1. Main support of uterus is from – ligament :
A. Cardinal
B. Broad
C. Round
D. Pubocervical
Answer: A
2. Best gas used for creating pneumoperitoneum at laparoscopy is :
A. N2
B. 02
C. CO2
D. N20 Goniometer is used
Answer: C
3. Gonococci has affinity for :
A. Columnar epithelium
B. Glandular epithelium
C. Stratified sqamous epithelium
D. Squamous epithelium
Answer: A
4. In a case of Dysgerminoma of ovary one of the following tumor markers is likely to be raised :
A. Serum HCG
B. Serum alphafetoprotein
C. Serum lactic dehydrogenase
D. Serum inhibin
Answer: C
5. Which of the following ovarian tumor is most prone to undergo torsion during pregnancy :
A. Serous cystadenoma
B. Mucinous cystadenoma
C. Dermoid cyst
D. Theca lutein cyst
Answer: C
6. Which of the following has LEAST pregnancy failure rate :
A. OCP
B. IUCD
C. Diaphragm
D. Condom
Answer: A
7. Which of the following is true regarding precocious puberty :
A. Sexual maturity is attained early
B. Mental function is increased
C. No reproductive function
D. Body proportions are enlarged
Answer: A
8. Cause of unilateral dysmenorrhea :
A. One horn of malformed uterus
B. Endometriosis with unilateral distribution
C. Small fibroid at the utero tubal junction
D. All of the above
Answer: D
9. Progesterone of choice in emergency contraception is?
A. Norethisterone
B. Medroxyprogesterone
C. Oxytocin
D. Levonorgestrel
Answer: D
10. Which among the following is an absolute contraindication of Hormone replacement therapy ?
A. Endometriosis
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Heart disease
D. Breast carcinoma
Answer: D
11. A 40 year old woman presents with abnormal cervical cytology on PAP smear suggestive of CIN III (HSIL). The next best
step in management is:
A. Hysterectomy
B. Colposcopy and LEEP
C. Colposcopy and Cryotherapy
D. Conization
Answer: B
12. Chlamydia trachomatis infection commonly causes:
A. Infertility
B. Post coital bleeding
C. Amenorrhoea
D. Malignancy
Answer: A
13. Main difference between anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa lies in:
A. Symptomatology
B. Weight
C. Gender
D. Age
Answer: B
14. Not seen in anorexia nervosa:
A. Osteoporosis
B. Refusal to feeds
C. Weight loss
D. Menorrhagia
Answer: D
15. First polar body is formed after ?
A. Mitosis
B. First meiosis
C. Second meiosis
D. Fertilization
Answer: B
16. Conceptus enters uterine cavity in which cell stage ?
A. 4 cells
B. 8 cells
C. 16 cells
D. 32 cells
Answer: C
17. Implantation occurs on which menstrual cycle day ?
A. 5-7 days
B. 20-22 days
C. 14-18 days
D. 26-28 days
Answer: B
18. Blastocyte comes out on which day after fertilization ?
A. 4-7 days
B. 10-12 days
C. 12-15 days
D. 15-20 days
Answer: A
19. DMPA is given once in A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 9 months
D. 45 days
Answer: A
20. Patient of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy on valproate comes to you at 5 months of pregnancy with level H scan normal what will you advise?
A. Change the drug
B. Continue the drug in same dose
C. Decrease the dose of drug
D. Increase the dose of drug
Answer: B
21. Trophoblastic neoplasm does not include
A.) Choriocarcinoma
B. Placental site trophoblastic tumour
C. Invasive mole
D. Partial mole
Answer: D
22. Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy:
A. Chicken pox
B. Rabies
C. Tet toxoid
D. Hepatitis B
Answer: A
23. 45 years female with 3 months menorrhagia. USG showing 2 cm submucosal fibroid.Treatment options.
A. Ocp for 3 months
B. Progesterone for 3 months
C. Endometrial sampling
D. Hysterectomy
Answer: D
24. In low ovarian reserve,anti mullerian hormone level will be:
A. <1 B. 1-4 C. >7 D. >10
Answer: A
25. Presenting diameter of full flexed head:
A. Suboccipito-bregmatic diameter
B. Suboccipito-frontal diameter
C. Occipito-frontal diameter
D. Occipito-posterior position
Answer: A
26. What is the dose of ulipristal acetate?
A. 300mg
B. 30mg
C. 300µg
D. 30µg
Answer: B
27. Premature ejaculation is a part of which phase of sexual disorders?
A. Excitement phase
B. Plateau phase
C. Orgasm phase
D. Refractory phase
Answer: C
28. 60 year woman comes with 3rd degree uterine prolapse. What will be the management?
A. Vaginal hysterectomy with pelvic floor repair
B. Pelvic floor repair
C. Sacrospinous fixation
D. Pessary
Answer: A
29. Day 20 of menstrual cycle falls under which phase?
A. Menstrual phase
B. Follicular phase
C. Ovulation phase
D. Luteal phase
Answer: D
30. Chromosome number of partial hydatidiform mole is
A. 46 XX
B. 45 XO
C. 46 XXY
D. 69 XXX
Answer: D
31. Vulvar atrophy and itching are treated by
A. Estrogen ointment
B. Antihistamines
C. Tamoxifen
D. None
Answer: A
32. PGF2 alpha maximum dose in PPH is
A. 2000 µg
B. 200 µg
C. 2 mg
D. 20 mg
Answer: C
33. Which of the following is false as physiological change in pregnancy?
A. Increase cardiac output
B. Increase total protein
C. Increase residual volume
D. Increase GFR
Answer: C
34. Overt gestational diabetes is defined as blood glucose more than_?
A. >200 mg/dl
B. >126 mg/dl
C. >100 mg/dl
D. >180 mg/dl
Answer: B
35. MgSO4 have no role in prevention of
A. Seizures in severe pre-eclampsia
B. Recurrent seizures in eclampsia
C. RDS in premature baby
D. Bradycardia
Answer: C
36. Green frothy vaginal discharge is produced by –
A. Herpes simplex
B. Candida albicans
C. Trichomonas vaginalis
D. Normal vaginal flora
Answer: C
37. Which of the following is an absolute CONTRAINDI?CATION to OCP use:
A. Chronic renal disease
B. DVT
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. History of amenorrhea
Answer: B
38. Which of the following statement is correct about acute fatty liver of pregnancy?
A. Occurs in 1 in 1000 pregnancy
B. Mostly seen in last trimester
C. Common if female fetus is present
D. May be associated with decreased uric acid
Answer: B
39. Female with 41 wk gestation confirmed by radiological investigation, very sure of her LMP, no uterine contractions, no effacement and no dilatation. What should not be done?
