/L
B. 0-5-0.8 mg/L
C. 0.8-1.2 mg/L
D. 1.2-2.0 mg/L
Answer: B
332. Dental fluorosis occurs if fluoride level is more than
A. 0 5 mg/dl
B. 1-5 mg/dl
C. 3 mg/dl
D. 6 mg/dl
Answer: B
333. Most common cancer in males in India ?
A. Ca rectum
B. Ca oral cavity
C. Ca testis
D. Ca bladder
Answer: B
334. Blindness criteria in India ?
A. Vision < 3/60
B. Vision < 6/60
C. Vision < 12/60
D. Vision < 18/60
Answer: B
335. Basic laboratory service is not available at PHC for which disease ?
A. TB
B. Malaria
C. Syphilis
D. Leprosy
Answer: D
336. Polio is said to be eradicated if no case of polio by wild poliovirus occurs in an area for ?
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 4 years
Answer: C
337. Dose of rabies immunoglobulin for postexposure prophylaxis ?
A. 10 IU/kg
B. 20 IU/kg
C. 30 IU/kg
D. 40 1U/kg
Answer: B
338. An american wants prophylaxis for Hepatitis-A before coming to India for 10 days. What should be given ?
A. Two dose of HAV vaccine
B. immunoglobulin
C. Antiviral drug prophylaxis
D. Nothing is required
Answer: B
339. Least Neonatal mortality rate is seen in
A. Delhi
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Karnataka
D. Maharashtra
Answer: B
340. As per RNTCP guidelines first do in TB suspect case ?
A. Chest X-ray
B. Sputum culture
C. Sputum microscopy
D. Start short-course chemotherapy
Answer: C
341. Case control study is an example of ?
A. Prospective study
B. Retrospective study
C. Combined retrospective and prospective study
D. Study at one point of time
Answer: B
342. Example of case control study (risk factor and disease/outcome) ?
A. Maternal smoking and congenital malformation
B. Vaginal adenocarcinoma and intrauterine exposure to DES
C. Thalidomide exposure and teratogenicity
D. All of the above
Answer: D
343. Not true about propagated epidemics ?
A. Gradual rise
B. Gradual fall
C. Person to person transmission
D. No secondary wave
Answer: D
344. Pulses contain all except ?
A. Lysine
B. Cystein
C. Arginin
D. Protein
Answer: B
345. True about measles are all except ?
A. Koplik’s spots is pathognomonic
B. Source is a case
C. Infectivity is low
D. Affect age group 1 to 3 years
Answer: C
346. Which of the following is not a killed vaccine ?
A. Polio
B. HBV
C. HAV
D. Yellow fever vaccine
Answer: D
347. Most important measure to prevent hospital infection ?
A. Use of antibiotics
B. Use of antiseptics
C. Proper hand washing
D. Formalin fumigation
Answer: C
348. Absolute contraindication for insertion of IUD
A. History of PID
B. Congenital uterine malformation
C. Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding
D. Purulent cervical discharge
Answer: C
349. Rabies vaccine was first developed by ?
A. Robert Koch
B. Louis Pasteur
C. Edward Jenner
D. Loeffler
Answer: B
350. Human development index includes all except ?
A. Longevity
B. Knowledge
C. Income
D. Literacy rate
Answer: D
351. True about influenza ?
A. Incubation period 2-3 weeks
B. Most infections are subclinical
C. Type-A virus causes Reye’s syndrome
D. Pandemic is caused by Type-B virus
Answer: B
352. Aedes aegypti index near ports should be less than
A. 1%
B. 5%
C. 8%
D. 10%
Answer: A
353. Multifactorial causation of disease theorywas proposed by
A. Louis Pasteur
B. Pettenkofer
C. Robert koch
D. Aristotle
Answer: B
354. Major sign for AIDS surveillance in WHO case definition ?
A. > 10% weight loss
B. Cough > 1 month
C. Generalized lymphadenopathy
D. Disseminated Herpes
Answer: A
355. Not a copper containing IUD ?
A. CuT-200
B. Nova -T
C. Multiload-250
D. LNG-20
Answer: D
356. Current MMR in India is (per 1 lac live births) ?
A. 400
B. 280
C. 180
D. 110
Answer: C
357. Not a baby friendly hospital recommendation ?
A. Breast feeding with half-hour of birth
B. Breast feeding on demand
C. Use of artificial teats when required
D. No oral feed other than breast milk
Answer: C
358. Goal of NPCB was to reduce prevalence of blindness to ?
A. < 0.3% by 2000
B. < 0.3% by 2005
C. < 0.5% by 2010
D. < 0.5% by 2015
Answer: A
359. True about critical path method are all except
A. Network analysis
B. Longest path
C. Cannot be delayed
D. Shortest path
Answer: D
360. Total number of TB cases in a community of 6000 population 150. Number death due to TB are 30. What is the TB specific death rate (per 1000 population) ?
A. 20
B. 10
C. 5
D. 0-5
Answer: D
361. Average daily breast milk output during first 6 months ?
A. 100-200 ml
B. 200-300 ml
C. 300-400 ml
D. 500-600 ml
Answer: D
362. Which stage of larva of housefly is voracious feeder
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A
363. True about carriers ?
A. Infection with clinical symptoms
B. Serves as source of infection
C. More infectious than cases
D. Less dangerous than cases
Answer: B
364. Typhoid oral vaccine is given ?
A. 1, 3, 5 days
B. 1, 2, 3 days
C. 1, 2, 4 days
D. 1, 7, 14 days
Answer: A
365. True about typhoid vaccines are all except ?
A. Vi polysaccharide vaccine is given in single dose
B. Storage temperature is +2 to +8°C
C. Typhoral vaccine is given in 3 doses
D. Typhoral vaccine cannot be given with other live vaccines
Answer: D
366. Transmission of microfilaria in mosquito is ?
A. Cyclo-developmental
B. Cyclo-propagative
C. Propagative
D. Cyclical
Answer: A
367. Denominator in perinatal mortality rate ?
A. Total births
B. Total live births
C. Live births + Still birth
D. Total number of newborns
Answer: B
368. Iron content of MALA-D ?
A. 10 mg
B. 19-5 mg
C. 29.5 mg
D. 40 mg
Answer: B
369. Protein requirement in adult male ?
A. 0.5 gm/kg/day
B. 1 gm/kg/day
C. 1.5 gm/kg/day
D. 2 gm/kg/day
Answer: B
370. People are arranged alphabetically by their names and then every 3rd person is chosen for study. The type of sampling is ?
