1. Most common species of pseudomonas causing intravascular catheter related infections is ?
A. P. cepacia
B. P. aeruginosa
C. P. maltiphila
D. P. mallei
Answer: B
2. Draughtsman colonies are seen with:
A. Anthrax
B. Pnuemococci
C. Pertussis
D. Yersenia
Answer: B
3. A 20 year old man presented with abdominal pain, vomiting and bloody diarrhea, his stool sample grew Escherichia coli in pure culture. Which of the following serotype of E.coli is the causative agent of haemorrhagic colitis?
A. O 157:H7
B. O 159:H7
C. O 107:H7
an
D. O 55:H7
Answer: A
4. Granulomatosis infantiseptica is caused by:
A. Pseudomonas
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Group D streptococci
D. Listeria
Answer: D
5. Stalactite growth in ghee broth is due to the following organism?
A. Y.pestis
B. T.palladium
C. H.influenzae
D. C.diphtheriae
Answer: A
6. Milk ring test is done to detect which organism present in milk?
A. Bordetella
B. Brucellosis
C. Bartonella
D. Salmonella
Answer: B
7. TRUE about Corynebacterium diphtheriae are all, EXCEPT:
A. Has metachromatic granules
B. Does not invade deeper tissues
C. Toxigenicity demonstrated by elek’s test
D. Toxin mediated by chromosomal gene
Answer: D
8. Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) causes all, EXCEPT:
A. Coryza in kids
B. ARDS
C. Bronchitis
D. Common cold
Answer: B
9. Who is the father of modern Microbiology?
A. Metchnikoff
B. Lord Lister
C. Louis Pasteur
D. Robert Koch
Answer: C
10. Microorganism which causes pyogenic osteomyelitis is ?
A. Streptococcus
B. Staph aureus
C. Corynebacterium
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Answer: B
11. True statement about Pneumocystic Jiroveci is:
A. Often associated with CMV infection
B. Usually diagnosed by sputum examination
C. Infection occurs only in immunocompromised patients
D. Always associated with Pneumatocele
Answer: B
12. Mycobacterium tuberculosis was discoverd by ?
A. Louis pasteur
B. Robert koch
C. Lister
D. Jener
Answer: B
13. Flagella not true
A. Locomotion
B. Attachment
C. Protein in nature
D. Antigenic
Answer: B
14. Percentage of glutaraldehyde used ?
A. 1%
B. 2%
C. 3%
D. 4%
Answer: B
15. In nutrient agar concentration of agar is
A. 1%
B. 1.5 %
C. 3%
D. 4%
Answer: B
16. Natural method of horizontal gene transfer among bacteria includes
A. Electroporation
B. Transduction
C. Transformation
D. b and c
Answer: D
17. Which cells cause rosette formation with sheep RBCs
A. T cells
B. NK cells
C. Monocytes
D. All
Answer: A
18. Gene components of HLA class I includes
A. A, B, C
B. DR
C. DQ
D. DP
Answer: A
19. Complement attaches to immunoglobulin at ?
A. Aminoterminal
B. Fab region
C. Variable region
D. Fc fragment
Answer: D
20. Antigen idiotype is related to
A. Fc fragment
B. Hinge region
C. C-terminal
D. N-terminal
Answer: D
21. Idiotypic class of antibody is determined by
A. Fc region
B. Hinge region
C. Carboxy end
D. Amino end
Answer: D
22. Antibody diversity is due to
A. Gene rearrangement
B. Gene translocation
C. Antigenic variation
D. a and c
Answer: D
23. Immunoglobulin changes in variable region ?
A. ldiotype
B. Isotype
C. A llotype
D. Epitope
Answer: A
24. Pentavalent immunoglobin is
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. IgE
Answer: C
25. Maximum half life
A. IgG
B. Ig A
C. IgM
D. Ig E
Answer: A
26. Which of the following immunoglobulin is responsible for opsonisation
A. IgA
B. Ig G
C. Ig M
D. none
Answer: C
27. Activation of classical complement pathway ?
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. IgD
Answer: C
28. The Fc piece of which immunoglobulin fixes C1
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. c and b
Answer: D
29. Antibody elevated in parasitic infection ?
A. IgA
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgM
Answer: B
30. Papain acts an gamma globulin to form ?
A. 2 Fc fragments
B. 2 Fab fragments
C. 1 Fab fragments
D. None
Answer: B
31. Which of the following T cell independent Antigen acts through
A. T-cell
B. B-cell
C. Macrophages
D. CD8+ T cells
Answer: B
Ans. is ‘b’ i.e., B-cells
32.Which part of bacteria is most antigenic ?
A. Protein coat
B. Lipopolysaccharide
C. Nucleic acid
D. Lipids
Answer: A
33. Superantigen causes
A. Polyclonal activation of T-cells
B. Stimulation of B cells
C. Enhancement of phagocytosis
D. Activation of complement
Answer: A
34. Prozone phenomenon is seen with?
A. Same concentration of antibody and antigen
B. In antigen excess to antibody
C. Antibody excess to antigen
D. Hyperimmune reaction
Answer: C
35. Paul bunnel reaction is a type of
A. Agglutination
B. CF
C. Precipitation
D. Flocculation test
Answer: A
36. All are ture about innate immunity except ?
A. Non-specific
B. First line of defence
C. Not affected by genetic affected
D. Includes complement
Answer: C
37. When transfer factor is given as treatment results in
A. Natural active immunity
B. Artificial active immunity
C. Artificial passive immunity
D. Adoptive immunity
Answer: D
38. Which is found in DiGeorge’s syndrome
A. Tetany
B. Eczema
C. Total absence of T cells
D. Absent B and T cells
Answer: A
39. Complement formed in liver
A. C2, C4
B. C3, C6, C9
C. C5, C8
D. C1
Answer: B
40. Center of complement pathway
A. C3
B. CI
C. C5
D. C2
Answer: A
41. Hereditary angioneurotic edema is due to ?
A. Deficiency of C1 inhibitor
B. Deficiency of NADPH oxidase
C. Deficiency of MPO
D. Deficiency of properdin
Answer: A
42. Opsonization takes place through
A. C3a
B. C3b
C. C5a
D. C5b
Answer: B
43. Rosette formation with sheep RBC’s indicate functioning of
A. T-cells
B. B-cells
C. Neutrophils
D. Monocytes
Answer: A
44. Digeorge syndrome is characterized by all except ?
A. Congenital thymic hypoplasia
B. Abnormal development of third and fourth pouches
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Hypocalcemic tetany
Answer: C
45. Staph aureus causes
A. Erythrasma
B. Chancroid
C. Acne vulgaris
D. Bullous impetigo
Answer: D
46. Glomerulonephritis in streptococcal infection is diagnosed by
A. Blood culture
B. Throat culture
C. ASO Titre
D. PCR
Answer: C
47. Which group of streptococcus grow at > 60°C
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: D
48. Pneumococcal vaccine is prepared from ?
A. Cell surface antigen
B. Capsular polysaccharide
C. From exotoxin
D. From M protein
Answer: B
49. Meningococci differ from gonococci in that they?
A. Are intra-cellular
B. Possess a capsule
C. Cause fermentation of glucose
D. Are oxidase positive
Answer: B
50. Virulence of gonococci is due to
A. Pili
B. Endotoxin
C. Exotoxin
D. None
Answer: A
51. Meningitis with rash is seen in
A. Neisseria meningitidis
B. H. influenzae
C. Strepto. agalactae
D. Pneumococcus
Answer: A
52. The vaccine against N-meningitidis contains ?
A. Whole bacteria
B. Capsular polysaccharide
C. Somatic ‘0’ antigen
D. None of these
Answer: B
53. Daisy head colonies are seen with
A. Staph. Aureus
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C. Staph. Pyogenes
D. Anthrax
Answer: B
54. The “String of pearl” colonies on Nutrient agar is produced by
A. Klebsiella
B. Proteus
C. Bacillus
D. Salmonella
Answer: C
55. Saccharolytic species of clostridia ?
A. C. tetani
B. Cl. cochlearum
C. Cl. septicum
D. None
Answer: C
56. The following statements are true regarding botulism except
A. Infant botulism is caused by ingestion of preformed toxin
B. Clostridium botulinum A, B, C and F cause human disease
C. The gene for botulinum toxin is encoded by a bacteriophage
D. Clostridium baratti may cause botulism
Answer: A
57. Botulism is most commonly due to
A. Egg
B. Milk
C. Meat
D. Pulses
Answer: C
58. Pseudomembranous colitis, all are true except
A. Toxin A is responsible for clinical manifestation
B. Toxin B is responsible for clinical manifestation
C. Blood in stools is a common feature
D. Summit lesions is early histopathological finding
Answer: C
59. Shigella are be divided into subgroup on the basis of ability to ferment
A. Lactose
B. Maltose
C. Fructose
D. Mannitol
Answer: D
60. Which of the following stimulate adenylate cyclase with G-protein coupled action ?
A. Shiga toxin
B. Cholera toxin
C. Diphtheria toxin
D. Pseduomonas toxin
Answer: B
61. Cholera toxin is due to
A. Chromosome
B. Plasmid
C. Phage
D. Transposons
Answer: C
62. Psedomonas is which type of bacteria ?
A. Anaerobic
B. Microaerophilic
C. Microaerophilic
D. Obligate anaerobe
Answer: C
63. What is NOT true about yersiniosis
A. Gram-negative bacillus
B. Caused by Y pestis
C. By yersinia enterocolitica
D. By yersinia pseudotuberculosis
Answer: B
64. True about H influenza
A. Grown on sheep blood agar & CO2
B. it is not capsulated
C. Invasive strain is most common
D. Gram positive
Answer: C
65. Thumb print appearance in culture film smear is seen
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Brucella, species
C. Bordetella pertussis
D. Clostridium Welchii
Answer: C
66. Tuberculin test is positive if induration is ?
A. >2min
B. >5mm
C. >7mm
D. >10mrn
Answer: D
67. Pigment producing atypical mycobacteria
?
A. M. fortution and M. chelonae
B. M. xenopi and MAC
C. M. gordonae and M. szulgai
D. M. ulcerans
Answer: C
68. Fish tank granuloma is seen in
A. M fortuitum
B. M kansasi
C. M marinum
D. M leprosy
Answer: C
69. Tabes dorsalis is seen in
A. Primary syphilis
B. Secondary syphilis
C. Tertiary syphilis
D. Latent syphilis
Answer: C
70. True about VDRL test
A. Non – specific
B. Slide flocculation test
C. Best followed for drug therapy
D. All
Answer: D
71. TRUE about mycoplasma is
A. Causes lung infection
B. Penicillin is drug of choice
C. Thick cell wall
D. Thallium acetate inhibits the growth
Answer: A
72. Seven sheathed flagella is seen in
A. V cholera
B. H pylori
C. Ps aeroginosa
D. Spirochetes
Answer: B
73. Legionnaire disease is caused by?
A. Motile gram positive
B. Motile gram negative
C. Non-motile gram positive
D. Non-motile gram negative
Answer: B
74. Patient came from Nagaland and shows positive test with OXK antigen. Diagnosis is?
A. Trench fever
B. Scrub typhus
C. Endemic typhus
D. Epidemic typhus
Answer: B
75. All are true about B. Quintana except
A. Causes trench fever
B. Not detected by weil felix reaction
C. Recurrence is common
D. Tick is the vector
Answer: D
76. Boutonneuse fever is caused by
A. Rickettsia japonica
B. Rickettsia conorii
C. Rickettsia sibirica
D. Rickettsia australis
Answer: B
77. Which of the following has only 1 serotype
A. C psittaci
B. C pneumoniae
C. C trachomatis
D. None
Answer: B
78. Which of the following is called as PreiszNocard bacillus
A. C. diphtheriae
B. C. pseudotuberculosis
C. M. tuberculosis
D. Mycoplasma
Answer: B
79. All cause fournier gangrene except
A. Staphylococcus
B. Streptococcus
C. Clostridium
D. Bacteroides
Answer: C
80. Necrotizing fascitis is caused by
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Beta hemolytic streptococci
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Pneumococcus
Answer: B
81. Which of the following organisms does not enters through abrasions in the skin
A. E rhusiopathiae
B. E corrodens
C. C hominis
D. C violaceum
Answer: C
82. Darting motility which occur in V.cholerae, also found in
A. Shigella
B. Campylobacter jejuni
C. Pneumococcus
D. Bacillus anthrax
Answer: B
83. All are true about cutaneous anthrax except ?
A. Extremely painful
B. The whole area is congested and edematous
C. Central crustation with black eschar
D. Satellite nodule around inguinal region
Answer: A
84. True about vibrio cholerae is
A. Disease more common in woman
B. Classical vibrio protect against development of 0-139 Tor is milder than classical
C. El – Tor is milder than classical
D. All
Answer: C
85. Appearance of cowdry type
A inclusion bodies?