A. Intracervical foley’s
B. PGE1 tab
C. PGE2 gel
D. PGF2alpha
Answer: D
40. Double decidua sign is seen during
A. 1St trimester
B. 2nd early trimester
C. 2nd late trimester
D. 3rd trimester
Answer: A
41. In Medical termination of pregnancy, according to FDA, Misoprostol is given after how many hours of Mifepristone?
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 96 hours
Answer: B
42. First symptom invulval cancer is
A. Pain
B. Pruritis
C. Ulcer
D. Blood discharge
Answer: B
43. Which is increased in premature ovarian failure :
A. Sr. Inhibin
B. Sr. FSH
C. Sr. Estradiol
D. Both A and B
Answer: B
44. All of the following are markers of ovarian reserve except
A. Inhibin A
B. Estradiol concentration
C. Inhibin B
D. Ovarian volume
Answer: A
45. Most common site involved in genital TB
A. Fallopian tubes
B. Endometrium
C. Ovaries
D. Vulvo – vaginal part
Answer: A
46. Which is not a side effect of POP [Progestin only pill]
A. Ovarian cysts
B. Venous thromboembolism
C. Increased risk of diabetes mellitus
D. Ectopic pregnancy
Answer: B
47. Maternal age is not associated with
A. Preterm labour
B. Post maturity
C. Aneuploidy
D. Hydatidiform mole
Answer: A
48. What is to be done if 2 OCP is missed on
day 17 – 18 of the cycle A. Take 2 pills on the next 2 days
B. Use back up contraceptive
C. Both a and b
D. Continue taking single pill per day
Answer: B
49. Most common complication of dermoid cyst is
A. Cyst Rupture
B. Torsion
C. Malignant degeneration
D. None of the above
Answer: B
50. Management of tubal ectopic pregnancy of 2.5 x 3 cm is
A. Medical management
B. Salpingectomy
C. According to presence of fetal cardiac activity
D. Observation
Answer: C
51. Dose of dexamethasone for fetal lung maturity is A. 6 mg
B. 12 mg
C. 18 mg
D. 24 mg
Answer: A
52. Management of a patient with complete placenta previa at 38 weeks gestation without any vaginal bleeding is
A. Expectant management
B. Macafee and Johnson regimen
C. Elective caesarean section
D. Emergency caesarean section
Answer: C
53. True about nabothian cyst is all except –
A. Squamous epithelium occludes the mouth of the glands
B. It is seen in chronic irritation and inflammation
C. It is a pathology of the cervix
D. It is pre – malignant
Answer: D
54. Most common cause of pelvic inflammatory disease is
A. Sexually transmitted disease
B. IUCD
C. Pelvic peritonitis
D. Puerperal sepsis
Answer: A
55. There is overlapping of skull sutures which can be reduced with gental pressure. What is the grade of moulding ?
A. Grade 1
B. Grade 2
C. Grade 3
D. Grade 4
Answer: B
56. Risk factor for cervical carcinoma is
A. Smoking
B. Human papilloma virus
C. Low socioeconomic status
D. All of the above
Answer: D
57. 45 yrs female with G5P4A0L4 with LMP 25.8.15, gestational age will be how many weeks on date 11.5.15?
A. 32 weeks
B. 35 weeks
C. 36 weeks
D. 40 weeks
Answer: C
58. Which of the following about abdominal pregnancy is true?
A. Primary abdominal pregnancy is more common
B. If placenta is densely adhered, it should be separated alongwith
the organ it overlies
C. Around 50% of the fetus reach full term and survive
D. If placenta is left behind, infection can occur
Answer: D
59. Oxygen consumption increases in pregnancy by
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40%
Answer: B
60. Stroke volume increases in pregnancy by
A. 20%
B. 25%
C. 40%
D. 45%
Answer: B
61. Cardiac output in pregnancy increases from which week of gestation
A. 5 weeks
B. 15 weeks
C. 25 weeks
D. 35 weeks
Answer: A
62. What is the stage of carcinoma cervix involving body of uterus
A. Stage I
B. Stage II
C. Stage III
D. Stage IV
Answer: A
63. Therapeutic use of folic acid is
A. Previous pregnancy with child having neural tube defect
B. Megaloblastic anaemia
C. Hemoglobinopathies
D. All of the above
Answer: B
64. Most common cause of death in cervical cancer is
A. Renal failure
B. Infection
C. Haemorrhage
D. Metastasis to vital organs
Answer: A
65. During pregnancy increased size of pituitary is caused by increased size of cells which secrete ?
A. Growth hormone
B. Prolactin
C. ACTH
D. TSH
Answer: B
66. Treatment options for CIN III include all of the following except
A. LLETZ
B. Conization
C. Hysterectomy
D. Wertheim’s hysterectomy
Answer: D
67. What size of the hegar’s dilator if passed through the internal os can be labeled as cervical incompetence?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10
Answer: C
68. Propulsive stage in labour in multipara
A. 10 minutes
B. 20 minutes
C. 40 minutes
D. 1 hour
Answer: B
69. Funneling in cervicogram is seen in
A. In labour
B. Cervical incompetence
C. Cervical ectopic
D. During TVS
Answer: B
70. In cervical incompetence diameter of internal os of cervix is
A. 1 cm
B. 1.5 cm
C. 2 cm
D. 2.5 cm
Answer: A
71. Occipitoanterior position
A. Anterior fontanalle is posterior
B. Sagittal suture is along the Transverse plane of the maternal pelvis
C. Coronal suture is along the antero – posterior plane of the maternal pelvis
D. All of the above
Answer: A
72. Method not used for shoulder dystocia
A. McRobert’s maneuver
B. Hegar’s maneuver
C. Zanavelli maneuver
D. Wood’s maneuver
Answer: B
73. Vasa previa is associated with
A. Marginal placenta
B. Velamentous placenta
C. Battledore
D. Placenta previa
Answer: B
74. Which is not a risk factor for gestational hypertension
A. Obesity
B. Smoking
C. Primigravida
D. Factor V Leiden mutation
Answer: B
75. Most common breech position is
A. Complete breech
B. Frank breech
C. Footling breech
D. Knee presentation
Answer: B
76. When fetus is at station +2 & fetal skull reaches pelvic floor, which of the following is true
A. Forceps can be applied
B. Best time to give episiotomy
C. Called as crowning
D. May lead to deep transverse arrest
Answer: A
77. Contracted pelvis is defined as shortening of one or more planes by
A. 0.5 cm
B. 1 cm
C. 1.25 cm
D. 1.5 cm
Answer: A
78. Common misdiagnosis of partial mole is
A. Threatened abortion
B. Choriocarcinoma
C. Complete mole
D. Ectopic pregnancy
Answer: A
79. Prolonged second stage of labour may occur due to
A. Uterine inertia
B. Epidural analgesia
C. Cephalopelvic disproportion
D. All of the above
Answer: D
80. Most common type of conjoint twin is
A. Thoracopagus
B. Omphalopagus
C. Craniopagus
D. Rachipagus
Answer: A
81. Crowning is
A. Biparietal diameter at the inlet of pelvis
B. Biparietal diameter at the ischial spine
C. Biparietal diameter at the vulval outlet
D. Biparietal diameter just outside the vulval outlet Answer-
Answer: C
82. Uterine height is greater than gestational age of the patient in a case of all except
A. Fibroid uterus
B. IUGR
C. Wrong dates
D. Polyhydramnios
Answer: B
83. True about placental site trophoblastic disease is
A. Highly Malignant behavior
B. Hysterectomy followed by chemoradiation is the treatment of choice
C. Secretes human placental lactogen
D. Contains syncytiotrophoblasts mainly
Answer: C
84. Quickening in multiparae is felt at what weeks of gestation?
A. 14 weeks
B. 16 weeks
C. 18 weeks
D. 20 weeks
Answer: B
85. Pregnancy is contraindicated in which cardiac disease
A. Mitral stenosis
B. Primary pulmonary hypertension
C. VSD
D. Mitral regurgitation
Answer: B
86. Malodorous vaginal discharge is due to
A. Bacterial vaginosis
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Trichomonas vaginalis
D. Neisseria gonorrhea
Answer: A
87. Following delivery, tear involves perineum, external anal spincter with intact mucosa, grade of tear is
A. First degree
B. Second degree
C. Third degree
D. Fourth degree
Answer: C
88. Amsel criteria is for
A. Bacterial vaginosis
B. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
C. Ovarian ectopic pregnancy
D. HELLP Syndrome
Answer: A
89. Plane of cleavage during placental separation runs through
A. Between compact and spongy layer of decidua basalis
B. Between decidua basalis and chorion frondosum
C. Through deep spongy layer of decidua basalis
D. Between layers of chorion frondosum
Answer: C
90. Not a cause of oligohydramnios
A. IUGR
B. Renal agenesis
C. Amnion nodosum
D. Chorioangioma
Answer: D
91. Which of the following is true about ovarian ectopic pregnancy?
A. Studdiford criteria is used for diagnosis
B. There should be no rent on the ovary or tube
C. Absence of evidence of pregnancy at any other site than ovarian
D. Conservative surgery can be done if diagnosed early
Answer: D
92. False about chorionic vinous sampling
A. Is used for prental genetic diagnosis
B. Is performed only in second trimester of pregnancy
C. Villi collected from chorion frondosum
D. Can cause limb deformities
Answer: B
93. Bacteria responsible for ectopic pregnancy is
A. Staphylococcus
B. Chlamydia
C. Peptostreptococcus
D. Trichomonas vaginalis
Answer: B
94. A 28 year old primigravida with 32 weeks of gestation comes with complain of thin, frothy, profuse discharge through the vagina since yesterday. She was advised USG which showed Single live intrauterine gestational sac with FL and AC corresponding to the weeks of gestation and AFI as adequate. What is the diagnosis?