A. Stratified random
B. Systematic random
C. Simple random
D. None of the above
Answer: B
371. Protein content in F-75 milk formula ?
A. 0.5 gm per 100 ml
B. 0-9 gm per 100 ml
C. 1-5 gm per 100 ml
D. 2.0 gm per 100 ml
Answer: B
372. Measles elimination criteria are all except ?
A. Absence of endemic measles
B. For more than 12 months
C. Incidence < 1 per 1 lac population
D. Transmission at low level
Answer: D
373. In Revised National Tuberculosis Control programme the silent features are to achieve ?
A. Cure rate 85% & diagnosis 85%
B. Cure rate 85% & diagnosis rate 70%
C. Cure rate 80% & diagnosis 85%
D. Cure rate 80% & diagnosis rate 80%
Answer: B
374. Proportional mortality rate is ?
A. Number of death due to a particular cause
B. Number of death during that year
C. Number of death in one month
D. None
Answer: A
375. Best indicator for burden of disease ?
A. Incidence
B. Crude death rate
C. Cause specific death rate
D. Proportional mortality rate
Answer: D
376. Pearls index?
A. Per 100 woman years
B. Per 10 woman years
C. Per 1000 woman years
D. Per 50 woman years
Answer: A
377. Neurolathyrism is due to ?
A. Argemone oil
B. Jhunjhunia
C. Khesari dal
D. None
Answer: C
378. NFHS-3 was conducted in ?
A. 1992-93
B. 1998-99
C. 2005-06
D. 2009-10
Answer: C
379. Not true about Alma-Ata declaration ?
A. Was held in 1978
B. Community participation
C. Health for all
D. Best approach for health for all is basic health care
Answer: D
380. Level of Hardness if the value is 50-150 mg/L ?
A. Soft water
B. Moderately hard water
C. Hard water
D. Very hard water
Answer: B
381. Mental Health Act was passed in ?
A. 1982
B. 1987
C. 1971
D. 1950
Answer: B
382. All are components of ‘Health for all’ except ?
A. Adequacy
B. Acceptibility
C. Equity
D. Resource allocation
Answer: D
383. Randomized study is done in people who are volunteer for the study. Which type of bias may occur ?
A. Hawthorne bias
B. Berkesonian bias
C. Selection bias
D. Attention bias
Answer: C
384. In a child who is allergic to egg, which vaccine should be avoided ?
A. Measles
B. MMR
C. Influenza
D. DPT
Answer: C
385. “3 by 5” initiative in AIDS control programme is ?