A. Granular
B. Circumscribed
C. In polio
D. None
Answer: A
86. Which is enveloped virus
A. Dengue virus
B. Norwalk virus
C. Hep A virus
D. Adenovirus
Answer: A
87. Smallest DNA virus is?
A. Herpes virus
B. Adenovirus
C. Parvovirus
D. Poxvirus
Answer: C
88. Which of the following is primary cell line ?
A. Chick embryo fibroblast
B. Hela cells
C. Vero cells
D. WI-38
Answer: A
89. Influenza virus culture is done on ?
A. Chorioallantoic membrane
B. Allantoic cavity
C. Yolk sac
D. All
Answer: B
90. Virus quantification is done by
A. Egg inoculation
B. Hemadsorption
C. Plaque assay
D. Electron microscopy
Answer: C
91. Von Magnus phenomenon
A. Is a normal replicative cycle
B. Virus yield has low hemagglutination
C. Virus has high infectivity
D. Virus yields has high hemagglutination titre but low infectivity
Answer: D
92. Lysis of bacterial colony in culture is seen by which virus
A. Pox
B. HSV
C. Bacteriophage
D. CMV
Answer: C
93. Phage typing can be done for
A. Salmonella
B. Streptococcus
C. Shigella
D. Pseudomonas
Answer: A
94. Small pox belongs to which class of poxviruses ?
A. Parapoxvirus
B. Capripoxvirus
C. Leporipox virus
D. Orthopoxvirus
Answer: D
95. Following virus is of pox virus
A. Variola
B. Coxsachie
C. ECHO
D. HSV
Answer: A
96. Brick-shaped virus
A. Chicken pox
B. Small pox
C. CMV
D. EBV
Answer: B
97. A patient with sore throat has a positive Paul Bunnell test. The causative organism is
A. EBV
B. Adenovirus
C. CMV
D. Herpesvirus
Answer: A
98. Coxsackie virus is
A. Harpes virus
B. Pox virus
C. Enterovirus
D. Myxovirus
Answer: C
99. Influenza virus has
A. 5 segments of SS RNA
B. 8 Segments of ds DNA
C. 8 segments of ssDNA
D. 8 segments of ssRNA
Answer: D
100. Hemorrhagic fever is caused by
A. West-Mile fever
B. Sandfly fever
C. Ebola virus
D. All of the above
Answer: C
101. Which of the following is not common in India ?
A. Japanese B encephalitis
B. Lassa fever
C. KFD
D. Dengue
Answer: B
102. Amplifier host is
A. Pig in JE
B. Dog in rabies
C. Man in JE
D. Cattle in JE
Answer: A
103. True about hepatitis A viurs ?
A. Causes cirrhosis
B. Helps HDV replication
C. Common cause of hepatitis in children
D. Causes chronic hepatitis
Answer: C
104. Serological testing of patient shows HBsAg, IgM anti-HBc and HBeAg postive. The patient hase
A. Chronic hepatitis B with low infectivity
B. Acute hepatitis B with high infectivity
C. Chronic hepatitis with high infectivity
D. Acute on chronic hepatitis
Answer: B
105. Nef gene in HIV is for use
A. Enhancing the expression of genes
B. Enhancing viral replication
C. Decreasing viral replication
D. Maturation
Answer: C
106. The chance that a health worker gets HIV from an accidental needle prick is
A. 1%
B. 10%
C. 95%
D. 100%
Answer: A
107. False about p24 is
A. Seen after 3 weeks of infection
B. Cant be seen in first week
C. Cant be detected after seroconversion
D. a and c
Answer: D
108. Which of the following is a protista
A. Algae
B. Fungi
C. Protozoa
D. Bacteria
Answer: C
109. True about trematodes
A. Two host required
B. Segmented
C. Anus present
D. Body cavity present
Answer: A
110. Operculated eggs are seen in
A. Nematodes
B. Cestodes
C. Trematodes
D. Protozoa
Answer: C
111. Amoebic liver abscess can be diagnosed by demonstrating
A. Cysts in the sterile pus
B. Trophozoites in the pus
C. Cysts in the intestine
D. Trophozoites in the feces
Answer: B
112. How many pairs of flagella does Giardia lamblia possess
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Answer: D
113. A case of giardiasis presents with
A. Nausea and vomiting
B. Abdominal pain
C. Steatorrhea and flatulence
D. All of the above
Answer: D
114. Malarial parasite was discovered by
A. Ronald ross
B. Paul muller
C. Laveran
D. Pampania
Answer: C
115. In malaria, sexual cycle is
A. Sporozoite to gametocytes
B. Gametocytes to Sporozoite
C. Occurs in human
D. Responsible for relapse
Answer: B
116. In malaria, pre-erythrocytic schizogony occurs in
A. Lung
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Kidney
Answer: B
117. Which form of the malarial parasite is present in saliva of an infective mosquito
A. Ring form
B. Schizont
C. Gametocyte
D. Sporozoite
Answer: D
.
118. Which type of malaria is associated with renal failure
A. Falciparum
B. Vivax
C. Malariae
D. Ovale
Answer: A
119. Malaria causing nephrotic syndrome
A. P. vivax
B. P. falciparum
C. P. malariae
D. P. ovale
Answer: C
120. JSB stain is used for which parasite ?
A. Malaria
B. Filaria
C. Kala azar
D. Sleeping sickness
Answer: A
121. Cylindrical helminths are
A. Tapeworms
B. Flukes
C. Roundworms
D. Cestodes
Answer: C
122. Consumption of uncooked pork is likely to cause which of the following helminthic disease
A. Taenia saginata
B. Taenia solium
C. Trichuris trichiura
D. None of these
Answer: B
123. Katayama fever is caused by
A. F. hepatica
B. C. sinensis
C. S. haematobium
D. A. lumbricoides
Answer: C
124. Child having perianal pruritus with following eggs is due to
A. E. vermicularis
B. Ascaris
C. Ancylostoma duodenale
D. S stercoralis
Answer: A
125. Wucheria bancrofti, true is
A. Unsheathed
B. Tail tip free from nuclei
C. Non-periodic
D. All
Answer: B
126. Calabar swelling is produced by?
A. Onchocerca volvulus
B. Loa loa
C. Burgia malayi
D. Wuchereria bancrofti
Answer: B
127. River blindness is caused by
A. Onchocerca
B. Loa loa
C. Ascaris
D. B. malayi
Answer: A
128. Cutaneous larva migrans is due to ?
A. Ankylostoma braziliensis
B. W.bancrofti
C. B. Malayi
D. D. medinensis
Answer: A
129. Schistosomiasis is transmitted by ?
A. Cyclops
B. Fish
C. Snaile
D. Cattle
Answer: C
130. Cercariae are infective form of
A. S. hematobium
B. P. westermanii
C. F. hepatica
D. T. solium
Answer: A
131. Which of the following is toxic to parasite
A. Peroxidase
B. Interferon
C. IL-2
D. IL-6
Answer: A
132. Hanging drop method is used for
A. T. trichomonas
B. Plasmodium
C. Toxoplasma
D. Cryptosporidium
Answer: A
133. Which of the following is true about malaria ?
A. Gametocyte harbourers are carrier
B. All stage in erythrocytic schizogony seen in falciparum infection
in peripheral blood
C. Schizonts of vivax do not completely fill the RBC
D. All the correct
Answer: A
134. Which of the following is only yeast ?
A. Candida
B. Mucor
C. Rhizopus
D. Cryptococcus
Answer: D
135. The fungus with septate hyphae and dichotomous branching is
A. Aspergillus
B. Penicillium
C. Mucor
D. Rhizopus
Answer: A
136. Acute angled septate hyphae are seen in ?
A. Aspergillus
B. Mucor
C. Penicillium
D. Candida
Answer: A
137. Aseptate hyphae is not seen in
A. Rhizopus
B. Mucor
C. Aspergillus
D. None
Answer: C
138. Which of the following is false regarding dimorphic fungi
A. Occurs in two growth forms
B. Can cause systemic infection
C. Cryptococcus is an example
D. Coccidioides is an example
Answer: C
139. Trichophyton species which is zoophilic ?
A. T. tonsurans
B. T. violaceum
C. T. schoenleinii
D. T. mentagrophytes
Answer: D
140. Tinea cruris is caused by
A. Epidermophyton
B. Trichophyton
C. Microsporum
D. a and b
Answer: D
141. Hair perforation test is positive in infection with ?
A. Trichophyton
B. Microsporum
C. Epidermophyton
D. All of the above
Answer: A
142. Color of granules in mycetoma caused by Actinomadura pelletierrii
A. Black
B. Yellow
C. Red
D. Brown
Answer: C
143. Aspergillus causes all except ?
A. Bronchopulmonary allergy
B. Otomycosis
C. Dermatophytosis
D. Allergic sinusitis
Answer: C
BA. Sporothrix
B. Cladosporium
C. Phialophora
D. None
Answer: D
145. A plant prick can produce sporotrichosis. All are true statements about sporotrichosis except
A. Is a chronic mycotic disease that typically involves skin, subcutaneous tissue and regional lymphatics
B. Most cases are acquired via cutaneous inoculation
C. Enlarged lymph nodes extending centripetally as a beaded
chain are a characteristic finding
D. It is an occupational disease of butchers, doctors
Answer: D
146. Which is false about penicillium marefi
A. Black colonies
B. Dimorphic fungi
C. Amphotericin B used for treatment
D. Causes fulminant infections in immunocompromised patients
Answer: A
147. Neurotropic fungus is/are
A. Cryptococcus neoformans
B. Histoplasmosis
C. Trichophyton
D. a and b
Answer: D
148. Pneumocystis carinii is diagnosed by
A. Sputum examination for trophozoites and cyst under
microscope
B. Culture
C. Positive serology
D. Growth on artificial media
Answer: A
149. Bacteria showing antigenic variation ?
A. Yersinia
B. Bordetella
C. Brucella
D. Borrelia
Answer: D
150. Bioterroism group A agent
A. Q fever
B. Typhus fever
C. Brucella
D. Antrax
Answer: D
151. Which of the following belongs to category-B of bioterrorism
A. Cholera
B. Anthrox
C. Plague
D. Botulism
Answer: A
152. Most common mode of transmission of nosocomial infection is
A. Hand contact
B. Droplet infection
C. Blood and blood products
D. Contaminated water
Answer: A
153. Most common organism involved in nosocomial infection
A. Staph aureus
B. E. coli
C. Legionella
D. Strep pneumonia
Answer: A
154. Most common organism causing ventilator associated pneumonia
A. Legionella
B. Pneumococcus
C. Pseudomonas
D. Coagulase negative staphylococcus
Answer: C
155. In donovanosis
A.Pseudolymphadenopathy
B. Penicillin is used for treatment
C. Painful ulcer
D. Suppurative lymphadenopathy
Answer: A
156. An adolescent male developed vomiting and diarrhea 1 hour after having food from a restaurant. The most likely pathogen is?