A. PPROM
B. Trichomoniasis
C. Normal finding
D. Candidiasis
Answer: B
95. Le Fort repair is done for
A. Uterovaginal descent
B. Vault prolapse
C. VVF
D. RVF
Answer: A
96. Leydig cells of fetus testis secretes
A. hCG
B. LH
C. Testosterone
D. Mullerian inhibiting substance
Answer: C
97. Risk factors for molar gestation are all of the following except
A. Oriental countries
B. Disturbed maternal immune mechanism
C. Higher ratio of maternal/paternal chromosomes
D. Faulty nutrition
Answer: C
98. Embryo gets implanted at what stage of
development?
A. Two cell stage
B. Four cell stage
C. Morula
D. Blastocyst
Answer: D
99. Poor prognostic factor for hydatidiform mole is
A. Prior molar pregnancy
B. Metastasis to lung
C. No prior chemotherapy
D. WHO score > 8
Answer: D
100. Drugs used in endometriosis is
A. Combined oral contraceptives
B. Letrozole
C. Mifepristone
D. All of the above
Answer: D
101. Risk of scar rupture in lower segment of previous scar present is ?
A. 05 – 1.5 %
B. 15 – 25 %
C. 2.5 – 3.5 %
D. 3.5 – 4.5 %
Answer: A
102. Not true in complete hydatidiform mole ?
A. Triploid
B. Absence of fetal parts
C. Diffuse trophoblastic hyperplasia
D. Beta HCG > 50,000
Answer: A
103. Components of Mala D are all except ?
A. 0.03 mg Ethinyl estradiol
B. 0.15mg desogestrel
C. 0.15 mg levenogestrel
D. Iron tablets
Answer: B
104. Mechanism of action of IUCD is all except ?
A. Inhibit ovulation
B. Induce biochemical changes in endometrium
C. Increase tubal motility
D. Inflammatory respone in endometrium
Answer: A
105. Most common infection in long term IUCD use
A. Actinomyosis
B. Mucormycosis
C. Aspergillosis
D. Candidiasis
Answer: A
106. Absolute contraindication of OC pills are all except?
A. Suspicious vaginal bleeding
B. Cervical cancer
C. Uterine anamoly
D. Old STD
Answer: D
107. Copper IUCD as a contraceptive measure can be used maximum till what time after contact ?
A. 2 days
B. 3 days
C. 4 days
D. 5 days
Answer: D
108. Clomiphene citrate is used for ?
A. Anovulation
B. Endometriosis
C. Puberty menorrhagia
D. Hormone replacement therapy
Answer: A
109. First line treatment of infertility in PCOS is ?
A. Clomiphene
B. FSH
C. GnRH
D. Assisted reproductive techniques
Answer: A
110. Drug commonly used in treatment of endometriosis is?
A. LH
B. GnRH
C. MPA
D. FSH
Answer: B
Ans. B. GnRH
111. Investigation of choice in endometriosis ?
A. Laproscopy
B. Hysteoscopy
C. CT scan
D. MRI
Answer: A
112. Carcinoma endometrium with involvement of the vaginal wall is included in which stage ?
A. IIIA
B. IIIB
C. IIIC
D. IVA
Answer: B
113. Meigs syndrome is associated with which tumor ?
A. Fibroma
B. Cystadenoma
C. Dysgerminoma
D. Teratoma
Answer: A
114. Sentinel lymph node biopsy is used to map the lymph node status of which cancers?
A. Breast
B. Melanoma
C. Vulva
D. All the above
Answer: D
115. Most common type of fibroid is ?
A. Intramural
B. Subserosal
C. Cervical
D. Submucosal
Answer: A
116. Most common cancer in pregnancy ?
A. Melanoma
B. Breast carcinoma
C. Gastric carcinoma
D. Thyroid carcinoma
Answer: B
117. Most common cause of vulval carcinoma is ?
A. HPV infection
B. EBV infection
C. Herpes genitalis infection
D. Syphilis infection
Answer: A
118. Following the criteria for conservative surgery in patients with ovarian carcinoma except ?
A. FIGO stage II disease
B. Young patient with no or few children
C. Well differentiated serous tumor
D. No infiltration of capsule, lymphatics or mesoovarium
Answer: A
119. Most common ovarian cyst to undergo torsion is ?
A. Dysgerminoma
B. Benign cystic teratoma
C. Ovarian fibroma
D. Brenner’s tumor
Answer: B
120. Most common malignant ovarian tumor is ?
A. Serous cystadenocarcinoma
B. Mucinous cysadenocarcinoma
C. Malignant teratoma
D. Sarcoma
Answer: A
121. Which of the following is the most common malignant germ cell tumor of ovary?
A. Yolk sac tumor
B. Dysgerminoma
C. Polyembryoma
D. Choriocarcinoma
Answer: B
122. Most common germ cell tumor of ovary is ?
A. Dysgerminoma
B. Serous cystadenoma
C. Yolk sac tumor
D. Dermoid cyst
Answer: D
123. Call Exner bodies seen in ?
A. Granulosa cell tumors
B. Serous cystadenomas
C. Dysgerminoma
D. Krukenberg tumor
Answer: A
124. Inhibin is a tumor marker for ?
A. Granulosa cell tumor
B. Dysgerminoma
C. Serous cystadenoma
D. Krukenberg tumor
Answer: A
125. Management of Stage IIA carcinoma cervix in third trimester of pregnancy is ?
A. Radical hysterectomy, pelvic lymphadenetomy after classic caesarian delivery
B. Periodic cytology and evaluation
C. Cone biopsy
D. Chemotherapy and brachytherapy
Answer: A
126. Treatment of IBI ca cervix ?
A. Wertheim’s hysterectomy
B. Radiotherapy
C. Chemotherapy
D. Chemoradiotherapy
Answer: A
127. What is the next step in investigating a 45 yrs old female with post coital bleeding and visible cervical mass on speculum examination ?
A. Dilatation and curettage
B. Conisation
C. Colposcopy
D. Hysteroscopy
Answer: C
128. Most common mode of spread for genital tuberculosis is?
A. Hematogenous
B. Lymphatic
C. Direct
D. Ascending
Answer: A
129. Estimation of fetal hemoglobin is done by ?
A. Gerhard test
B. Kleihauser-Betke Acid Elution Test
C. Grinders test
D. Simpsons test
Answer: B
130. Most common breech presentation in primigravida is ?
A. Flexed breech
B. Frank breech
C. Footling presentation
D. Incomplete
Answer: B
131. Transverse lie is caused by all except ?
A. Multiparity
B. Prematurity
C. Anencephaly
D. Placenta previa
Answer: C
132. 20 year old female with primary amenorrhoea with normal presentation of everything except no axillary or pubic hair. What is the diagnosis?
A. Testicular feminization syndrome
B. Kallman syndrome
C. Turners syndrome
D. Klienfelters syndrome
Answer: A
133. In PID due to neiserriea gonorrhea, tubal damage is?
A. Peritubal
B. Endotubal
C. Extratubal
D. Juxtatubal
Answer: B
134. Condition where there is ingrowth of the endometrium, both glandular and stromal component in myometrium is ?
A. Adenomyosis
B. Courvelaire uterus
C. Placenta accreta
D. Uterine fibroid
Answer: A
135. Couvelaire uterus is seen in ?
A. Placenta previa
B. Abruptio placentae
C. Plencenta accrete
D. Velamentous placenta
Answer: B
136. Swiss cheese pattern is seen in ?
A. Metropathica hemorrhagica
B. Serous cystadenoma
C. Mucinous cystadenoma
D. Dermoid
Answer: A
137. Upper age limit to diagnose a patient as having primary amenorrhoea is ?
A. 13 years
B. 14 years
C. 15 years
D. 16 years
Answer: D
138. Lileys zone 3 at 35 weeks gestation management is?
A. Follow up
B. Intrauterine infusion
C. Preterm termination of pregnancy
D. Cordocentesis
Answer: C
139. How much time after reduced movement fetal heart stops?
A. 1 hr
B. 2 hrs
C. 6 hrs
D. 12 hrs
Answer: D
140. Red cell volume is increased by what percentage in pregnancy?
A. 10 – 20%
B. 20 – 30%
C. 30 – 40%
D. 40 – 50%
Answer: B
141. Following are the causes of oligohydramnios except?
A. IUGR
B. Postmaturity
C. Maternal dehydration
D. Labetolol
Answer: D
142. Not a risk for ectopic pregnancy ?
A. Use of condom
B. OCP
C. PID
D. Previous ectopic pregnancy
Answer: A
143. Risk factors for the ectopic pregnancy are ?
A. IUCD
B. History of infertility
C. Tubal endometriosis
D. All the above
Answer: D
144. 34 weeks pregnancy with low lying placenta previa, floating head, Hb – 11 gm%. What should be the further line of management?