A. Providing 3 million people treatment by end of 2005
B. Providing treatment to 3 out of 5 patients
C. Reducing incidence of AIDS by 3% by 2005
D. All of the above
Answer: A
386. Index of operational efficiency of Malaria ?
A. API
B. ABER
C. Infant parasite rate
D. Spleen rate
Answer: B
387. Impact indicator for ASHA ?
A. Number of ASHA trained
B. Infant mortality rate
C. % of institutional deliveries
D. % of JSY claims made to ASHA
Answer: B
388. Iodized salt is given to prevent goitre to ?
A. All population
B. Population of Himalayan belt
C. Population of Hilly areas
D. Population of village area
Answer: A
389. Ujjwala scheme does not include ?
A. Rescue
B. Rehabilitation
C. Reintegration
D. Reward
Answer: D
390. Positive mortality indicator is ?
A. IMR
B. Child mortality rate
C. MMR
D. Life expectancy
Answer: D
391. Most common manifestation of mumps in adult males
A. Aseptic meningitis
B. Encephalitis
C. Orchitis
D. Sinusitis
Answer: C
392. Incineration is done for waste category ?
A. Category 7
B. Category 9
C. Category 6
D. Category 5
Answer: C
393. What is the route of administration of avian influenza vaccine?
A. Intranasal
B. Intramuscular
C. Subcutaneous
D. Intradermal
Answer: B
394. Contraception with increased risk of actinomycosis ?
A. OCPs
B. Condom
C. IUCD
D. Vaginal
Answer: C
395. Healthy carrier are not seen in
A. Salmonella
B. Diphtheria
C. Measles
D. Cholera
Answer: C
396. True about Indian reference female
A. Height 161 cm
B. Weight 60 kg.
C. BMI 22
D. None of the above
Answer: A
397. Byssinosis is due to exposure of ?
A. Coal dust
B. Cotton dust
C. Sugarcane dust
D. Silica
Answer: B
398. Best epidemiological study is
A. RCT
B. Meta-analysis
C. Cohort study
D. Case-control study
Answer: B
399. Secondary attack rate of chickenpox ?
A. 70%
B. 90%
C. 65%
D. 80%
Answer: B
400. True about rash of chicken pox ?
A. Deep seated
B. Centripetal
C. Affects palm & sole
D. Slow evolution
Answer: B
401. Mortality rate in measles encephalitis is
A. 1-2%
B. 10-20%
C. 20-30%
D. 30-40%
Answer: B
402. Mortality rate of measles in developing countries?
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40%
Answer: A
403. Matching is not required in which epidemiological study?
A. Case control study
B. Cohort study
C. Case report
D. Randomized control trial
Answer: C
404. Weight of an indian reference woman is ?
A. 45 kg
B. 50 kg
C. 55 kg
D. 60 kg
Answer: C
405. Missing cases are detected by ?
A. Active surveillance
B. Passive surveillance
C. Sentinel surveillance
D. Prevalence rate
Answer: C
406. Study suitable for rare diseases ?
A. Cohort study
B. Case-control study
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Answer: B
407. In MCH programme, best indicator for mother and child health ?
A. MMR
B. IMR
C. Still birth rate
D. Neonatal mortality rate
Answer: B
408. First ocular sign of Vitamin A deficiency ?
A. Bitot’s spot
B. Conjunctival xerosis
C. Night blindness
D. Keratomalacia
Answer: B
409. Quarantine period of cholera ?
A. 1 day
B. 2 days
C. 5 days
D. 10 days
Answer: C
410. Endemic typhus is transmitted by ?
A. Louse
B. Fleac
C. Tick
D. Mite
Answer: B
411. An infectious disease shows iceberg phenomenon. That means it has ?
A. More case fatality rate
B. More SAR
C. More subclinical cases
D. More complications
Answer: C
412. Which of the following is not related to epidemiology ?
A. Promotion of health
B. Identification of etiology of disease
C. To collect data of magnitude of health problem