A. Clostridium perfringens
B. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Salmonella
Answer: C
157. 18 years old girl presents with watery diarrhea. Most likely causative agent
A. Rota virus
B. V. cholerae
C. Salmonella
D. Shigella
Answer: B
158. The predominant colonic bacteria are
A. Largely aerobic
B. Largely anaerobic
C. Bacteroides
D. Staphylococci
Answer: B
159. Memory cells are:
A. Basophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Lymphocytes
D. Neutrophils
Answer: C
160. Complement Fixation test is:
A. VIDAL
B. Coombs test
C. Wassermann reaction
D. VDRL
Answer: C
161. Confirmatory test for Syphilis is: September 2010 March 2013
A. VDRL
B. Rapid plasma reagin test
C. FT-ABS
D. All of the above
Answer: C
162. Nosocomial infection is most commonly caused by:
A. Gram negative bacilli
B. Gram positive bacilli
C. Gram negative cocci
D. Mycoplasma
Answer: A
163. Enteric fever is caused by:
A. Salmonella typhi
B. Salmonella paratyphi A
C. Salmonella paratyphi B
D. All of the above
Answer: D
164. Ghon’s focus reflects:
A. Miliary tuberculosis
B. Primary complex
C. Tuberculous lymphadenitis
D. Post primary tuberculosis
Answer: B
165. Diphtheria toxin’s mechanism of action is:
A. Inhibiting glucose synthesis
B. Inhibiting protein synthesis
C. Promoting acetylcholine release
D. Altering cyclic GMP levels
Answer: B
166. Most serious complication of measles is:
A. Croup
B. Meningo-encephalitis
C. Otitis media
D. Pneumonia
Answer: B
167. Promastigote form of Leishmania is found in which part of sandfly:
A. Lymph node
B. GIT
C. Spleen
D. Bone marrow
Answer: B
168. For phage typing, how many phages of staphylococcus aureus are used ?
A. 12
B. 15
C. 20
D. 23
Answer: D
169. Most common biotype of S. aureus causing human infection ?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: A
170. Most common pox virus infection in human is ?
A. Smallpox
B. Monkeypox
C. Cowpox
D. Mulluscum contagiosum
Answer: D
171. HHV-6 causes ?
A. Erythema infectiosum
B. Kaposi sarcoma
C. Roseola infantum
D. Herpangina
Answer: C
172. Phenylalanine deaminase test is positive in ?
A. Salmonella
B. Proteus
C. Vibrio cholerae
D. Helicobacter
Answer: B
173. Gram positive, catalase negative cocci ?
A. Staph aureus
B. Staph epidermidis
C. Staph saprophyticus
D. Pneumococcus
Answer: D
174. R-factor in bacteria is transfered by ?
A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Conjugation
D. Vertical transmission
Answer: C
175. Feces are disinfected best by ?
A. 1% formaldehyde
B. 5% cresol
C. 5% phenol
D. Isopropyl alcohol
Answer: B
176. Stool specimen is transported in ?
A. Cary blair medium
B. Blood agar
C. Selenite F broth
D. Compy BAP medium
Answer: A
177. HEPA filter is used to disinfect ?
A. Water
B. Air
C. Culture
D. Blood
Answer: B
178. Virus most sensitive to inactivation by biocides ?
A. Adenovirus
B. Herpes virus
C. Parvovirus
D. Poliovirus
Answer: B
179. Complement components are ?
A. Lipoproteins
B. Glycoproteins
C. Polysaccharides
D. Lipid
Answer: B
180. True about Campylobacter jejuni ?
A. Obligate aerobe
B. Oxidase negative
C. Grows at 42°C
D. Non-motile
Answer: C
181. Best indicator for sterilization by autoclaving ?
A. Bacillus subtilis
B. Geobacillus
C. Bacillus pumilis
D. Clostridium
Answer: B
182. Satellitism is seen in cultures of?
A. Hemophilus
B. Streptococcus
C. Klebsiella
D. Proteus
Answer: A
183. Varicella zoster virus belongs to which family of DNA viruses ?
A. Poxviridae
B. Herpesviridae
C. Adenoviridae
D. Papovaviridae
Answer: B
184. C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency causes ?
A. Neisseria infection
B. Hereditary angioneurotic edema
C. Hemolytic disease
D. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
Answer: B
185. Runt disease is ?
A. Graft rejection
B. Graft vs host disease
C. Host vs graft disease
D. Type III hypersensitivity
Answer: B
186. True about hydatid cyst are all, except ?
A. Most common site is liver
B. Calcification is common in lung
C. May involve kidney
D. Liver cysts are more common in right lobe
Answer: B
187. Virulence factor for clostridium tetani ?
A. Endotoxin
B. Tetanolysin
C. Tetanospasmin
D. Bacteremia
Answer: C
188. Which myxovirus does not have hemagglutinin and neuraminidase but have membrane fusion protein
A. Measles
B. Parainfluenza
C. RSV
D. Influenza
Answer: C
189. Which prion disease affect human ?
A. Scrapie
B. Madcow disease
C. Kuru
D. Bovine spongiform encephalopathy
Answer: C
190. Peritrichous flagellae are seen in ?
A. Vibrio cholerae
B. Proteus
C. Campylobacter
D. Legionella
Answer: B
191. Molluscum contagiosum virus belongs to ?
A. Poxviruses
B. Herpesviruses
C. Picornaviruses
D. Adenovirus
Answer: A
192. True about vibrio vulnificus ?
A. Causes diarrhea commonly
B. Halophilic
C. Drug of choice is penicillin
D. Produces shiga toxin
Answer: B
193. True about diphtheria toxin ?
A. Heat stable
B. Acts through cGMP
C. Consists of three fragments
D. Special affinity for brain
Answer: A
194. How does chlamydia differ from other usual bacteria?
A. Lack cell wall
B. Cannot grow in cell free culture media
C. Contains inclusion body
D. None of the above
Answer: C
195. A patient is suffering from pneumonia. Laboratory study shows acid-fast filamentous bacterium. The causative organism is ?
A. M. tuberculosis
B. Actinomyces
C. Nocardia
D. Mycobacterium Avium intracellulare
196. Mycobacterium tuberculosis grows in LJ media in?
A. 1 0- 14 days
B. 2-3 weeks
C. 4-8 weeks
D. > 10 weeks
Answer: C
197. Which of the following is an example of heterophile antibody test ?
A. Widal test
B. Weil-Felix reaction
C. Rose-waler test
D. Blood grouping & cross matching
Answer: B
198. All cause viral hepatitis except
A. Measles
B. EBV
C. Rhinovirus
D. Reovirus
Answer: C
199. Shiga toxin acts by ?
A. Activating adenylyl cyclase to increase cAMP
B. Activating guanylyl cyclase to increase cGMP
C. Inhibiting protein synthesis
D. Inhibiting DNA replication
Answer: C
200. Enrichment media for cholera ?
A. VR medium
B. TCBS medium
C. Cary-Blair medium
D. Alkaline peptone water
Answer: D
201. True about vibrio parahemolyticus ?
A. Polar flagella
B. Non halophilic vibrio
C. Non-capsulated
D. Requires NaCI
Answer: D
202. Selective medium for shigella ?
A. Chocolate agar
B. BYCE medium
C. Hektoen agar
D. EMJH medium
Answer: C
203. Sterilization is defined as ?
A. Disinfection of skin
B. Complete destruction of all microorganisms
C. Destruction of pathogenic organisms
D. Decrease bacterial count from objects
Answer: B
204. True about endotoxin ?
A. Protein
B. Highly antigenic
C. No enzymatic activity
D. Produced by gram positive bacteria
Answer: C
205. A 17 years old female presents with sore throat, lymphadenopathy and positive heterophile antibodies test. Diagnosis is ?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Streptococcal pharyngitis
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Cytomegalic inclusion disease
Answer: C
206. Lethal effect of dry heat is due to ?
A. Denaturation of proteins
B. Oxidative damage
C. Toxicity due to metabolites
D. All of the above
Answer: D
207. PLET medium is used in ?
A. Plague
B. Anthrax
C. Typhoid
D. Cholera
Answer: B
208. Tunica reaction is positive in ?
A. R prowazekii
B. R typhi
C. R tsutsugamushi
D. R akari
Answer: B
209. Laproscope is sterilized by ?
A. 2% formalin
B. 2% glutaraldehyde
C. Autoclaving
D. Boiling
Answer: B
210. Suckling mice is used for isolation of ?
A. Coxsachie virus
B. Pox
C. Herpes
D. Adenovirus
Answer: A
211. Safety pin appearance is seen in ?
A. Vibrio vulnificus
B. Vibrio parahemolyticus
C. Pseudomonas aeuroginosa
D. H. influenzae
Answer: B
212. Which anticoagulant is used when blood is sent for blood culture ?
A. Sodium citrate
B. EDTA
C. Oxalate
D. SPS
Answer: D
213. Kanagawa’s phenomenon is seen in ?
A. Pseudomonea aeuroginosa
B. Vibrio parahemolyticus
C. Shigella sonie
D. Proteus mirabilis
Answer: B
214. Which flavivirus causes hepatitis in human ?
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis D
Answer: C
215. Syncytium formation is a property of ?
A. Herpes virus
B. Adenovirus
C. Measles virus
D. Rabies virus
Answer: C
216. Babesiosis is transmitted by ?
A. Tick
B. Mites
C. Flea
D. Mosquito
Answer: A
217. Pseudomonas exotoxin inhibits protein synthesis by inhibiting ?
A. RNA polymerase
B. EF-2
C. Transpeptidase
D. Reverse transcriptase
Answer: B
218. Triple iron sugar medium contains all, except ?
A. Lactose
B. Sucrose
C. Glucose
D. Maltose
Answer: D
219. Fastest method for diagnosis of TB
A. Gene expert
B. LJ medium
C. TB MGIT
D. BAC, IEC
Answer: A
220. New York agar is used for ?
A. Salmonella
B. Clostridia
C. Neisseria
D. Bacillus Anthracis
Answer: C
221. Acquire IgA deficiency may occur in ?
A. Severe Congenital toxoplasmosis
B. Severe Measles infection
C. Severe Brucellosis
D. Severe Leptospirosis
Answer: A
222. Which of the following is a sexual spore ?
A. Chlamydospore
B. Sporangiospore
C. Ascospore
D. Phialoconidia
Answer: C
223. True about Nipah virus are all except ?
A. Is a paramyxovirus
B. Causes hemorrhagic fever
C. Emerging infection
D. Present in India
Answer: B
224. Defective hepatitis virus is ?
A. HAV
B. HBV
C. HCV
D. HDV
Answer: D
225. The cystic form of all are seen in man except ?
A. E.histolytica
B. Giardia
C. Trichomonas
D. Toxoplasma
Answer: C
226. Maternal mortality is more in ?
A. HAV
B. HBV
C. HCV
D. HEV
Answer: D
227. Culture media used for 0157 : H7 Entero‐ hemorrhagic E coli ?
A. Sorbitol containing agar
B. Mannitol containing agar
C. Sucrose containing agar
D. Dextrose containing agar
Answer: A
228. Liquid medium for tuberculosis ?
A. LJ medium
B. Dorset medium
C. Loeffler’s medium
D. MGIT
Answer: D
229. Indicator used in MaConkey Agar ?
A. Methylene blue
B. Methyl red
C. Neutral red
D. Bromothymol blue
Answer: C
230. Subterminal spores are seen in ?
A. Cl perfringens
B. Cl tetani
C. Cl tertium
D. None
Answer: A
231. LGV (lymphogranuloma venerum) is caused by ?
A. Treponema pallidum
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Calymmatobacter granulomatosis
D. H Ducreyi
Answer: B
232. Exanthema subitum is caused by ?
A. HHV-6
B. HHV-8
C. Parvovirus
D. Coxsackievirus
Answer: A
233. Which is not parenterally transmitted
A. HAV
B. HBV
C. HCV
D. HDV
Answer: A
234. True about cryptococcus are all except
A. Primarily infects lung
B. Urease negative
C. India-ink is used
D. All are true
Answer: B
235. Which vaccine can cause adverse effects in persons with allergy to egg ?
A. Measles
B. Rubella
C. Rabies
D. Mumps
Answer: C
236. Salmonellae other than S typhi and S paratyphi cause ?
A. Typhoid fever
B. Enteric fever
C. Gastroenteritis
D. All of the above
Answer: C
237. Optimal percentage of NaCI for V cholerae ?
A. 1%
B. 2%
C. 3%
D. 4%
Answer: A
238. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is seen in ?