A. Expectant management
B. Induction of labour
C. Caesarian section
D. Blood transfusion
Answer: A
145. Which of the following is an absolute indication for caesarian section?
A. Central placenta previa
B. Breech presentation
C. Bad obstetric history
D. Previous caesarian delivery
Answer: A
146. What is used to aid identification of areas of dysplasia in colposcopy?
A. 3 – 5% acetic acid
B. Acetocarmine red
C. 1 % formic acid
D. 1 % alcohol
Answer: A
147. Following are the ultrasound doppler parameters used in the diagnosis of intrauterine growth restriction except?
A. Abdominal circumference
B. Doppler velocimetry
C. Increased diastolic velocity in middle cerebral artery
D. Ponderal index
Answer: A
148. Most common cause of early abortion
A. Genetic
B. Maternal
C. Immunologic
D. Anatomic abnormalities
Answer: A
149. Following are the indicatons of hysterosalpingography except
A. Fallopian tube patency in infertility
B. Study uterine anamoly
C. Detect uterine synechiae
D. Detect endometriosis
Answer: D
150. Sarcoma botryoides all are true except ?
A. Also called embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
B. Commonly arises from vagina
C. It presents with blood stained watery vaginal discharge
D. It can be treated with VAC regime
Answer: B
151. Monzygotic twin with one healthy baby born at term and one dead mummified fetusis suggestive of ?
A. Fetus acardiacus
B. Fetus papyraceous
C. Hydatidiform mole
D. Vanishing twin
Answer: B
152. Mediolateral episiotomy is preferred because ?
A. Reduces damage to anal sphincter and anal canal
B. Less blood loss
C. Easy to suture
D. Easy technique
Answer: A
153. Which is not a part of basic essential obstetric care?
A. Blood transfusion
B. Parenteral antibiotics
C. Parenteral oxytocic drugs
D. Parenteral sedatives for eclampsia
Answer: A
154.Vasa previa is seen in which type of placenta ?
A. Central
B. Vilamentous
C. Peripheral
D. None of the above
Answer: B
155.Duration of second stage of labor depends upon –
A. Size of fetus
B. Mother’s build
C. Parity
D. Lie of fetus
Answer: C
156. Simultaneous administration of estrogen and progesterone in hormone replacement therapy increases risk of ?
A. Ovarian cancer
B. Breast cancer
C. Cervical cancer
D. Both a and b
Answer: D
157. LEEP stands for ?
A. Loop electrosurgical excision procedure
B. Loop electromagnetic excision procedure
C. Loop electrodiagnostic excision procedure
D. Loop electrochemical excision procedure
Answer: A
158. Definitive treatment for a case of severe pre eclampsia is
A. MgS0,
B. Delivery of baby
C. Antihypertensive drugs
D. Rest
Answer: B
159. Another name for mancehster operation for uterine prolapse is ?
A. Fothergill
B. Mercy
C. McDonald
D. Purandare
Answer: A
160. What is the risk of recurrence of anencephaly in subsequent pregnancy?
A. 1%
B. 2%
C. 3%
D. 4%
Answer: B
161. Following is true about tamoxifene except ?
A. It is a selective estrogen receptor modulator
B. It is a competitive inhibitor of estrogen at receptor site
C. It decreases risk of venous thromboembolism
D. It can be used for induction of ovulation
Answer: C
162. Following is true regarding the management of intrauterine fetal death except ?
A. In 50% of cases spontaneous expulsion occurs in 2 weeks
B. Fibrinogen levels should be checked weekly
C. Delivery by medical induction is preferred if spontaneous expulsion does not occur
D. Caesarian section has limited place in management of intrauterine fetal death
Answer: A
163. Sequence of lochia ?
A. Rubra – Serosa – Alba
B. Serosa – Alba – Rubra
C. Alba – Rubra – Serosa
D. Alba – Serosa – Rubra
Answer: A
164. Amenorrhoea following hyperprolactinoma is caused by ?
A. Inhibition of GnRH pulse secretion
B. Inhibition of adrenal steoridogenesis
C. It causes hypergonadotropic hypogonadism
D. It leads to formation of ovarian cysts
Answer: A
165. Old complete perineal tear is repaired at ?
A. Immediately
B. 3 – 6 months
C. 6 – 9 months
D. 9 – 12 months
Answer: B
166. Which of the following has maximum diabetogenic potency in pregnancy ?
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Cortisol
D. Prolactin
Answer: C
167. Role of ergometrine to stop post partum hemorrhage is due to ?
A. Increased uterine muscle tone
B. Vasoconstriction
C. Increased platelet aggregation
D. Increased coagulation
Answer: A
168. Continence & incontinence of urine is seen in ?
A. VVF
B. Vesicoperitoneal
C. Ureterovaginal
D. Uretrovaginal
Answer: C
169. Type of suture used in complete perineal tear is
A. Catgut
B. Silk
C. Vicryl
D. Vicryl and catgut
Answer: D
170. Uterine rupture is most common in
A. Ant lower segment
B. Classical C.S
C. Placenta previa
D. Normal labour
Answer: B
171. Chances of uterine rupture are least in
A. LSCS
B. Classic
C. Inverted
D. Low vertical
Answer: A
172. Age of metropathic hemorrhagica is ?
A. 20-25
B. 50-55
C. 60-65
D. 40-45
Answer: D
173. Management of ecclampsia in 34 weeks of pregnancy is
A. Continue of convulsion and wait for 37 wk to complete
B. Wait for spontaneous labours
C. BP contineu
D. Anti hypertensive, anticonvulsant and termination of pregnancy
Answer: D
174. Hematuria in previous LSCS patient indicates
A. Urinary tract infection
B. Placenta previa
C. Rupture uterus
D. None
Answer: C
175. Battle door insertion of placenta ?
A. Cord attached to the margin of placenta
B. Placenta attached to the margin
C. Cord attached to the membranes
D. Placenta attached to the centre
Answer: C
176. All are true about constriction ring except ?
A. Also called schroeder’s ring
B. Can be caused by injudicious oxytocin use
C. Ring can be palpated per abdomen
D. Inhalation of amyl nitrate relaxes the ring
Answer: C
177. 21yr college girl with mild endometriosis
treatmenta) Cyclical OC pill
B. Continuous Oc pill
C. Progesterone only pill
D. Danazole
Answer: A
178. Not seen in endometriosis ?
A. Vaginal discharge
B. Dysparenuria
C. Infertility
D. Chronic pelvic pain
Answer: A
179. Metrorrhagia is produced by the following except?
A. Polyp
B. CA endometrium
C. IUD
D. Intramural fibroid
Answer: D
180. Bonney’s test is used determine ?
A. Uterine prolapsed
B. Stress urinary incontinence
C. Vesicovaginal fistula
D. Uteric fistula
Answer: B
181. Red degeneration of fibroid is seen in ?
A. Early pregnancy
B. Mid pregnancy
C. Puperium
D. Nulliparous women
Answer: B
182. Radical hysterectomy in stage lb ca cervix better than radiotherapy all are true except ?
A. Chance of survival more
B. Chance of recurrence less
C. Ovary function can be preserved
D. Less complicated
Answer: A
183. Bilateral ovarian carcinoma + capsule + ascitis+ paraaortic LN. Which stage ?
A. 1C
B. 2C
C. 3C
D. 4C
Answer: A
184. Radiation to point A in cervix is ?
A. 8000 rad
B. 6000 rad
C. 10000 rad
D. 4000 rad
Answer: A
185. Most common presentation of cervical cancer is
A. Deep pelvic pain
B. Rectal pain
C. Bleeding per vaginum
D. Weight loss
Answer: C
186. Treatment of simple hyperplasia of endometrium is ?
A. Progesterone
B. Estrogen
C. Hysterectomy
D. Cryosurgery
Answer: A
187. Most common presenting feature of complete mole is ?
A. Vomiting
B. Amenorrhoea
C. Amenorrhoea
D. Bleeding per vaginum
Answer: D
188. Androgenic XX chromosome is ?
A. Partial mole
B. Complete mole
C. Turner’s syndrome
D. Stein leventhal syndrome
Answer: B
189. High chance of rupture in tubal pregnancy are seen in which ?
A. Ampulla
B. Isthmus
C. Interstitial
D. Fimbrial
Answer: B
190. Most common site of ectopic pregnancy is
A. Tubal
B. Abdominal
C. Ovarian
D. Uterine
Answer: A
191. % of ectopic pregnancy seen in fallopian tube is?