D. To teach a medical student how to conduct safe delivery
Answer: D
413. Most rapid diagnosis of pulmonary TB can be done by ?
A. Sputum culture
B. Sputum microscopy
C. Radiometric BACTEC method
D. Genexpert
Answer: B
414. Which of the following anti-leprotic drug is not given under supervision ?
A. Rifampicin
B. Clofazimine
C. Dapsone
D. All are given supervised
Answer: C
415. Case fatality rate is a ?
A. Rate
B. Ratio
C. Proportion
D. None
Answer: C
416. Daily dose of INH for TB ?
A. 600 mg
B. 300 mg
C. 150 mg
D. 1500 mg
Answer: B
417. RDA of vitamin A in an adolescent female ?
A. 400 mcg
B. 350 mcg
C. 600 mcg
D. 800 mcg
Answer: C
418. Population attributable risk is defined as the difference between:
A. Incidence in exposed and incidence in non-exposed compared with incidence in non-exposed
B. Incidence in population and incidence in exposed compared with incidence in population
C. Incidence in population and incidence in non-exposed compared with incidence in population
D. Incidence in population and incidence in exposed compared with incidence in non-exposed
Answer: C
419. Screening under RNTCP emphasizes on:
A. Sputum microscopy
B. Chest X-ray
C. PCR
D. Sputum culture
Answer: A
420. Positive predictive value is a function of sensitivity, specificity and
A. Absolute risk
B. Relative risk
C. Incidence
D. Prevalence
Answer: D
421. Consumer protection act includes all, except ?
A. Passed in 1986
B. Decision within 3-6 months
C. ESI hospitals not included
D. Right to safety
Answer: C
422. Father of Indian Surgery is ?
A. Dhanvantari
B. Charaka
C. Susruta
D. Atreya
Answer: C
423. Threshold level of herd immunity for Pertussis is?
A. 80%
B. 70%
C. 90%
D. 50%
Answer: C
424. “Second” most common cause of maternal mortality in India is ?
A. Toxemia
B. Anemia
C. Maternal hemorrhage
D. Sepsis
Answer: B
425. Most effective natural barrier to rabies
A. Heat
B. Humidity
C. Water
D. None
Answer: C
426. A person is obese if he has weight for height
A. 1 SD from median weight for height
B. 2 SD from median weight for height
C. 3 SD form median weight for height
D. None
Answer: B
427. Polio case definition for AFP surveillance ?
A. Onset of AFP
B. Residual paralysis
C. Stool specimen positive for virus
D. All of the above
Answer: D
428. Service applied, staff recruitment, staff trained, Equipment ordered, equipment installed, product delivered which is the critical step
A. Staff recruitment
B. Staff trained
C. Equipment ordered
D. Equipment installed
Answer: D
429. Which of the following is seen in the recovery phase after a disaster except
A. Rehabilitation
B. Reconstruction
C. Response
D. Preparedness
Answer: D
430. Dowry prohibition act 1986, punishment is ?
A. Tyr, Rs 25000
B. Tyr Rs 15000
C. 5yr, Rs 25000
D. 5yr Rs 15000
Answer: D
431. Consumer protection act was passed in ?
A. 1977
B. 1986
C. 1993
D. 1998
Answer: B
432. Natural family planning method ?
A. Abstinence
B. Coitus interruptus
C. BBT
D. Safe peroid
Answer: C
433. Significant value of `p’ is ?
A. 0.01
B. 0.02
C. 0.04
D. 0.05
Answer: D
434. AIDS day is ?
A. 7 April
B. 3 May
C. 5 June
D. 1 December
Answer: D
435. In rural area, cattle sheds should be ….. away from the houses ?
A. 5 feet
B. 10 feet
C. 20 feet
D. 25 feet
Answer: D
436. Operational efficiency of malaria control programme?
A. Infant parasite rate
B. Slide positivity rate
C. Mosquito bite rate
D. Annual blood examination rate
Answer: D
437. 2 months old child having birth weight 2kg, with poor feeding, very sleepy and wheezing. The diagnosis is?