A. Pneumococci
B. N. meningitidis
C. Pseudomonas
D. Yersinia
Answer: B
239. Causative organism of SARS
A. HiN,
B. Corona virus
C. Rotavirus
D. RSV
Answer: B
240. Weil felix reaction is heterophile antibodies reaction due sharing of Rickettsial antigen with
A. Shigella
B. Proteus
C. Chlamydia
D. Mycoplasma
Answer: B
241. Neutrilization test is
A. Widal test
B. Weil-Felix test
C. Paul Bunnel test
D. Nagler reaction
Answer: D
242. Mode of transmission of Listeria
A. Ingestion
B. Inhalation
C. Skin inoculation
D. None
Answer: A
243. Frisch bacillus affects most commonly
A. Mouth
B. Nose
C. Eye
D. Ear
Answer: B
244. Scarlet fever is caused by
A. Streptococcus agalactie
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Streptococcus equisimilus
Answer: B
245. E antigen (HBeAg) of hepatitis B virus is a product of which gene
A. S
B. C
C. p
D. x
Answer: B
246. Which type of pulmonary TB is most likely to give sputum positive ?
A. Fibronodular
B. Pleural effusion
C. Cavitary
D. None
Answer: C
247. Most halophilic vibrio ?
A. V cholerae
B. V vulnificus
C. V alginolyticus
D. V parahemolyticus
Answer: C
248. Bile esculin agar is used for ?
A. Group A streptococcus
B. Group B streptococcus
C. Group C streptococcus
D. Enterococcus
Answer: D
249. Tachyzoites are seen in ?
A. Toxoplasma
B. Toxocara
C. Pulmonary eosinophilia
D. Ascaris
Answer: A
250. A patient presents with headache, high fever and meningismus. Within 3 days he becomes unconscious. Most probable causative agent ?
A. Naegleria fowleri
B. Acanthamoeba castellani
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. Trypanosoma cruzi
Answer: A
251. DNA polymerase of HBV is encoded by which of the following ?
A. S gene
B. C gene
C. P gene
D. X gene
Answer: C
252. Heat labile liquids are sterilized by ?
A. Hot air oven
B. Autoclaving
C. Membrane filter
D. Moist heat
Answer: C
253. Rideal-Walker coefficient is related with ?
A. Disinfecting power
B. Parasitic clearance
C. Dietary requirement
D. Statistical correlation
Answer: A
254. A patient presents with fever. Peripheral smears shows band across the erythrocytes. Diagnosis is ?
A. P Falciparum
B. P vivax
C. P ovate
D. P malariae
Answer: D
255. Rash is not caused by ?
A. Salmonella
B. Shigella
C. Meningococci
D. Staphylococcus
Answer: B
256. Owl eye intranuclear inclusion body is seen in ?
A. Herpes zoster
B. Herpes simplex
C. CMV
D. EBV
Answer: C
257. Parasites for which modified ZN stain is used ?
A. Isospora
B. Microsporidia
C. Plasmodium
D. Echinococcus
Answer: A
258. Most common complication of chickenpox
A. Bacterial infection
B. Meningitis
C. Pneumonia
D. Nephritis
Answer: A
259. Man had uncooked meat at dinner 3 days back, Now presenting with diarrhea. Stool examination shows coma shaped organism with RBC and WBC. Causative organism is ?