A. 75%
B. 90%
C. 80%
D. 67%
Answer: B
192. Drugs used in ectopic pregnancy ?
A. PGE2
B. PGI
C. PGF2
D. None
Answer: C
193. Most common congenital uterine anomaly is ?
A. Bicornuate uterus
B. Septate uterus
C. Unicornuate uterus
D. Arcuate uterus
Answer: B
194. When is copper T inserted ?
A. 3 days after periods are over
B. Within 10 days of start of menstrual cycle
C. PID just before menstruation
D. Just after menstruation
Answer: B
195. Most common cause of annular cervix is ?
A. Obstructive labor
B. Prepitate labor
C. Primary cervical dystocia
D. Iatrogenic
Answer: C
196. Intrauterine adhesions best seen by?
A. USG
B. CT
C. Hysteroscopy
D. MRI
Answer: C
197. Insulin resistance in pregnancy is due to ?
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. HPL
D. GH
Answer: A:C
198. Gestational diabetes mellitus ?
A. Is first recognized during pregnancy
B. Previous history of IUGR
C. There is no recurrance of GDM in future pregnancy
D. No risk of overt diabetes
Answer: A
199. True about gestational diabetes is ?
A. These are increased chances of congenital malformation
B. Only 2% of women present with overt diabetes
C. There is chance of macrosomia
D. Usually diagnosed in early pregnancy
Answer: C
200. Most common presenting symptom of TB endometritis is
A. Abdominal pain
B. Infertility
C. Amenorrhoea
D. Vaginal discharge
Answer: B
201. PID after insertion of IUD is seen in how many weeks?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 14
Answer: A
202. Acute PID, most common route of spread ?
A. Descending
B. Ascending infection
C. Lymphatics
D. Hematogenous
Answer: B
203. Best way to look at endometrial activity is by
A. HSG
B. Biopsy
C. USG
D. Colposcopy
Answer: B
204. Block given in forceps delivery ?
A. Pudendal
B. Ilio inguinal
C. Genitofemoral
D. Posterior femoral
Answer: A
205. Cause of big baby ?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hyperinsulinemia
C. Multiparity
D. Post maturity
Answer: A:B:C:D
206. Decubitus ulcer is ?
A. Due to trauma
B. Due to venous congestion
C. Due to friction created by thighs
D. Due to
Answer: B
207. Patient with history of vaginal prolapse with ulcer on it. Diagnosis ?
A. Carcinoma
B. Pressure erosion
C. Syphilis
D. Decubitus ulcer
Answer: D
208. SERMs are ?
A. Agonist on estrogen receptor
B. Antagonist on estrogen receptor
C. Some are agonist some antagonist on estrogen receptor
D. Used due to reduced chances of hot flushes, thromboembolism
Answer: C
209. Female with hirsutism with ammenorrhoea and obesity. Diagnosis ?
A. PCOD
B. Ovarian tumor
C. Androgen insensitivity syndrome
D. Turner syndrome
Answer: A
210. HAIRAN syndrome is seen in ?
A. PCOD
B. Endometeriosis
C. CA ovary
D. Adrenal tumours
Answer: A
211. Regarding PCOD all are true except ?
A. High FSH/LH
B. High DHEA
C. Raised LH
D. T Estrogen
Answer: A
212. Which hormone increases in PCOD ?
A. LH
B. FSH
C. Estrogen
D. TSH
Answer: A
213. Stein Levinthal syndrome what hormone is raised?
A. LH
B. FSH
C. GnRH
D. Progesterone
Answer: A
214. What should not be done during delivery of Rh negative?
A. IV Fluids
B. External version
C. Manual removal of placenta should be done gently
D. Ergometire to be withheld at delivery of ant. shoulder
Answer: A
215. History of yellow green watery discharge and pruritus?
A. Trichomonas vaginalis
B. Candida
C. Bacterial vaginosis
D. Clamydia tracomatis
Answer: B
216. Most common genital infection in pregnancy is ?
A. Candida
B. Gonorrhea
C. Trachoma
D. Cytomegalo virus
Answer: A
217. Decreased fetal heart sound is due to which drug
A. Oxytocin
B. Sodium bicarbonate
C. IV fluids
D. Iron
Answer: A
218. Dose of mifepristone in MTP is ?
A. 10mg
B. 20 mg
C. 100mg
D. 200mg
Answer: A
219. A young sexually active female has intensive pruritus and watery discharge, smear shows ?
A. Trichomonas vaginalis
B. Candida vaginitis
C. Gardenlla vaginalis
D. HIV
Answer: D
220. Treatment for trichomonas vaginalis is ?
A. Metronidazole
B. Azithromycin
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. None
Answer: A
221. Which organism causes puerperal sepsis ?
A. CMV
B. Toxoplasma gondii
C. Group A beta hemolytic streptococci
D. Group B beta hemolytic streptococci
Answer: C
222. The prostaglandin most commonly used at term for induction of labor is ?
A. PGI2
B. PGE1
C. PGE2
D. PGF2a
Answer: C
223. HCG levels at which Expectant management of Ectopic pregnancy can be done :
A. 10000 IU/L
B. 1000 IU/L
C. 2500 IU/L
D. 5000 IU/L
Answer: B
224. MC cause of Primary Amenorrhea is ?
A. Constitutional/idiopathic
B. RMKH syndrome
C. Ovarian dysgenesis
D. None of the above
Answer: C
225. An infertile woman has bilateral tubal block at cornua diagnosed on hysterosalpingography. Next treatment of choice is ?
A. IVF
B. Laparoscopy and hysteroscopy
C. Tuboplasty
D. Hydrotubation
Answer: B
226. Fetal karyotyping can be done by all, EXCEPT?
A. Cordocentesis
B. Amniocentesis
C. CVS
D. Fetal skin biopsy
Answer: D
227. 55 year old lady complaints of mass in the vagina, which is reducible & increases on defecation. The diagnosis is?
A. Rectal prolapse
B. Uterine prolapse
C. Cervical fibroid
D. Vaginal cancer
Answer: B
228. Moschowit’s surgery is done for
A. Cervical cancer
B. Fundal fibroids
C. Uterine prolapse
D. Enterocele prevention
Answer: D
229.Which of the following is used in quantifying hirsutism?
A. Bishop score
B. Rotterdam criteria
C. Ferriman-Gallwey score
D. All of the above
Answer: C
230. MC heart disease in pregnancy is ?
A. MS
B. AS
C. MR
D. WPW syndrome
Answer: A
231. Rate of cervical dilatation in primigravida is ?
A. 0.8 cm/hour
B. 1.2 cm/hour
C. 1.5 cm/hour
D. 2 cm/hour
Answer: A
232. Complications of pre eclampsia are all except ?
A. Post datism
B. DIC
C. Blindness
D. None of the above
Answer: A
233. What is monitored in a patient of pre eclamsia ?
A. Uric acid
B. Platelet count
C. LFT
D. All of the above
Answer: D
234. Not an absolute contraindication for methylergometrine use is ?
A. Eclampsia
B. Heart disease
C. Rh incompatibility
D. After delivery of first baby in twin pregnancy
Answer: C
235. A lady with 35 weeks of pregnancy is admitted in view of first episode of painless bout of bleeding yesterday. On examination Hb 10g%, BP 120/70 mmHg, uterus relaxed, and cephalic floating. FHS regular. Next line of management is ?
A. Cesarean section
B. Induction of labor
C. Wait and watch
D. Blood transfusion
Answer: C
236. G3P2L2 with previous 2 LSCS with anterior placenta previa has got a very high risk of which complication?
A. Placenta acreta
B. Vasa previa
C. Abruption
D. None of the above
Answer: A
237. B-Lynch suture is applied on ?
A. Cervix
B. Uterus
C. Fallopian tubes
D. Ovaries
Answer: B
238. A 28-year-old primigravida with 33 weeks of pregnancy suddenly complains of headache, oliguria, and blurred vision. Her BP is 180/110 and urine albumin is +3. The line of further management is ?