A. No pneumonia
B. Severe pneumonia
C. Very severe disease
D. None
Answer: C
438. Most common source of Diphtheria
A. Case
B. Carrier
C. Both
D. None
Answer: B
439. All are features of yellow fever except ?
A. IP 3-6 days
B. 1 attack gives life long immunity
C. Caused by vector aedes
D. Validity of vaccination begins immediately after vaccination
Answer: D
440. Criteria for slaughter house ?
A. Glass area should be 25% of floor area
B. Window ledes sloped 25°
C. Doorways 1 meter high
D. None of the above
Answer: A
441. A patient had injury to right leg by road traffic accident and his leg was amputated. This is ?
A. Disease
B. Disability
C. Impairment
D. Handicap
Answer: C
442. Unmet needs of contraception to met according to NFH S-3
A. Women < 20 years
B. Women after puperium
C. Women after 1′ week delivery
D. After illegal abortion
Answer: A
443. Infectivity period of chickenpox is ?
A. 1 day before and 4 days after appearance of rash
B. 4 days before and 5 day after appearance of rash
C. Only when scab falls
D. Entire incubation period
Answer: A
444. Gas causing green house effect ?
A. CO2
B. Methane
C. Sulfur hexafluoride
D. All of the above
Answer: D
445. All are present in mild dehydration, except ?
A. Thirst
B. Restlessness
C. Dry tongue
D. Normal BP
Answer: C
446. 3 months old infant, no chest indrawing with respiratory rate 52/minute. Diagnosis is