A. Vibrio cholerae
B. Shigella
C. Campylobacter jejuni
D. Yersinia enterocolitia
Answer: C
260. E coli causing hemolytic uremic syndrome ?
A. Enteropathogenic
B. Enterotoxigenic
C. Enteroinvasive
D. Enterohemorrhagic
Answer: D
261. KOH wet mount is prepared for ?
A. Herpes Zoster
B. Candida
C. Gonorrhea
D. Trichomonas vaginalis
Answer: B
262. Oncogenic DNA virus is ?
A. Retrovirus
B. HBV
C. HIV
D. HTLV
Answer: B
263. Band form of P malariae is ?
A. Schizoint stage
B. Trophozoite stage
C. Merozoite stage
D. Gametocyte stage
Answer: B
264. Bifringence polarization microscopy is used for ?
A. Flagella
B. Intracellular structures
C. Capsule
D. Spores
Answer: B
265. Most common cause of infection due to catheter in urinary tract ?
A. E coli
B. Coagulase negative staphylococci
C. Staph aureus
D. Pseudomonas
Answer: A
266. Which of the following fungi is/are difficult to isolate culture ?
A. Candida
B. Dermatophytes
C. Cryptococcus
D. Malassezia furfur
Answer: D
267. Window period in HIV infection ?
A. 1-2 weeks
B. 4-8 weeks
C. 8-12 weeks
D. > 12 weeks
Answer: B
268. Thermophile bacteria grow at ?
A. 20°C
B. 20-40° C
C. 40-60°C
D. 60-80°C
Answer: D
269. Which of the following is not a pox virus?
A. Cow pox
B. Molluscum contagiosum
C. Small pox
D. Chicken pox
Answer: D
270. Metachromatic granules are seen in ?
A. Gardenella vaginali
B. Corynebacteria
C. Argobacterim
D. All of the above
Answer: D
271. Which of the following is incubated at temperature 40-44 degrees ?
A. Vibrio cholerae
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Vibrio parahemolyticus
D. E coli
Answer: B
272. Transmission of cholera is through ?
A. Fecally contaminated food
B. Fecally contaminated water
C. Contaminated food by vomits of a case
D. All of the above
Answer: D
273. Reservoir of plague is ?
A. Domestic rat
B. Wild rat
C. Rat flea
D. Man
Answer: B
274. IgE binds to which cell ?
A. T cells
B. B cells
C. Mast cells
D. NK cells
Answer: C
275. Wrong statement about chicken pox/ herpes zoster?
A. Caused by VZV
B. Chicken-pox primary infection
C. Herpes-zoster recurrent infection
D. Latent infection in trigeminal ganglion
Answer: C
276. Sterols are found in ?
A. Cell wall of Ricketssia
B. Cell membrane of Ricketssia
C. Cell wall of Mycoplasma
D. Cell membrane of Mycoplasma
Answer: D
277. Double zone of hemolysis is seen in ?
A. Staphylococcus areus
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Answer: C
278. Mechanism action of botulinum toxin ?
A. Increased cAMP
B. Increased cGMP
C. Inhibition of acetylcholine release
D. Inhibition of noradrenaline release
Answer: C
279. Serum marker after Hepatitis B vaccination ?
A. Anti-HBsAg
B. Anti-HBeAg
C. Anti-HBcAg
D. HBsAg
Answer: A
280. Double stranded RNA virus with segmented genome?
A. Influenza
B. Rotavirus
C. Arenavirus
D. Bunyavirus
Answer: B
281. Culture medium for campylobactor jejuni ?
A. BYCE medium
B. Skirrow’s medium
C. Thayer-Martin medium
D. TCBS medium
Answer: B
282. All are true about candida except ?
A. Pseudohyphae seen
B. Produce chlamydospore
C. It is a mould
D. It is a dimorphic fungus
Answer: C
283. Intermediate host for guinea worm ?
A. Fish
B. Man
C. Cyclops
D. Crab
Answer: C
284. Which of the following hepatitis viruses is a DNA virus ?
A. Hepatitis C virus
B. Hepatitis B virus
C. Delta agent
D. Hepatitis E virus
Answer: B
285. Most common Nosocomial infection ?
A. Pneumonia
B. UTI
C. Surgical wound infection
D. Nephritis
Answer: B
286. Method used for acid fast staining ?
A. Robertson’s method
B. Ziehl Neelsen
C. Silver imprignation method
D. Dark ground illumination
Answer: B
287. Paralysis in polio is characterized by ?
A. Spasticity
B. Symmetrical
C. LMN type
D. Progressive
Answer: C
288. Drug resistance in Tuberculosis is due to ?
A. Transformation
B. Transduction
C. Conjugation
D. Mutation
Answer: D
289. All selective media are correctly matched except ?
A. V cholerae – TCBS medium
B. Pseudomonas – Cetrimide agar
C. M tuberculosis – LJ medium
D. Campylobacter – BCYE medium
Answer: D
290. Not true about Histoplasma capsulatum ?
A. Dimorphic fungus
B. May mimic TB
C. Capsulated
D. Mostly asymptomic
Answer: C
291. Schizoint are not seen in peripheral blood of which malarial parasites ?
A. P vivax
B. P falciparum
C. P ovale
D. P malariae
Answer: B
292. Super carrier of HBV shows following serum markers ?
A. HBsAg
B. HbsAg + HBV DNA
C. HbsAg + HBeAg + HBV DNA
D. Anti-HBsAg + HBV DNA
Answer: C
293. Cold sterilization is ?
A. Sterilization by negative temperature
B. Sterilization by ionizing radiation
C. Sterilization by liquid CO2
D. Sterilization by non-ionizing radiation
Answer: B
294. Best specimen for anaerobic culture ?
A. Exudates from wound
B. Pus aspirated in vial
C. Swab from wound
D. Mid-stream urine
Answer: B
295. Aerobic blood culture should be incubated for how many days, before discarding ?
A. 2 days
B. 5 days
C. 10 days
D. 14 days
Answer: D
296. Infective endocarditis after tooth extraction is probably due to ?
A. Streptococcus viridans
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Staphylococcus aureus
Answer: A
297. Chronic carrier of typhoid shed bacilli for ?
A. 1-3 weeks after cure
B. 3 weeks to 3 months after cure
C. 3 months – 1 year after cure
D. More than 1 year after cure
Answer: D
298. Ovoviviparous parasite which is associated with autoinfection ?
A. Ancylostoma duodenale
B. Strongyloides stercoralis
C. Enterobius vermicularis
D. Ascaris
Answer: B
299. Double stranded RNA virus ?
A. Rotavirus
B. Measles virus
C. Mumps virus
D. Influenza virus
Answer: A
300. Earliest growth of diphtheria is detect on which media ?
A. Potassium tellurite media with iron
B. McConkey’s agar
C. Dorset egg medium
D. Loeffler’s serum slope
Answer: D
301. Blood agar is an example of ?
A. Enriched media
B. Indicator media
C. Enrichment media
D. Selective media
Answer: A
302. Virus causing oropharyngeal carcinoma ?
A. EBV
B. HPV
C. HHV-8
D. HTLV
Answer: B
303. Temperature required for holding period of 20 minutes in Hot air oven
A. 160° C
B. 170° C
C. 120° C
D. 130° C
Answer: B
304. Break bone fever is caused by ?
A. Yellow fever
B. Japanese encephlitis
C. Dengue fever
D. KFD
Answer: C
305. In pontaic fever, which antigen is seen in urine?
A. Lipopolysaccharide-1
B. Lipopolysaccharide-2
C. Lipopolysaccharide-4
D. Lipopolysaccharide-6
Answer: A
306. Spores of clostridium perfringens are located ?
A. In the middle of cells
B. At the poles of cells
C. Between middle and pole of cells
D. None of the above
Answer: C
307. Agar media used for Haemophilus influenza ?
A. Blood agar
B. Chocolate agar
C. Tryptose agar
D. BYCE agar
Answer: B
308. Mechanism of action in pathogenesis of Pseudomembranous colitis by CI difficle ?
A. Due to invasiveness
B. Due to endotoxin
C. Due to exotoxin
D. Due to NM blockade
Answer: C
309. Virus causing Latent infection (or Latent period is shown by which virus)
A. Rubella
B. HBV
C. Pertussis
D. Rota virus
Answer: B
310. True regarding arbovirus is all except ?
A. KFD is transmitted by Tick
B. Dengue virus has one Serotype
C. Yellow fever is not seen in India
D. Dengue fever is transmitted by Aedes
Answer: B
311. Bacteria not affected by streptogramins is ?
A. E. coli
B. Staphylococcuaureus
C. Legionella
D. M. pneumoniae
Answer: A
312. Smallest Virus is ?
A. Herpes virus
B. Adenovirus
C. Parvovirus
D. Poxvirus
Answer: C
313. Infectivity of HBV is indicated by ?
A. HBeAg
B. HbsAg
C. HBV DNA
D. Anti HBs Ag
Answer: A
314. True about CMV are all except ?
A. Most common cause of post-transpinatation infection
B. Most common cause of transplacental infection
C. A non-enveloped DNA virus
D. Produces intranuclear inclusions
Answer: C
315. Not ture about El Tor biotype of vibrio cholerae?
A. Lower mortality
B. Less SAR
C. Less chances of survival in environment
D. VP (+)
Answer: C
316. HSV-2 (Herpes simplex) causes ?
A. Oral ulcers
B. Genital ulcers
C. U.T.I.
D. Pharyngitis
Answer: B
317. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of tetanospasmin ?
A. Inhibition of release of GABA and glycine
B. Inhibition of Ach release from synapse
C. Inhibition of protein synthesis
D. Activation of adenylyl cyclase
Answer: A
318. Ebola virus belongs to?
A. Picornaviridae
B. Togaviridae
C. Flaviviridae
D. Filoviridae
Answer: D
319. Bollinger bodies are seen in ?
A. Chickenpox
B. Cowpox
C. Fowlpox
D. Smallpox
Answer: C
320. All are true regarding Japanese encephalitis except ?
A. Caused by flavivirus
B. Humans are dead-end hosts
C. Transmitted by culex
D. Cattles are amplifier hosts
Answer: D
321. All are seen with Pneumocystis carini in AIDS except
A. Pneumonia
B. Otic polypoid mass
C. Ophthalmic choroid lesion
D. Meningitis
Answer: D
322. Antibiotic sensitivity testing can be done using all except
A. E test
B. Kirby-Bauer method
C. Culture agar method
D. Broth dilution method
Answer: C
323. Type E adverse reaction is
A. Toxicity
B. Augmented effect
C. Teratogenesis
D. Withdrawal reaction
Answer: D
324. Treponema pallidum was discovered by ?
A. Robert Koch
B. Twort
C. Schaudinn and Hoffman
D. Ellerman
Answer: C
325. Lactose fermentation is seen in ?
A. Blood agar
B. Chocolate agar
C. MacConkey agar
D. LJ medium
Answer: C
326. Major immunoglobulin secreted by intestine ?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgD
Answer: C
327. False about viruses is ?
A. Ribosomes absent
B. Mitochondria absent
C. Motility absent
D. Nucleic acid absent
Answer: D
328. Arrangement of lens from eye to source of light, in light microscope ?
A. Ocular lens : Subjective lens : Condensor lens
B. Subjective lens : Ocular lens : Condensor len
C. Condensor lens : Sujective lens : Ocular lens
D. Subjecive lens : Condensor lens : Ocular lens
Answer: A
329. Numbers of variable regions on each light and heavy chain of an antibody ?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A
330. Hybridoma technique is used to obtain ?
A. Specific antigen
B. Complement
C. Specific antibody
D. Interleukins
Answer: C
331. Which is not a DNA virus ?
A. Parvovirus
B. Papovavirus
C. Poxvirus
D. Rhabdovirus
Answer: D
332. All are sporicidal agents except ?
A. Formaldehyde
B. Glutaraldehyde
C. Ethylene oxide
D. Isopropyl alcohol
Answer: D
333. In blood culture the ratio of blood to reagent is ?
A. 1:5
B. 1:20
C. 1:10
D. 1:100
Answer: C
334. Sabin feldman Dye test is used to demonstrate infection with ?
A. Filaria
B. Toxoplasma
C. Histoplasma
D. Ascaris
Answer: B
335. Culture medium used for entamoeba histolytica?
A. Blood agar
B. Philip’s medium
C. CLED medium
D. Trypticase serum
Answer: B
336. Ascospore is ?
A. Asexual spore
B. Sexual spore
C. Conidia
D. None of the above
Answer: B
337. Most common staphylococcal phage strain causing hospital infection ?
A. 80/81
B. 79/80
C. 3A/3C
D. 69/70
Answer: A
338. All of the sterilization methods are properly matched except ?
A. Catgut suture – Radiation
B. Culture media – Autoclaving
C. Bronchoscope – Autoclaving
D. Glassware & syringes – Hot air ove
Answer: C
339. Endoscope tube is sterilized by?
A. Glutaraldehyde
B. Formalin
C. Autoclaving
D. Boiling
Answer: A
340. All are true regarding resistance of penicillin in staphylococcus aureus, except ?
A. Penicillinase production is transmitted by transduction
B. Methicillin resistance is due to change in PBP
C. Hospital strains mostly produce type D penicillinase
D. Penicillinase production is plasmid mediated
Answer: C
341. Which of the following is not capsulated ?
A. Pneumococcus
B. Cryptococcus
C. Meningococcus
D. Proteus
Answer: D
342. All are true regarding interleukin-1 except ?
A. Primary source is monocyte-macrophage system
B. Endogenous pyrogens
C. Inhibit IL-2 production by T-cells
D. All are true
Answer: C
343. Which of the following is a superantigen ?
A. Cholera toxin
B. Diphtheria toxin
C. TSST
D. Vero-cytoxin
Answer: C
344. Thomsen friedensreich phenomenon is ?
A. Red cells infection by CMV
B. Red cell agglutination by all blood group sera
C. Hemolysis of transfused blood
D. Due to B antigen
Answer: B
345. Most common organism causing URTI in adult?
A. H influenza
B. Stap aureus
C. Strepto pneumonia
D. Streptococcus pyogenes
Answer: D
346. Street rabies virus cause ?
A. Natural rabies
B. Loboratory passage in rabbit
C. Fatal encephalitis in 6 days
D. Negri bodies not seen
Answer: A
347. All are true about Helminths, except?
A. Alimentary canal is complete in Nematodes
B. Body cavity is present in trematodes
C. Nematodes have separate sexes
D. Alimentary canal is Present but incomplete
Answer: B
348. Which of the following amoebae does not have neuropathogenic effect ?
A. Naegleria
B. Acanthamoeba
C. Dientamoeba
D. Bala muthia
349. All of the following are important mechanisms of gene transfer in bacteria, except ?
A. Lateral gene transfer
B. Conjugation
C. Vertical gene transfer
D. Horizontal gene transfer
Answer: C
350. All are true regarding development of Tcells, except?
A. T-cells are formed in bone marrow
B. Maturation of T-cells take place in thymus
C. T-cell are located in mantle layer of spleen
D. In lymph nodes, T-cells are found in paracortical area
Answer: C
351. The only ovoviviporous parasite ?
A. Ascaris
B. Strongyloides
C. Enterobius
D. Ancylostome
Answer: B
352. All organisms shows bipolar staining except ?
A. Calymmatobacter granulomati
B. Y. pestis
C. Pseudomonas mallei
D. H. influenzae
Answer: D
353. Draughtsman (Concentric Rings) on culture are produced by ?
A. Yersina pestis
B. H. ducreyi
C. B. pertusi
D. Pneumococi
Answer: D
354. Causative agent for melioidosis is ?
A. Pseudomonas pseudomallei
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Pseudomonas cepacia
D. Pseudomonas mallei
Answer: A
355. Specific reason to disallow the sample for culture?
A. Sample brought within 2 hr of collection
B. Sample brought in sterile plastic container
C. Sample brought in formalin
D. Sample obtained after cleaning the collection site
Answer: C
356. Glass vessels and syringes are best sterilised by
A. Hot air oven
B. Autoclaving
C. Irradiation
D. Ethylene dioxide
Answer: A
357. Spores of bacteria are destroyed by
A. Alcohol
B. Lysol
C. Halogen
D. Ionizing radiation
Answer: C
358. Cell wall deficient organisms are
A. Chlamydia
B. Mycoplasma
C. Streptococcus
D. Anaerobes
Answer: B
359. Vaccine is available against which type of meningococcus ?
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type A and C
D. Type B and D
Answer: C
360. “Citron bodies” boat or leaf shaped pleomorphic organism in an exudate is
A. Cl. welchii
B. Cl. edematiens
C. Cl. septicum
D. Cl. tetani
Answer: C
361. Swarming growth on culture is characteristic of which Gram positive organism ?
A. Clostridium welchi
B. Clostridium tetani
C. Bacillus cereus
D. Proteus mirabilis
Answer: B
362. Most common genetic play in Neisseria infection is
A. Male gender
B. HLA b27
C. Complement deficiency
D. IgA deficiency
Answer: C
363. Heat labile immunoglobulin
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgE
D. IgM
Answer: C
364. Which is the longest DNA of hepatitis B virus ?
A. P gene
B. X gene
C. S gene
D. C gene
Answer: A
365. Bacterial count in doudenum
A. 105 per gram
B. 10′ per gram
C. 1010 per gram
D. 10’2 per gram
Answer: A
366. Capacity of producing IgG starts at what age
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 2 years
D. 3 years
Answer: A
367. Job’s syndrome is the following type of immuneno deficiency disease
A. Humoral immunodeficiency
B. Cellular immunodeficiency
C. Disorder of complement
D. Disorder of phagocytosis
Answer: D
368. Prions are best killed by
A. Autoclaving at 134°C
B. 5% formaline
C. Sodium hypochloride
D. None of these
Answer: A
369. Most common cause of HUS in children is
A. E coli 0157/H7
B. S typhi
C. Shigella
D. None
Answer: A
370. Koch’s postulate is fullfilled by all except
A. M.tuburculosis
B. E.coli
C. T. pallidum
D. None
Answer: C
371. Inclusion body containing glycogen is seen in ?
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Chlamydia pneumoniae
C. Chlamydia psittaci
D. All of the above
Answer: A
372. Cytolytic activity of membrane attack complex is modulated by ?
A. Factor I
B. Factor B
C. Factor S
D. Factor H
Answer: C
373. Most common type of HPV associated with cervical cancer ?
A. 6, 11
B. 5, 8
C. 16, 18
D. 6, 8
Answer: C
374. Frie’s test is useful for diagnosis of ?
A. Mycoplasma
B. Rickettsia
C. Sarcoidosis
D. Chlamydia
Answer: D
375. Which of the following is an intermediate level disinfectant ?
A. 2% glutarldyhyde
B. Ethylene oxide
C. Hypochlorite
D. None
Answer: C
376. Infective form of T. brucei ?
A. Amastigote
B. Trypomastigote
C. Egg
D. None
Answer: B
377. Staining method used for mycoplasma ?
A. Fontona method
B. Laviditti method
C. Dienes method
D. None
Answer: C
378. Innate immunity involves ?
A. T-cells
B. B-cells
C. Macrophages
D. Antibodies
Answer: C
379. Golden yellow jelly fungus is ?
A. T tursurans
B. T montegrophytes
C. Trenella mesenterica
D. E floccosum
Answer: C
380. Macrophage tropic strains of HIV use ?
A. CCR5
B. CXCR4
C. CCR4
D. None
Answer: A
381. ABO isoantibodies are of which class
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgD
D. IgA
Answer: B
382. A 4 year old child presents with acute watery diarrhea and abdominal cramps. Stool microscopy reveals trophozoites with falling leaf motility. The etiological agent is ?