A. Wait and watch
B. LSCS
C. Induction of labor
D. Anticonvulsant + antihypertensive therapy
Answer: D
239. Which of the following statements concerning abdominal pregnancy is correct?
A. Gastrointestinal symptoms are quite often very severe
B. Fetal survival is approximately 80%
C. Aggressive attempts should be made to remove the placenta at
the time of initial surgery
D. Placenta can be left in situ at the time of surgery
Answer: D
240. Complete vesicular mole is associated Theca leutin csyts in what percentage of cases ?
A. <5
B. 5-15
C. 20-40
D. 60-70
Answer: C
241. Patient with 3 months amenorrhoea, c/o hyperemesis and vaginal bleeding since one month. O/E=uterus 16 weeks with absent fetal heart sound. The diagnosis is ?
A. Vesicular mole
B. Ectopic pregnancy
C. IUFD
D. Abruptio placentae
Answer: A
242. Patient with choriocarcinoma & jaundice, treatment of choice is ?
A. Methotreaxate
B. Actinomycin D
C. Suction evacuation
D. Combination of all
Answer: B
243. EMACO regime is for ?
A. Ca cervix
B. Ca endometrium
C. Ca ovary
D. Chorio carcinoma
Answer: D
244. Stage lb cervical cancer is diagnosed in a young woman. Assuming that the cancer is confirmed to the cervix and that intraoperative biopsies are negative, which of the following structure would not be removed during the radical hysterectomy?
A. Uterosacral and uterovesical ligaments
B. Pelvic nodes
C. The entire parametrium on both sides of the cervix
D. Both ovaries
Answer: D
245. In vaginal hysterectomy, the first clamp includes:
A. Uterine artery
B. Fallopian tube & round ligament
C. Uterosacral ligament
D. None of the above
Answer: C
246. Therapeutic conization is indicated in?
A. Microinvasive carcinoma cervix stage lal
B. CIN III
C. Unsatisfactory colposcopy with cervical dysplasia
D. Cervical metaplasia
Answer: A
247. Cervical cancer III B treatment is ?
A. Wertheim’s operation
B. Radiotherapy
C. Chemotherapy
D. Chemoradiation
Answer: D
248. Wertheim’s hysterectomy is done for ?
A. 1A1 cervical cancer
B. IB cervical cancer
C. Germ cell ovarian cancer
D. All of the above
Answer: B
249. Radio isotope used in Ca cervix Brachytherapy ?
A. Cobalt
B. Iridium
C. Cesium
D. All of the above
Answer: D
250. Ca vulva spreads to all except ?
A. Urethra
B. Deep inguinal nodes
C. Superficial inguinal nodes
D. Paraaortic nodes
Answer: D
251. Which ovarian tumour can present with menorrhagia ?
A. Demoid cyst
B. Epithelial ovarian cancer
C. Granulosa cell tumour
D. Yolk sac tumour
Answer: C
252. All are risk factors for ectopic pregnancy except ?
A. Past history
B. Tubal ligation failure
C. IVF
D. LNG IUCD
Answer: D
253. A 21-year-old female presents to emergency ward with 2 months of amenorrhea with pain in abdomen and shock. BP 90/60 mmHg and Hb 6 gm%. Urine pregnancy test is found positive. Next immediate line of treatment is ?
A. Laparotomy
B. IV fluids & cross match
C. Medical management
D. Laparoscopy
Answer: B
254. DOC for medical management of ectopic pegnancy ?
A. Actinomycin D
B. Intramuscular Methotrexate
C. Intramuscular Methotrexate
D. PGf2 alpha
Answer: B
255. What is not used in PCOS ?
A. OC pills
B. Cyclical progesterones
C. Myoinositol
D. Danazol
Answer: D
256. Pearl necklace appearance is characteristic of ?
A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. PCOS
C. Endometriosis
D. PID
Answer: B
257. Violin string adhesion [violent string sign] is seen in ?
A. PCOS
B. Endometriosis
C. Fitz – high -curtis syndrome
D. Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
Answer: C
258. Dysgerminoma spreads mainly via ?
A. Hematogenous route
B. Lymphatic route
C. Direct spread
D. Does not spread
Answer: B
259. Triad of symptoms of endometriosis are all except ?
A. Infertility
B. Dysmenorrhea
C. Dyspareunia
D. Cyclical hematuria
Answer: D
260. Complication of Benign Ovarian Cysts is ?
A. Torsion
B. Intracystic hemorrhage
C. Pseudomyxoma perotonei
D. All of the above
Answer: D
261. Level 1 support of uterus & vagina is ?
A. levator ani
B. Perineal body
C. Uterosacral ligaments
D. All of the above
Answer: C
262. MC presenting symptom of fibroid is ?
A. Menorrhagia
B. Infertility
C. Lump
D. Compression
Answer: A
263. Medical management of fibroids is with all except
A. Progesterone
B. Mifepristone
C. Ulipristal acetate
D. Misoprostol
Answer: D
264. Endometriosis is ?
A. Endometrium within the myometrium
B. Functional endometrium outside the uterus
C. Myometrium within the endometrium
D. Rare squamous variety of CA endometrium
Answer: B
265.Samson’s theory for Development of Endometriosis is ?
A. Celomic metaplasia
B. Hematogenous spread
C. Lymphatic spread
D. Retrograde menstruation
Answer: D
266. Examination of a 26 years old obese infertile female reveals. Fixed retroverted uterus & Nodularity of the uterosacral ligaments. The most likely diagnosis is ?
A. PCOS
B. Endometriosis
C. Adenomyosis
D. TB
Answer: B
267. Investigation of choice for endometriosis ?
A. USG
B. CA 125
C. MRI
D. Laparoscopy
Answer: D
268. Powder burnt lesion seen in ?
A. PID
B. PCOS
C. Endometriosis
D. All of the above
Answer: C
269. Treatment of choice in patient with infertility & endometriosis ?
A. IUI
B. Surgery
C. Danozol
D. Ovulation induction
Answer: B
270. Surgery of choice in 42 year old P3L3 with diffuse endometriosis is ?
A. Ovarian cystectomy & adhesiolysis
B. Hysterectomy
C. Hysterectomy with BSO with resection of endometrial implants
D. Ovarian cystectomy & adhesiolysis & resection of implants
Answer: C
271. The most common Mullerian anomaly is?
A. Mullerian agenesis (RMKH)
B. Unicornuate uterus
C. Bicornuate uterus
D. Septate uterus
Answer: D
272. SEAM used in DUB is ?
A. Clomiphene
B. Raloxifene
C. Ormiloxifene
D. Mifepristone
Answer: C
273. Choice of adjuvant treatment for endometrial carcinoma stage IA, grade I is?
A. Radiotherapy
B. Chemotherapy
C. Chemotherapy plus radiotherapy
D. No treatment
Answer: D
274. A 46-year-old P3L3 complains of menorrhagia since 3 months. Next line of management is ?
A. D & C
B. Progesterone x 6 months
C. OC pills x 6 months
D. Hysterectomy
Answer: A
275. Simple hyperplasia with atypia will progress to ca endometrium in % of cases ?
A. 1-2
B. 3-4
C. 8-9
D. 20
Answer: C
276. Grade 1 Ca endometrium, there is presence of % non sqoumaous growth ?
A. <5 B. 6-25 C. 25-50 D. >50
Answer: A
277. Definitive treatment of adenomyosis is ?
A. OC pills
B. NSAIDS
C. Endometrial ablation
D. Hysterectomy
Answer: D
278. MC cause for hysterectomy is ?
A. Prolapse
B. Fibroids
C. Ca endometrium
D. Acute PID
Answer: B
279. Prolonged surgery time of vaginal hysterectomy would lead to damage to which nerve ?
A. Obturator
B. Pudendal
C. Peroneal
D. Sural
Answer: C
280.Which of the following is not a part of PID
A. Endometritis
B. Cervicitis
C. Tuboovarian abcess
D. Peritonitis
Answer: B
281. Triad for clinical diagnosis PID includes all except ?
A. Fever
B. Lower abdominal pain
C. Cervical motion tenderness
D. Bilateral adnexal tenderness
Answer: A
282. Acute salpingitis is most commonly caused by ?
A. N. gonorrhoeae
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Mycoplasma
D. Staphylococcus
Answer: B
283. Tumor marker for germ cell malignancy are all except?
A. LDH
B. Alkaline phosphatase
C. AFP
D. CA-125
Answer: D
284. Acute pelvic pain could be due to ?
A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. PID
C. Corpus luteum hematoma
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Ans. D. All of the above
285. Nugent score includes all except
A. Lactobacillus
B. Gardnerella
C. Mobiluncus
D. Gonococcus
Answer: D
286. Clue cells are seen in?
A. Bacterial vaginosis
B. Candidiasis
C. Chlamydiasis
D. Trichomoniasis
Answer: A
287. HSG findings suggestive of genital koch ?
A. Beaded tubes
B. Honeycomb uterus
C. Golf club tube
D. All of the above
Answer: D
288. A pregnant lady presents with genital warts. The best management for her is ?
A. Imiquimod
B. Trichloroacetic acid
C. Podophyllin
D. Cryotherapy
Answer: D
289. 28 year old female complaints of foul smelling yellowish urethral discharge since 4 days. History of burning micturation. History of sexual contact with multiple partners 2 days before the onset of symptoms. Most likely diagnosis is ?