A. No pneumonia
B. Pneumonia
C. Severe pneumonia
D. Very severe disease
Answer: B
447. ORS required during first 4 hours in a 20 kg child?
A. 200-400 ml
B. 400-600 ml
C. 600-800 ml
D. 1200-2200 ml
Answer: D
448. Descending order of cancer prevalence in males?
A. Lung > oral > pharynx > esophagus
B. Oral > lung > pharynx > esophagus
C. Pharynx > lung > oral > esophagus
D. Esophagus > oral > stomach > lung
Answer: B
449. NSABP stands for ?
A. National surgical adjuvant for breast project
B. National surgical adjuvant for breast and bowel project
C. National surgical adjuvant for brain and breast
D. National surgical adjuvant for bowel and brain
Answer: B
450. According to ‘Biomedical concept’ health is
A. Relative absence of pain and discomfort
B. Absence of disease
C. A sound mind in sound body, in a sound family, in sound environment
D. None
Answer: B
451. Spot map is used for ?
A. Local distribution of disease
B. Rural-urban variation
C. National variation
D. None
Answer: A
452. Screening is useful in disease which has?
A. Short lead time
B. Long lead time
C. Both a & b
D. No relation with lead time
Answer: B
453. Iron requirement in a normal mensurating adult female
A. 15 mg/day
B. 20 mg/day
C. 30 mg/day
D. 35 mg/day
Answer: B
454. The following is not a Nerve gas ?
A. Sarin
B. Tabun
C. Soman
D. Pyrolan
Answer: D
455. Moribund patient, triage color ?
A. Red
B. Black
C. Yellow
D. Green
Answer: B
456. Disease not covered under Integrated disease surveillance project (IDSP) is ?
A. Meningococcal disease
B. Tuberculosis
C. Herpes zoster
D. Cholera
Answer: C
457. Performance of components of PQLI is counted between
A. -1 to +1
B. 0 to 1
C. 0 to 100
D. None
Answer: C
458. Type of sampling, if random sample is taken from a characteristic population, eg. Hindus, Muslims, Christians etc?
A. Simple random
B. Systemic random
C. Stratified random
D. Cluster
Answer: C
459. Tablet for supplementation of iron and folic acid for adult contains ?
A. 20 mg iron, 5001,tg folic aci
B. 40 mg iron, 250
C. 100 mg iron, 500 lig folic acid
D. 100 mg iron, 100 hg folic acid
Answer: C
460. According to immunization schedule, children should receive influenza vaccine ?
A. 2 doses at 1 month interval
B. 3doses at 1month interval
C. 2 doses at one month interval with one booster dose later
D. None of the above
Answer: C
461. Most important feature to diagnose severe pneumonia?
A. Cyanosis
B. Chest indrawing
C. Nasal flaring
D. Fast breathing
Answer: B
462. Infant mortality rate in India is, per 1000 live births?
A. 25
B. 34
C. 55
D. 60
Answer: B
463. Sullivan’s index indicates
A. Life free of disability
B. Pregnancy rate per HW
C. Hook worm eggs/gm of stool
D. Standard of living
Answer: A
464. Which vaccine is contraindicated pregnancy
A. Cholera vaccine
B. Typhoid vaccine
C. Meningococcal vaccine
D. Measles vaccine
Answer: D
465. Juvenile justice act defines a juvenile which is
A. Male below 16 years
B. Female below 16 years
C. Male below 18 years
D. None of the above
Answer: C
466. Secondary level of prevention is important in all of the following except ?
A. Coronary heart disease
B. TB
C. Leprosy
D. None
Answer: A
467. If annual growth rate of a population is 1.5-2%, what number of years will be required to double the population?
A. 70-47 years
B. 47-35 years
C. 35-28 years
D. 28-23
Answer: B
468. One PHC covers how much population in hilly area?
A. 10000
B. 20000
C. 30000
D. 50000
Answer: B
469. Most common cause of post-measles death ?
A. Diarrhea
B. RTI
C. SSPE
D. Myocarditis
Answer: B
470. Shortest incubation period is of which infection ?
A. Chicken pox
B. Measles
C. Rubella
D. Influenza
Answer: D
471. A person is considered as a case of tuberculosis if
A. Has cough
B. Sputum positive
C. X-ray signs
D. Mantoux positive
Answer: B
472. All of the following are anthropozoonosis except
A. Rabies
B. Plaque
C. Anthrax
D. Schistosomiasis
Answer: D
473. Night blood survey is done in ?
A. Filaria
B. Typhoid
C. Malaria
D. Kala-azar
Answer: A
474. Population explosion (explosive growth) is defined as the growth rate ?
A. 0.5-1.0
B. 1-1.5
C. 1.5-2
D. > 2
Answer: D
475. Protein content in 100 grams of cow milk
A. 4.3
B. 3.2
C. 2.2
D. 1.2
Answer: B
476. One criteria for prudent diet?
A. Fat intake 35-40% of total energy
B. Dietary cholesterole < 300 mg/1000Kcal per day
C. Salt intake <10 g/day
D. Saturated futs < 10% of total energy
Answer: D
477. If a claw hand develops in a patient with Leprosy, th deformity is ?
A. Grade 0
B. Grade I
C. Grade II
D. Grade III
Answer: C
478. All of the following are required more during lactation as compared to pregnancy, except ?
A. Iron
B. Vitamin A
C. Niacin
D. Energy
Answer: A
479. All of the following are related to plague except ?
A. Aedes aegypti index
B. Total flea index
C. Burrow index
D. Cheopis index
Answer: A
480. Drug for prophylaxis of malaria in chloroquine resistant P.falciparum ?
A. Mefloquine
B. Quinine
C. Halofantrine
D. Artesunate
Answer: A
481. An Englishman travels to a place which is resistant to chloroquine and mefloquine. What should he take as prophylaxis ?