A. Entamoeba hisiolutics
B. Giardia lamblia
C. Trichomonas tenax
D. Balantidium coli
Answer: B
383. The hookworm thrives on ?
A. Whole blood
B. Plasma
C. Serum
D. RBC
Answer: B
384. Infective form of Hookworms ?
A. Egg
B. Rhabditiform larva
C. Filariform larva
D. None
Answer: C
385. All are non-sporing anaerobes of medical importance except
A. Actinomyces
B. Bacteroides
C. Clostridia
D. Fusobacterium
Answer: C
386. The number of bacteria on skin are
A. 10′- 102
B. 102- 105
C. 105- 010
D. >1010
Answer: D
387. The number of bacteria per cm of skin are ?
A. 10′- 102
B. 102- 103
C. 105- 1010
D. >10′
Answer: B
388. Which milk?
A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgE
D. IgM
Answer: B
389. Which of the following cell types are the most potent activator of T-cell ?
A. Bell
B. Follicular Dendritic Cells
C. Mature dendritic cells
D. Macrophages
Answer: C
390. Prozone phenomenon is due to
A. Antigen excess
B. Antibody excess
C. False +ve reaction
D. False -ve reaction
Answer: B😀
391. Which of the following Staphylococcal infection is not toxin mediated:
A. Toxic shock syndrome
B. Scalded skin syndrome
C. Food poisoning
D. Septic shock
Answer: D
392. True about interferon is:
A. It is a synthetic antiviral agent
B. Inhibits viral replication in cells
C. Is specific for particular virus
D. None
Answer: B
393. Protein A of staphylococcus binds to
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgD
D. IgE
Answer: B
394. Test to differentiate staphylococci from micrococci:
A. Catalase test
B. Coagulase test
C. Novobiosin sensitivity
D. Oxidation fermentation
Answer: D
395. Most common site for staphylococcus carrier:
A. Skin
B. Nose
C. Oropharynx
D. Perineum
Answer: B
396. Crystal violet blood agar is used for which bacteria?
A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B. Staph aureus
C. β-hemolytic streptococcus
D. Meningococcus
Answer: C
397. Which streptodornase is most antigenic in human beings:
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: B
398. A chronic alcoholic is presenting with clinical features of meningitis. Most likely organism which will grow on CSF culture:
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. N. meningitidis
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. F. coli
Answer: A
399. Heating at 60°C for 30 minute would isolate:
A. Staphylococci
B. Enterococci
C. Micrococci
D. Streptococci
Answer: B
400. Which of the following can be used for obtaining specimen for isolation of microorganism in laboratory diagnosis:
A. Meningococcal rash
B. Blood in staphylococcal food poisoning
C. Throat swab in Rheumatic fever
D. Blood in post-streptococcal GN
Answer: A
401. T cells in lymph node are present in:
A. Paracortical area
B. Mantle layer
C. Medullary cords
D. Cortical follicles
Answer: A
402. Membrane attack complex (MAC) in complement system is:
A. C3b
B. C13
C. C5_9
D. C24
Answer: C
403. Complement components are:
A. Lipids
B. Proteins
C. Lipoproteins
D. Polysaccharide
Answer: B
404. Which is not true about macrophages:
A. Activation by IFN-y
B. Major cells in chronic inflammation
C. M2 type involved in inflammation
D. Phagocytic cells
Answer: C
405. Not true about gas gangrene:
A. Most common cause is Cl perfringens
B. Extensive necrosis of muscles
C. Cl perfringens produce heat-labile spores
D. Metronidazole is the drug of choice
Answer: D
406. Naegler’s reaction is due to:
A. Coagulase
B. Hyaluronidase
C. Lecithinase
D. None of the above
Answer: C
407. True about corynebacterium diphtheriae:
A. All types produce toxin
B. Toxin production is dependent upon critical concentration of iron
C. Heat stable toxin
D. Inhibit cAMP
Answer: B
408. Not true about corynebacterium hormannii
A. A diphtheroid
B. Non-pathogenic saprophyte
C. Toxigenic
D. Also known as C pseudodiphthericum
Answer: C
409. Ehrlichia chaffeensis is causative agents of
A. HME
B. HGE
C. Glandular fever
D. None
Answer: A
410. All are true about chromobacteritun violaceum except?
A. Gram negative
B. Produces violet-colored pigment
C. Normal flora in human
D. Causes cellulitis
Answer: C
411. Capsid of viral structure is:
A. Extracellular infectious particle
B. Protein coat around nucleic acid
C. Envelop around a virus
D. None of the above
Answer: B
412. True about anthrax toxin are all except:
A. Has three fractions
B. Increase cAMP
C. Coded by plasmid
D. Inhibits protein synthesis
Answer: D
413. Regarding fungal cell wall all are true except:
A. Contains chitin
B. Prevent osmotic damage
C. Azoles act on them
D. Does not contain peptidoglycan
Answer: C
414. Capsule of Bacillus anthracis is formed of:
A. Polysaccharide
B. Lipopolysaccharide
C. Polypeptide
D. Long chain fatty acids
Answer: C
415. A child is presenting with vomiting and abdominal pain after 5 hours of eating some food. The most likely causative
orgonism:
A. Bacillus cereus
B. Cl. perfringens
C. Cl. botalinum
D. V. cholerae
Answer: A
416. All are true about listeria except:
A. Gram positive
B. PALCAM agar is used for isolation
C. Characteristic tumbling motility at 37°C
D. Umbrella shaped growth
Answer: C
417. Listeria resists phagocytosis in phagosomes (phagolysosomes) due to:
A. β-hemolysin
B. Caspases
C. Cell membrane adhesion molecules
D. Opacity associated protein (OAP)
Answer: A
418. Renauld Braud phenomenon is seen is:
A. Candida albicans
B. Candida pscitasi
C. Histoplasma
D. Cryptococcus
Answer: A
419. Reactive tubercular arthritis:
A. Spina ventusa
B. Pott’s disease
C. Poncet’s disease
D. None
Answer: C
420. XDR-TB is defined as Resistance to:
A. INH plus rifampicin
B. Fluoroquinolones plus INH plus amikacin
C. Fluoroquinolones plus rifampicin plus kanamycin
D. Fluoroquinolones plus INH plus rifampicin plus amikacin
Answer: D
421. Modified Ziehl-neelsen staining is used for:
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Mycobacterium bovis
C. Nocardia
D. All of the above
Answer: D
422. Hansen’s bacillus is cultured in:
A. L J medium
B. Robertson’s cooked meat medium
C. Foot pad of mice
D. Sabraud’s agar
Answer: C
423. Primary complex of M bovis involves:
A. Tonsil and lung
B. Tonsil and intestine
C. Tonsil and skin
D. Skin and Intestine
Answer: B
424. Phagocytosis of mycobacterium tuberculosis by macrophages is mainly mediated by:
A. IL 6
B. IL 3
C. IL 12
D. IFN Gamma
Answer: D
425. Toxoplasma in children causes:
A. Chorioretinitis
B. Conjunctivities
C. Keratitis
D. Papillitis
Answer: A
426. True about widal test:
A. Anti-0 antibody persists longer
B. 0 antigen of S. paratyphi is used
C. H-antigen is most immunogenic
D. Felix tube is used for ‘H’ agglutination lnar
Answer: C
427. Not true about Vi polysaccharide vaccine of typhoid:
A. Single dose is given
B. Revaccination at 3 years
C. Given at birth
D. Given subcutaneously
Answer: C
428. Salmonella and shigella can be differentiated from other Enterobacteriaceae member by isolation
on:
A. MacConkey agar
B. Mannitol salt agar
C. BCYE medium
D. XLD agar
Answer: D
429. Clinical significance of Vi antigen of S. typhi is:
A. Helps in diagnosis
B. Highly immunogenic
C. Most important antigen for widal test
D. Antibody against Vi-antigen is used for diagnosis of carrier
Answer: D
430. Proteus isolated from a patient of UTI will show which boichemical reaction:
A. Phenylpyruvic acid reaction
B. Bile esculin reaction
C. Colchicine sensitivity
D. Bacitracin sensitivity
Answer: A
431. Hebra nose is caused by:
A. Frisch bacillus
B. Staph aureus
C. Pseudomonas
D. C. diphtheriae
Answer: A
432. Amoebiasis is not transmitted by:
A. Feco-oral route
B. Sexual transmission
C. Blood and blood products
D. Vector transmission
Answer: D
433. Trypanosoma cruzi is transmitted by:
A. Tse tse fly
B. Reduviid bug
C. Culex mosquito
D. Sand fly
Answer: A
434. Absence of Vi-antibody in a typhoid patient has:
A. Good prognosis
B. Bad prognosis
C. No relation with prognosis
D. Indicates widal negative
Answer: B
435. Duodenal aspirate is used in diagnosis of:
A. E histolytica
B. Giardia lamblia
C. Taenia solium
D. Leishmania
Answer: B
.