A. Syphilis
B. Chancroid
C. Gonococcal urethritis
D. Non-infective urethritis
Answer: C
290. Twin-peak sign is seen in ?
A. All Monozygotic twins
B. Monochorionic twins
C. Dichorionic twins
D. Siamese twins
Answer: C
291. In ca Cervix treatment, point A receives ?
A. 3000 cGy
B. 5000 cGy
C. 7000 cGy
D. 10,000 cGy
Answer: C
292. Ashermans syndrome is characterized by ?
A. Amenorrhea
B. Menorrhagia
C. Polymenorrhea
D. All of the above
Answer: A
293. GARDASIL vaccine is for
A. HPV 16,18
B. HSV
C. HPV 6,11,16,18
D. Hepatitis B
Answer: C
294. LNG content of Mirena is
A. 20 gms
B. 20 mg
C. 52 gms
D. 52 mgs
Answer: D
Ans. D. 52 mgs
295. Which of the following decreases the risk of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease ?
A. Cu T
B. Spermicidal agents
C. O.C. pills
D. Today vaginal sponge
Answer: C
296. Patient with 45 XO , what HRT to be given ?
A. Growth hormone + E+P
B. Estrogene
C. No HRT Needed
D. HRT only after 45 years
Answer: A
297. Tamoxifen decreases the risk of which cancer?
A. Breast
B. Endometrium
C. Ovary
D. All of the above
Answer: A
298. Raloxifene decreases the risk of which cancer?
A. Breast
B. Cervix
C. Ovary
D. All of the above
Answer: A
299. Least failure rate ?
A. CuT
B. MIRENA
C. DMPA
D. O.C. PILLS
Answer: B
300. Nuva ring contains ?
A. EE+ etonogestrel
B. LNG + EE
C. LNG
D. EE+ drosperinone
Answer: A
301. Which drug used for endometriosis can cause increase in hepatic enzyme & adverse lipid profile
A. 0. C. pills
B. GnRh analogues
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Answer: A
302.Norgestimate in OC pills has the following advantage ?
A. Reduces venous thrombosis
B. Is cheaper than standard OC pills
C. Reduces acne and hirsutism
D. Useful in heart disease
Answer: C
303. Which of the following is not an ideal candidate for IUCD insertion ?
A. Previous LSCS
B. Lactating mother
C. Acute PID
D. All of the above
Answer: C
304. Betamethasone given to preterm patient for all except ?
A. Fetal lung maturity
B. Decrease intraventricular hemorrhage
C. Prevents periventricular leukomalacia
D. Prevent PPH
Answer: D
305. A 32-year-old female with mild hypertension. Two days after normal delivery, she develop seizures, headache. No proteinuria was there. On imaging she was found to have parasagittal infarction and hematoma 3x2cm.The most probable cause is?
A. Eclampsia
B. Superior sagittal sinus thrombosis
C. Pituitary apoplexy
D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Answer: B
306. Penicillamine use in pregnancy is associated with this fetal complication ?
A. Conradi syndrome
B. Renal anomalies
C. Thymus hypolplasia
D. Cutis laxa
Answer: D
307. DOC for malaria in pregnancy ?
A. Chloroquin
B. Quinine
C. Primaquin
D. Artesunate
Answer: A
308. Prophylactic methergin given for ?
A. Induction of labour
B. Induction of abortion
C. To stop excess bleeding from uterus
D. All of the above
Answer: C
309. 6 year old son of pregnant women is suffering from chicken pox. Which of the following is given to pregnant women ?
A. Acyclovir
B. Acyclovir + immunoglobulin
C. Only immunoglobulin
D. Vaccination
Answer: B
310. Maximum chance of transmission during
delivery?
A. HSV
B. CMV
C. VZV
D. Rubella
Answer: A
311. Drug of choice for pneumocystis carinii in pregnancy?
A. SMZ/TMP
B. Primaquine
C. Dapsone
D. Pentamidine
Answer: A
312. A pregnant woman in first trimester has four fold rise in IgG against toxoplasmosis. it indicates ?
A. Protective antibodies
B. Acute infection
C. Chronic infection
D. None of the above
Answer: B
313. HRT is given in ?
A. Symptomatic postmenopausal women
B. Following hysterectomy
C. Gonadal dysgenesis
D. All of the above
Answer: D
314. Methergin is given for prophylaxis of ?
A. Anaemia
B. Cardiac disease
C. Renal disease
D. Lung disease
Answer: A
315. All of the following occurs because of prostaglandin use except?
A. Excess water retention
B. Flushes
C. Increased motility of bowel
D. Nausea
Answer: A
316. Definite use for PGE2 is all except ?
A. Contraception
B. Induces labour
C. Therapeutic abortion
D. Keeps patency of PDA
Answer: A
317. Which of following most commonly clinically used?
A. Diagonal conjugate
B. Ant post diameter of inlet
C. Transverse diameter of outlet
D. Oblique diameter of pelvis
Answer: A
318. Least diameter of inlet of gynecoid pelvis is?
A. Transverse
B. Oblique
C. Diagonal conjugate
D. Obstetric conjugate
Answer: D
319. Tdap vaccine is give in between which weeks of pregnancy?
A. 10-16 weeks
B. 17-22 weeks
C. 22-26 weeks
D. 27-36 weeks
Answer: D
320. If 300 microgram anti D is given to mother , amount of blood it will neutralise ?
A. 30m1
B. 40m1
C. 50m1
D. 60m1
Answer: A
321. Maximum success after reversal of tubal ligation?
A. Cauterization
B. Pomeroy’s technique
C. Clip method
D. Fimbriectomy
Answer: C
322. Failure rate of Pomeroy’s method of tubal ligation is ?
A. 0.2%
B. 0.4%
C. 0.6%
D. 0.8%
Answer: B
323. Least failure rate is of ?
A. OC pills
B. IUDs
C. Condom
D. DMPA
Answer: A
324. Cholestasis of pregnancy false is ?
A. Bilirubin level >2mg%
B. Most common cause of jaundice in pregnancy
C. Oestrogen is involved
D. Manifestations usually appear in last trimester
Answer: B
325. I-pill is used when ?
A. Accidental sexual exposure
B. OCP forgotten
C. Of choice in young
D. All of the above
Answer: A
326. Emergency contraceptive should must be started with in how much time after unprotected intercourse?
A. 24 hrs
B. 48 hrs
C. 72 hrs
D. 96 hrs
Answer: C
327. 35 year old with history of repeated D&C. She now has secondary amenorrhea. What is your diagnosis?