A. Primaquine
B. Hydrchlorquine
C. Proguanil
D. Artesunate
Answer: C
482. Annual infection rate of tuberculosis is defined as ?
A. Percentage of total patients positive for tuberculin test
B. Percentage of new patients positive for tuberculin test
C. Percentage of sputum positive total patients
D. Percentage of sputum positive new patients
Answer: B
483. Present “General fertility rates” ?
A. 84
B. 118
C. 128
D. 138
Answer: A
484. D.latum transmitted by ?
A. Cercaria through cyclops
B. Cercaria through fish meal
C. Plerocercoid through fish meal
D. Metacercaria in cyclops
Answer: C
485. Patterns of Inter-relationships between persons in a society is ?
A. Social structure
B. Social psychology
C. Herd structure
D. Social science
Answer: A
486. Rash is absent in ?
A. Scrub typhus
B. Epidemic typhus
C. Q. fever
D. Endemic typhus
Answer: C
487. Minimum contact period required during Chlorination?
A. 30 minutes
B. 1 hrs.
C. 2 hrs
D. 4 hrs
Answer: B
488. Sandfly transmits all, except ?
A. Oriental sore
B. Leishmaniasis
C. Kala-azar
D. Relapsing fever
Answer: D
489. Antiserum is available for passive immunization against ?
A. Rabies
B. Typhoid
C. Meales
D. Mumps
Answer: A
490. Oncherciasis elimination, operational definition ?
A. O.volvulus transmission has reduced below a particular point
B. Intervention has stoped
C. No recrudescence
D. All of the above
Answer: D
491. In ESI progamme central, state, Govt. employee contribute to the fund. Employer’s contribution is ?
A. 5.75%
B. 4.75 %
C. 3.75%
D. 2.75%
Answer: B
492. All insects have developed resistance to DDT except?
A. Mosquito
B. Flea
C. Tsetse flies
D. Ticks
Answer: C
493. Highest level of health care system in India
A. Primary health care
B. Secondary health care
C. Tertiary health care
D. All are same
Answer: C
494. Most basic level of Health Care System in India
A. Primary health care
B. Secondary health care
C. Tertiary health care
D. All are same
Answer: A
495. Pre-exposure prophylaxis dose schedule for rabies vaccine given in all days except ?
A. Day 0
B. Day 3
C. Day 7
D. Day 28
Answer: B
496. Encephalopathy can occur as complication of which vaccine ?
A. OPV
B. Rubella
C. Measles
D. BCG
Answer: C
497. Population pyramid indicates ?
A. Life expectancy
B. Fertility pattern
C. Sex ratio
D. All of the above
Answer: D
498. Green colour of triage is for which patient ?
A. Low priority
B. Morbidity
C. Ambulatory
D. High priority
Answer: C
499. Concurrent list of Indian Constitution includes which of the following?
A. International immigration rule for quarantine
B. Prevention of extension of communicable disease from one unit to another
C. Mines and oilfield workers rules
D. Establishment and maintenance of drug standards
Answer: B
500. Last point where reproductive and child health programme are include :
A. Sub-centre
B. Anganwadi
C. District
D. Taluka
Answer: C
501. Diagnostic power of a test to correctly diagnose a disease is
A. Negative predictive value
B. Positive predictive value
C. Sensitivity
D. Specificity
Answer: B
502. Paradoxical carriers are
A. A person who acquires the microorganism due to his contact with the patient.
B. A person who acquires the microorganism another carrier.
C. A person who is clinically recovered from an infectious disease
but still capable of transmitting the infectious agent to others.
D. None
Answer: B
503. According to IMNCI, a baby of 6 month age, criteria for fast breathing is more than _____/min
A. 60
B. 50
C. 40
D. 30
Answer: B
504. All of the following are examples of Dietary fibre except
A. Pectin
B. Lignin
C. Cellulose
D. Gums
Answer: D
505. Cross product ratio is determined by which study ?
A. Case control
B. Cohort
C. Cross sectional
D. RCT
Answer: A
506. In a normal curve what is the area that comes under 1 standard deviation
A. 50%
B. 68%
C. 95%
D. 100%
Answer: B
507. 2 year old boy of weight 12 kg with vitamin A deficiency what is oral dose of vitamin A
A. 50, 000 I.U
B. 1 lakh I.U.
C. 1.5 lakh I.U
D. 2 lakh I.U
Answer: D
508. Not a personal protective equipment
A. Goggles
B. Badges for detecting radiation
C. Gloves
D. Lab coat
Answer: B