436. Recrudescence are commonly seen in which malaria:
A. P vivax
B. P ovale
C. P malariae
D. P falciparum
Answer: D
437. Charcot Leyden crystal in stool in seen in:
A. Amoedbic dysentery
B. bacillary dysentery
C. Shigella
D. bacillus cereus
Answer: A
438. Bacteria that can grow even in the presence of antiseptic:
A. Staphylococcus
B. Streptococcus
C. E. coli
D. Pseudomonas
Answer: D
439. Which of the following is non-motile:
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Burkholderia mallei
C. Burkholderia pseudomallei
D. None of the above
Answer: B
440. Pneumonic plague is spread by:
A. Bite of infected flae
B. Direct contact with infected tissue
C. Ingestion of contaminated food
D. Droplet infection
Answer: D
441. Izumi fever is caused by:
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Burkholderia mallei
C. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
D. Pasteurella multocida
Answer: C
442. Schistosomiasis is an exmple of:
A. Meta-zoonoses
B. Cyclo-zoonoses
C. Direct-zoonoses
D. Sporo-zoonoses
Answer: A
443. True about diphyllobothrium:
A. Man is single host
B. Iron deficiency anemia is seen
C. Operculated egg is diagnostic
D. Fish is the definitive host
Answer: C
444. Unsegmented eggs are in which parasite?
A. Trichuris trichura
B. Ancylostoma
C. Necator americanus
D. Dracunculus
Answer: A
445. Flame cells are seen in:
A. Protozoa
B. Cestode
C. Nematodes
D. None
Answer: B
446. Cholangiocarcinoma is caused by:
A. Giardia lamblia
B. Clonorchis infestation
C. Paragonimus infestation
D. Ascaris infestation
Answer: B
447. Brazilian purpuric fever is caused by:
A. Bordetella pertussis
B. Haemophilus aegypticus
C. Haemophilus duceryi
D. Haemophilus parinfluenzae
Answer: B
448. Granuloma inguinale is caused by:
A. H. ducreyi
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Treponema pallidum
D. Calymmatobacterium
Answer: D
449. Pseudobubo seen in:
A. Chancroid
B. Syphilis
C. Lymphogranuloma inguinale
D. Lymphogranuloma venerum
Answer: C
450. Pontiac fever is caused by:
A. Legionella
B. Listeria
C. Scrub typhus
D. Leptospira
E. Rickettsia
Answer: A
451. True about legionella:
A. Most common mode of transmission is aerosol inhalation
B. There is no man to man transmission
C. Prolonged carrier are common
D. All are true
Answer: B
452. Congenital varicella infection causes all except:
A. Macrocephaly
B. Limb hypoplasia
C. Cortical atrophy
D. Cicatrix
Answer: A
453. Which pox wont grow in egg, animal cells:
A. Cow pox
B. Vaccinia
C. Variola
D. Molluscum
Answer: D
454. Diagnosis of rotavirus is by:
A. Stool antigen
B. Stool antibody
C. Stool culture
D. Blood antibody
Answer: A
455. Which of the following belongs to Herpesviridae:
A. Variola
B. Adenovirus
C. HPV
D. RK virus
Answer: D
456. Which is not a poxvirus:
A. Vaccinia virus
B. Molluscum contagiosum
C. Tanapox virus
D. Coxsackie virus
Answer: D
457. True about chlamydia are all except:
A. Obligate intracellular organism
B. Gram positive
C. Reticulate body is metabolically active
D. Replicate by binary fission
Answer: B
458. Indian tick typhus is caused by:
A. R typhi
B. R conorii
C. R akari
D. C burnetii
Answer: B
459. Chlamydia pneumoniae causes causes:
A. LGV
B. Atherosclerosis
C. Inclusion conjunctivitis
D. Trachoma
Answer: B
460. Bartonella quintana causes:
A. Trench fever
B. Scrub typhus
C. Endemic typhus
D. Epidemic typhus
Answer: A
461. What is trench fever:
A. Q-fever
B. 5-days fever
C. Boutonneuse fever
D. Indian tick typhus
Answer: B
462. Brill-Zinsser disease is:
A. Recrudescent of R prowazekii infection
B. Recrudescent of R typhi infection
C. Recrudescent of R conorii infection
D. None
Answer: B
463. Eschar is seen in all the Rickettsial diseases excent:
A. Scrub typhus
B. Rickettsial pox
C. Indian tick typhus
D. Endemic typhus
Answer: D
464. Bubus form is which stage of LGV:
A. Prmary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Latent
Answer: B
465. Leptospirosis is transmitted by:
A. Rat
B. Cat
C. Dog
D. Fish
Answer: A
466. Vincent’s angina is caused by Borrelia vincentii along with:
A. Lactobacillus
B. Lactobacillus
C. Fusobacterium
D. Bacteroides
Answer: C
467. Most common form of leptospirosis:
A. Weil’s disease
B. Icteric form
C. Hepatorenal form
D. Anicteric form
Answer: D
468. Colorado Tic fever is caused by:
A. Filoviridae
B. Reoviridae
C. Coronaviridae
D. Calciviridae
Answer: B
469. Medium used for antibiotic sensitivity:
A. CLED agar
B. Hektoen agar
C. Mueller-Hinton agar
D. Salt milk agar
Answer: C
470. Sterilization of culture media containing serum is by:
A. Autoclaving
B. Micropore filter
C. Gamma radiation
D. Gamma radiation
Answer: A
471. Incubation period of measles is:
A. 18-72 hours
B. 10-14 days
C. 3-4 days
D. 20-25 days
Answer: B
472. Viral DNA is integrated into Bacterial DNA in:
A. Transduction
B. Lysogenic conversion
C. Transformation
D. Conjugation
Answer: B
473. Which influenzae strain, not of human origin and can cause pandemic:
A. Hi Ni
B. H2 N2
C. H5 Ni
D. H9 Ni
Answer: C
474. True about influenza vaccine:
A. Live vaccine is used most commonly
B. Live vaccine is given by nasal drops
C. Killed vaccine is given intramuscular in deltoid
D. All are correct
Answer: B
475. True about rotavirus vaccine:
A. Killed vaccine
B. Given subcutaneous
C. Pentavalent vaccine
D. Should be given before 5 years
Answer: C
476. Binding of gp 120 causes:
A. Infection of target cell
B. Facilitation of co-receptor
C. Fusing of virus and target cell
D. None
Answer: B
477. HIV envelop is formed by:
A. Host cell
B. Virus
C. Both
D. None
Answer: C
478. Which HIV-virus is more dangerous:
A. HIV-1
B. HIV-2
C. Both are same
D. It depends on host factors
Answer: A
479. Most common mode of transmission of HIV sexual transmission:
A. Blood & blood products
B. Occupational
C. Perinatal
D. Breast feeding
Answer: A
480. Flask shaped ulcers in intestine caused by
A. Giardia lamblia
B. Entamoeba histolytica
C. Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori)
D. E. vermicularis
Answer: B
481. What type of culture media is used for Ligionella?
A. (BCYE) agar media
B. MacConkey agar
C. Baird–Parker agar
D. Sabouraud’s agar
Answer: A
482. Special Stain for cryptococcus :
A. ZN stain
B. Gram stain
C. Mucicarmine stain
D. Malachite green
Answer: C
483. A 36 yrs old male patient c/,o cough cold fever/rusty sputum / sputum neg for tb ,h/o of travel in china & eaten crab, Name the infection
A. Paragonimus westermani
B. Faciola hepatica
C. Fasciolopsis buski
D. Entamoeba histolytica
Answer: A
484. Microbiological test for diagnosing leptospira infection?
A. Cold agglutination
B. Standard agglutination
C. Microscopic agglutination test (MAT)
D. None of these
Answer: C
485. Disc diffusion method is also known as
A. Kirby Bauer
B. VDRL
C. Dark field microscopy
D. None of these
Answer: A
486. Rubella virus belongs to which family ?
A. Rheovirus
B. Togavirus
C. Picornavirus
D. Orthomyxo
Answer: B
487. Which of the following infection resembles erythroblastosis?
A. EBV
B. CMV
C. HSV
D. STAPHYLOCOCCUS
Answer: B
488. Diagnostic test for neurosyphilis
A. VDRL
B. RPR
C. TPI
D. FTA-ABS
Answer: A
489. A patient is having gastrointestinal problems including abdominal pain and distension, bloody or mucus-filled diarrhea, and tenesmus,with rectal prolapse, A stool, ova and parasites exam reveals the presence of typical Barrel-shaped eggs, possible causative agent is?
A. Campylobacter
B. Clostridium difficile
C. Giardia lamblia
D. Trichuris
Answer: D
490. Contact isolation is done for
A. MRSA
B. Mumps
C. Diphtheria
D. Asthama
Answer: C
491. A child is suffering from recurrent chronic infections with encapsulated bacteria is due to deficiency of subclass
A. IgG1
B. IgG2
C. IgG3
D. IgG4
Answer: B
492. D.O.C for isospora
A. Penicillin G
B. Benzathine penicillin
C. Co-trimoxazole
D. Albendazole
Answer: C
493. Coxsackievirus A16 causes
A. Yellow fever
B. Hand-foot-mouth disease
C. Rocky mountain spotted fever
D. Encephalomyocarditis
Answer: B
494. Pneumocystis jerovici is:
A. Associated with CMV
B. Diagnosis is by sputum microscopy
C. Seen only in immunocompromised patients
D. Always associated with pneumatocele
Answer: B
495. All are true about congenital Toxoplasmosis EXCEPT
A. Chorioretinitis
B. Conjunctivitis
C. Hydrocephalus
D. Cerebral calcification
Answer: B
496. true about TRIAD congenital rubella syndrome
A. PDA, cataract and deafness is seen
B. Hepatosplenomegaly, mental retardation, deafness
C. Chorioretinitis, multiorgan failure, pneumonitis
D. None of these
Answer: A
497. Weil felix reaction in scrub typhus is/are positive for:
A. OX -19
B. OX-2
C. Both OX -19 & OX-2
D. OX -K
E. OX -19, OX-2 & OX -K
Answer: D
498. The correct order of gram staining is
A. Gentian violet → Iodine → Carbol fuchsin
B. Iodine → Gentian violet → Carbol fuchsin
C. Carbol fuchsin → Iodine → Gentian violet
D. Carbol fuchsin → Gentian violet → Iodine
Answer: A
499. Non-parasitic eosinophilia is caused by infection with
A. Staphylococcus
B. Ehrlischia
C. Coccidioidomycosis
D. Candidiasis
Answer: C
500. Candidias of penis is ?
A. Thrush
B. Leukoplakia
C. Balanitis
D. None
Answer: C
501. All culture media are used for antibiotic susceptibility except
A. Tetrathionate-F
B. Blood agar
C. Chocolate agar
D. Muller-Hinton agar
Answer: A
502. Cellulitis surrounding diabetic ulcer is mostly caused by ?
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Staphylococcus
C. Mixed organisms
D. Pseudomonas
Answer: C
503. A paitent operated for transurethral resection of prostate [TURP] develops UTI. The organism most commonly grown on culture will be
A. Proteus
B. E. coli
C. Pseudomonas
D. Listeria
Answer: B
504. Loeffer’s serum is an example of
A. Basal medium
B. Simple medium
C. Complex medium
D. Enrichment medium
Answer: C
505. Most common organism grown in urine culture of pregnant woman with asymptomatic bacteriuria?
A. Proteus
B. E. coli
C. Staph aureus
D. Pseudomonas
Answer: B
506. To create anaerobiosis which organism is used
A. Micrococcus
B. Clostridium
C. B. anthracis
D. Corynebacterium
Answer: A
507. A 30 years old male is having prpductive cough with dysnea. Blood gas analysis shows low pa02. Chest x-ray is showing reticulonodular pattern. The causative agent is?
A. Staph aureus
B. Pneumococcus
C. P. jerovecii
D. Pseudomonas
Answer: C
508. Which of the following is a method of Pasteurization
A. Vat method
B. Pasteur method
C. Billing method
D. Flash method
Answer: A😀
509. Temperature used in Tyndallizaton
A. 40°C
B. 60°C
C. 80°C
D. 100°C
Answer: D
510. Nutrient agar heated at 80°C used for
A. Spore germination
B. To grow mesophilic bacteria
C. To grow thermophilic bacteria
D. For clostridium isolation
Answer: A😀
511. Involutional form are seen in which phase of bacterial growth
A. Lag phase
B. Log phase
C. Stationary phase
D. Death phase
Answer: D
512. A patient is presenting with recurrent staphylococcal infection, kyphoscoliosis and typical faces. The patient is suffering from ?