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Kallman syndrome
C. Sheehan’s syndrome
D. Asherman’s syndrome
Answer: D
328. Asherman’s syndrome false is ?
A. Associated with menstrual irregularities
B. Progesterone challenge test is positive
C. Synechiae formation in uterus
D. May be secondary to TB
Answer: B
329. Most common site of endometriosis
A. Ovary
B. FT
C. Colon
D. LSCS Scar
Answer: A
Ans, A. Ovary
330. Gold standard diagnostic technique for diagnosis of endometriosis?
A. Laproscopy
B. Ca 125 level
C. Ultrasound
D. MRI
Answer: A
331. TB uterus all is true except?
A. Mostly secondary
B. Increase incidence of ectopic pregnancy
C. Involvement of endosalpinx
D. Most common is ascending infection
Answer: D
332. Fallopian tube tuberculosis ?
A. Most common type of genital TB
B. Size of the tubes is unchanged
C. Is asymptomatic
D. Primary focus of infection is always in fallopian tubes
Answer: A:C
333. Initial drug for ovarian cancer ?
A. Cisplatin
B. Doxorubicin
C. Ifosfamide
D. Methotrexate
Answer: A
334. Diagnosis of adenomyosis is made by ?
A. Histopathology
B. Ultrasound
C. MRI
D. Laproscopy
Answer: D
335. Endometrial carcinoma involving cervix, stage is?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B
336. Hydronephrosis is seen in which stage of Ca cervix?
A. 2a
B. 2b
C. 3a
D. 3b
Answer: D
337. Bartholin’s cyst treatment of choice
A. Excision
B. Antibiotics
C. Marsupialisation
D. Drainage
Answer: C
338. Definitive management of Adenomyosis is?
A. GNRH analogue
B. Danazole
C. LH
D. Hysterectomy
Answer: D
339. Most common degeneration of fibroids ?
A. Calcareous
B. Hyaline
C. Red
D. Cystic
Answer: B
340. Which of the following cannot be treated by laparoscopy
A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. Sterilization
C. Non descent of uterus
D. Genital prolapsed
Answer: C
341. Which is least injured in gynaecological procedures?
A. Ureter at pelvic brim
B. Renal pelvis
C. Urinary bladder
D. Ureter at infundibulopelvic ligament
Answer: B
342. Definitive treatment for preeclampsia?
A. Delivery of baby
B. Antihypertensive drugs
C. Rest
D. Diet
Answer: A
343. Best to diagnose unruptured ectopic pregnancy ?
A. Scopy
B. UPT
C. USG
D. Culdocentesis
Answer: A
344. Most of ectopic pregnancies are at ampulla as?
A. It is the narrowest part
B. Tubal movements are least here
C. Salpingitis produces least crypts here
D. Plicae are most numerous here
Answer: D
345.Prolapsed of uterus in nulliparous women, treatment is?
A. Sling used involving rectus sheath
B. Anterior colporrhaphy
C. Posterior colporrhaphy
D. Manchester operation
Answer: A
346. Exclusively Fetal blood loss occurs in ?
A. Vasa previa
B. Placenta praevia
C. Polyhydramnios
D. Oligohydramnios
Answer: A
347. Placenta previa, false is ?
A. Most common cause of APH
B. Painful vaginal bleeding
C. Usg is the investigation of choice
D. Increased maternal age is a risk factor
Answer: A
Ans. A. Most common cause of APH
348. 45 yr old female patient underwent hysterectomy, on 7th post op day complaints about continuous dribbling of urine and fever. Micturition was not voluntary, what diagnosis?
A. Vesico vaginal fistula
B. Uretero vaginal fistula
C. Vesico uterine fistula
D. Urethra vaginal fistula
Answer: C
349. Vacuum delivery produces?
A. Chingon
B. Cephalhematoma
C. Both
D. None
Answer: C
350. HT indicated in menopausal women
A. Hot flash
B. Ca breast
C. Endometriosis
D. Uterine bleeding
Answer: A
351. In Uterine prolapse how to know if ring is in place?
A. If not expelled after increased abdominal pressure
B. If Bleeding does not occur
C. If patient feels discomfort
D. None
Answer: A
352. Drug that is used for fetal lung maturity is:
A. Dexamethasone
B. Folic acid
C. Beclomethasone
D. None
Answer: A
353. Best time to do quadruple test
A. 8-12 weeks
B. 11-15 weeks
C. 15-20 weeks
D. 18-22 weeks
Answer: C
354. Which One of the following is not a cause of secondary Postpartum Haemorrhage?
A. Placenta previa
B. Retained bits of placenta
C. Endometritis
D. Polyp
Answer: A
355. RDA of iodine in lactation in microgram
A. 150
B. 220
C. 100
D. 250
Answer: D
356. Paget’s is associated with which other cancer:
A. Vulva
B. Vagina
C. Cervix
D. Uterus
Answer: A
357. Fimbriectomy procedure is known as
A. Uchida method
B. Irving method
C. Madlener technique
D. Kroener method
Answer: D
358. Establishment of fetoplacental circulation seen at
A. 11 to 13 days
B. 20 to 22 days
C. 7 days
D. 25 to 26 days
Answer: B
359. Dilatation & curettage (D&C. is contraindicated in
A. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
B. Endometriosis
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. None
Answer: A
360. Anteversion of uterus is maintained by?
A. Cardinal ligament
B. Uterosacral ligament
C. Pubocervical ligament
D. Round ligament
Answer: D
361. What is the effect of Progesterone only pills?
A. Completely suppresses ovulation
B. Thin lining of uterus
C. Thick cervical mucus
D. All of the above
Answer: D
362. Long-standing pelvic inflammation may lead to which of the following conditions?
A. Pyometra
B. Uterine polyposis
C. Pseudopregnancy
D. Cystic endometrial hyperplasia
Answer: A
363. Meiosis occurs in
A. Adult ovary
B. Prepubertal testis
C. At birth in ovary
D. All
Answer: A
364. Prolactin secreted maximum at
A. 24 hrs after delivery
B. REM
C. 2 hrs running
D. 24 hour after Ovulation
Answer: A
365. A sexually active female with the profuse frothy foul-smelling discharge with intense itching. Strawberry cervix revealed on examination. What will be the diagnosis?
A. Trichomonas vaginalis
B. Bacterial vaginosis
C. Candidiasis
D. None
Answer: A
366. 18-year-old girl presents with 6 months of amenorrhea with h/o low-grade fever, weight loss, pain abdomen, generalized weaknesses. On PR examination, palpable left-sided pelvic mass felt… Diagnosis is
A. Fibroid with degeneration
B. TB pelvis with Tubo ovarian mass
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Granulosa cell tumour
Answer: B
367. A pregnant female had Meconium stained liquor and underwent emergency LSCS. A few days later her condition deteriorated. USG showed edematous bowels. What’s the cause?
A. Meconium peritonitis
B. Paralytic ileus
C. Adhesive intestinal obstruction
D. Intra-abdominal abscess
Answer: B
368. Best treatment option for septate uterus
A. Tompkins Metroplasty
B. Jones metroplasty
C. Strassmann metroplasty
D. Transcervical hysteroscopic resection of the septum
Answer: D
369. Distension media used for hysteroscopy with bipolar cautery?
A. Glycine
B. NS
C. Co2
D. Dextran 70
Answer: B
370. Most common site for Fertilization is
A. Ampulla
B. Isthmus
C. Intramural
D. Fimbriae
Answer: A
371. A 22-year-old primigravida visits ANC OPD with 20 weeks POG. On examination uterine height reveals a 16-week size.USG shows reduced liquor. What will be the diagnosis?
A. Renal agenesis
B. Fetal anemia
C. Barter’s syndrome
D. Liddle syndrome
Answer: A
372. Which of the following is not an estrogen-dependent pubertal change?
A. Hair growth
B. Menstruation
C. Vaginal Cornification
D. Cervical mucus
Answer: B
373. A mother brought her 16-year-old daughter to Gynaecology OPD with a complaint of not attending menarche. She gives H/O cyclic abdominal pain. On further examination midline, abdominal swelling seen. Per rectal examination reveals a bulging mass in the vagina. Which of the following can be most commonly seen?
A. Imperforate hymen
B. Transvaginal septum
C. Vaginal agenesis
D. MRKH
Answer: A
374. 13 yr old child visit gynaecology OPD with a complaint of not attaining menarche with karyotype 46XX. On examination, clitoromegaly is seen. Which enzyme is most likely to be deficient in the above condition?
A. 21 alpha-hydroxylase
B. 11 beta-hydroxylase
C. 17 alpha-hydroxylase
D. 3 beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase
Answer: A
375. In early pregnancy clinical signs of feeling the cer?vix and the body of bulky uterus separated be?cause of softened isthmus at 6 – 8 weeks of gestation :
A. Goodell’s sign
B. Chadwick’s sign
C. Piskacek’s sign
D. Hegar’s sign
Answer: D
376. Misoprostol used in the induction of labour is an analogue of which of the following type of prostaglandin?
A. PG E1
B. PG E2
C. PG I2
D. PG F2alpha
Answer: A