A. Ig A deficiency
B. Hyper IgE syndrome
C. Common variable immunodeficiency
D. Burton’s Agammaglobulinemia
Answer: B
513. Partial acid fast organism is
A. M. tuberculosis
B. M. Bovis
C. Nocardia
D. None
Answer: C
514. Resolving power of electron microscope
A. 1-5 mm
B. 1-5 um
C. 1-5 nm
D. 1-5 A°
Answer: D
515. Most effective antibody for precipitation ?
A. IgM
B. IgG
C. IgA
D. IgD
Answer: B
516. Specificity of antibody is dependent on ?
A. Fc portion
B. Fab region
C. Carboxy terminal
D. All of the above
Answer: B
517. Classification of staphylococcus is based on
A. Catalase test
B. Coagulase test
C. Mannitol fermentation
D. Optochin sensitivity
Answer: B
518. Antibody specificity is due to ?
A. Amino acid sequence at H chain
B. Amino acid sequence at L chain
C. Amino acid at carboxy terminal
D. Amino acid sequence at the amino terminal
Answer: A:B:D
519. Iron helps in virulence of which organism
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Pneumococcus
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Pseudomonas
Answer: C
520. Wool-Sorter disease is caused by
A. Pseudomonas
B. Bacillus anthracis
C. Vibrio parahemolyticus
D. Spirillus minor
Answer: B
521. Not true about sporothrix Schenckii ?
A. Dimorphic fungus
B. Asteroid bodies
C. Copper penny bodies
D. Common in gardners
Answer: C
522. Fishy odour is found on growth of which organism
A. Proteus
B. Pseudomonas
C. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
D. Yersinia pestis
Answer: A
523. Lipophilic fungus is ?
A. Malassezia furfur
B. Candida
C. Cryptococcus
D. Histoplasma
Answer: A
524. A 60 years old farmer has developed swelling on the sole of foot with discharging yellow granules. The diagnosis is
A. Fungal mycetoma
B. Eumycetoma
C. Actinomycosis
D. Candidiasis
Answer: C
525. Rapid detection of meningococal meningitis is
A. Blood culture
B. CSF culture
C. PCR
D. None
Answer: C
526. Presumptive diagnosis of meningococcal meningitis is made earliest by
A. CSF culture
B. PCR
C. Latex agglutination
D. CFT
Answer: C
527. Chlamydospore is formed by ?
A. Candida albicans
B. Candida pscitasi
C. Histoplasma
D. Cryptococcus
Answer: A
528. Sewer swabs are taken to detect
A. Typhoid cases in community
B. Cholera cases in community
C. Typhoid carriers in community
D. Cholera carriers in community
Answer: C
529. Aspergillus fumigatus is differentiated by other fungi by ?
A. Showing septate hyphae
B. Grow at 45°C
C. Cause respiratory tract infection
D. Most common endemic mycosis
Answer: B
530. Species of shigella causing arthritis
A. Sh dysenteriae-1
B. Sh sonnei
C. Sh flexneri
D. Sh boydii
Answer: C
531. Ectothrix is caused by ?
A. T tansurans
B. T violaceum
C. Microsporum canis
D. All of the above
Answer: C
532. Griffth classification is base on
A. ‘C’-carbohydrate
B. M, T, R antigens
C. Type of hemolysis
D. 0, requirment
Answer: B
533. Sabouraud’s dextrose [glucose] agar is used for isolation of
A. Pseudomonas
B. B. Antracis
C. Fungi
D. Ancylostome
Answer: C
534. Similarity between chlamydia and virus is
A. Filterable through filter
B. Ability to grow in cell free media
C. Contains both DNA and RNA
D. All of the above
Answer: A
535. Bloody diarrhea in HIV infected patient is mostly due to ?
A. Cryptosporidium
B. Isospora
C. CMV
D. Salmonella
Answer: C
536. Which test cannot differentiate endemic and epidemic typhus
A. Weil-Felix reaction
B. Complement fixation test
C. Immunofluorescence
D. Radio precipitation
Answer: A
537. CCR5 mutation is related to which condition ?
A. Resistance to HIV infection
B. Susceptibility to HIV infection
C. Resistance to HBV infection
D. Susceptibility to HBV infection
Answer: A
538. E. coli subtypes are divided on the basis of
A. Lactose fermentation
B. Virulence properties
C. Somatic 0 antigen
D. Maltose fermentation
Answer: B
539. True about rhabdoviridae are all except ?
A. Includes vesculostomatitis virus
B. Rabies virus is inactivated by formalin
C. Rabies virus is negative sense double stranded RNA virus
D. All of the above correct
Answer: C
540. ELISA test for virulence antigen is used for which type of E coli
A. ETEC
B. EIEC
C. EHEC
D. EAEC
Answer: B
541. E. coli infection occur in which enzyme defect
A. Lactase
B. Pyruvate kinase
C. Pepsin
D. Trypsin
Answer: B
542. Culture media containing potassium tellurite
A. TCBS medium
B. Monsur medium
C. BYCE medium
D. Muller Hinton agar
Answer: B
543. Borrelia causes which of the following
A. Weil’s disease
B. Bejels
C. Vincent angina
D. Yaws
Answer: C
544. Zika virus causes ?
A. Hepatitis
B. Myocarditis
C. Conjunctivitis
D. None of these
Answer: C
545. What is similar between rotavirus and Norwalk virus ?
A. Both belong to same family
B. Both have segmented genome
C. Both have single stranded RNA
D. Both are causes of viral gastroenteritis
Answer: D
546. Rota-teq oral vaccine for rotavirus contains ?
A. 2 reassorted rotaviruses
B. 3 reassorted rotaviruses
C. 4 reassorted rotaviruses
D. 5 reassorted rotaviruses
Answer: D
547. Core antigen [HBO in HBV is encloded by which gene ?
A. S
B. C
C. P
D. X
Answer: B
548. Which of the following is Hepadnavirus ?
A. HAV
B. HBV
C. HCV
D. HDV
Answer: B
549. HSV-2 causes latent infection in which nerve plexus/ ganglia ?
A. Trigeminal ganglion
B. Otic ganglion
C. Sacral ganglion
D. Ciliary ganglion
Answer: C
550. Hand foot mouth disease is caused by ?
A. Enterovirus -70
B. Coxsackie – A virus
C. Coxsackie – B virus
D. Enterovirus
Answer: B
551. All viruses are associated with specific inclusion body, except ?
A. CMV
B. Malluscum contagiosum
C. EBV
D. Yellow fever
Answer: C
552. Intermediate host is not required for which parasite A. Toxoplasma
B. Schistosoma
C. Ancylostoma
D. Fish tapeworm
Answer: C
553. Generation time for M tuberculosis
A. 10-15 min
B. 10-15 hours
C. 10-15 days
D. 5-10 days
Answer: B
554. Maurer’s dots are seen in which species of plasmodium?
A. P ovale
B. P vivax
C. P falciparum
D. P malariae
Answer: C
555. Which stage of Leishmania is found in spleen aspirate of patient ?
A. Amastigote
B. Promastigote
C. Epimastigote
D. Trypomastigote
Answer: A
556. Adherence of E. histolytica to colonic mucosa is mediated by ?
A. Fibronectin
B. Lectin
C. Collagen
D. Fucose
Answer: B
557. Pulmonary eosinophilia is found in infection with ?
A. Babesia
B. Malaria
C. Strongyloides
D. Trypanosoma
Answer: C
558. Cyst with scolex and hooks is seen in
A. T. saginatu
B. Fish tapeworm
C. Echinococcus
D. H. diminuta
Answer: C
559. E. coli is differentiated by E histolytica by presence of
A. Very active movement
B. Thin nuclear membrane
C. Cyst with 1-4 nuclei
D. Blunt pseudopodia
Answer: D
560. Example of transfer of drug resistance
by conjugation A. Staphylococci to rifampicin
B. Pneumococcus to penicillin G
C. M tuberculosis to antitubercular drugs
D. E coli to streptomycin
Answer: D
561. Shadow casting is used in
A. Light microscopy
B. Electron microscopy
C. Optical microscopy
D. Fluoroscence microspopy
Answer: B
562. Frozen phenomenon is used for
A. Sterilization of heat sensitive material
B. Killing thermophilic bacteria
C. Preservation of microorganisms
D. Stimulating metabolism of microorganism
Answer: C
563. True about universal precautions are all except
A. To prevent transmission of blood borne pathogens
B. Includes use of hand washing
C. Consider that all body fluids are contaminated with blood
D. Includes use of gloves and masks
Answer: B
.
564. Nucleic acid is not found in
A. Virus
B. bacteria
C. Fungus
D. Prions
Answer: D
565. Oil paint appearance on nutrient agar is seen in
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Bordtella pertussis
D. H. influenzae
Answer: B
566. Streptococcal pneumoniae pneumonia present at
A. < 5 years
B. 5 – 15 years
C. 20 – 25 years
D. 30 – 40 years
Answer: A
567. Most common age group affected by streptococcus pyogenes
A. < 5 years
B. 5 – 15 years
C. 20 – 25 years
D. 30 – 40 years
Answer: B
568. Oropharyngeal commensal which predisposes to candidiasis
A. Hemophilus influenzae
B. Streptococcus
C. Staphylococcus
D. Lactobacillus
Answer: B
569. Hemophilus parainfluenza requires
A. Factor V
B. Factor X
C. Factor V & X
D. Factor VII
Answer: A
570. Most sensitive test in syphilis A. VDRL
B. TP-PA
C. RPR
D. FTA-ABS
Answer: B
571. Fresh water swimming leads to infection by
A. Bordetella pertussis
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C. M tuberculosis
D. Pseudomonas
Answer: D
572. Most common complication of diphtheria is
A. Myocarditis
B. Pneumonia
C. Meningitis
D. Endocarditis
Answer: A
573. All are true about anaerobic infection except
A. Most infections are endogenous
B. Exudates and swabs are best for culture
C. Specimen for UTI is suprapubic aspiration
D. They are found normally on skin and GIT
Answer: B
574. Most common route of infection in pasteurella cellulitis
A. Animal bites or scratches
B. Aerosols or dust
C. Contaminated tissue
D. Human to human
Answer: A
575. Non-motile bacterium is
A. Vibrio
B. Clostridium septicum
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Legionella
Answer: C
576. Ehrlichia phagocytophila mainly affects
A. RBC
B. Platelets
C. Neutrophils
D. Macrophages
Answer: C
577. Which viral gene acts as carcinogen in causing carcinoma cervix
A. P 24 – gene
B. E – gene
C. L – gene
D. H – gene
Answer: B
578. Which of the following can infect ovary
A. Mumps virus
B. EBV
C. CMV
D. Measles virus
Answer: A
579. Integration of viral genome into host cell chromosome can leads to
A. Malignancy
B. Latency
C. Altered growth
D. All of the above
Answer: D
580. Not true about paramyxoviruses
A. Belong to family myxovirus
B. Are DNA viruses
C. Have linear nucleic acid
D. Antigenically stable
Answer: B
581. HTLV-1 can be transmitted by
A. Blood transfusion
B. Droplet inhalation
C. Contaminated water
D. Animal bite
Answer: A
582. Thymus dependent area in spleen
A. Mantel layer
B. Perifollicular region
C. Malphigian corpuscle
D. All of the above
Answer: C
583. Precipitation in comparison to agglutination requires
A. Less pH
B. High temperature
C. Specific enzyme
D. Soluble antigen
Answer: D
584. Common variable deficiency is due to
A. Absent B cells
B. Reduced number of B cells
C. Defective B cell differentiation
D. All of the above
Answer: C
585. CD3 is a marker for?
A. B – cells
B. T – cells
C. NK – cells
D. Monocytes
Answer: B
Ans. is ‘b’ i.e., T – cells [Ref : Robbin’s 9th/e p. 590 & 8`5/e p. 600
table (13.5)]
CD-3 is known as Pan T-cell marker.
586. In Rideal walker method, plates are
incubated for ?
A. < 2 days B. 2-3 days C. 6-8 days D. > 10 days
Answer: B
587. ABO non- secretors are more prone to ?
A. Infection
B. Autoimmunity
C. Heart disease
D. Carcinoma
Answer: A:B:C
588. Rose waaler test is
A. Complement fixation test
B. Pricipitation in gel
C. Ring precipitation
D. Passive hemagglutination test
Answer: D
589. Prevention of catheter induced urinary tract infection is by ?
A. Prophylactic antibiotics
B. Use of face mask
C. Closed drainage technique
D. All of the above
Answer: C
590. Example of precipitation test is
A. Rose waaler test
B. Widal test
C. Latex agglutination
D. Kahn test
Answer: D
591. Morula form is seen in which infection ?
A. Chlamydiae
B. Bartonella quintana
C. Mycoplasma hominis
D. Ehrlichia
Answer: D
592. Which of the following is not an in vivo test ?
A. Elek’s gel precipitation test
B. Schick test
C. Lepromin test
D. Tuberculin test
Answer: A
593. Primory T-cell deficiency is
A. Ecto- 5′ nucleotidase deficiency
B. Common variable immunodeficiency
C. DiGeorge syndrome
D. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
Answer: C
594. Monoclonal antibody binds to ?
A. Epitope
B. Paratope
C. Both epitope and paratope
D. None of the above
Answer: A
595. Oakley – fulthorpe procedure is
A. Agglutination test
B. Precipitation test
C. Single diffusion in one dimension
D. Double diffusion in one dimension
Answer: B😀
596. Complement deficiency has not been implicated in causing ?
A. SLE
B. PNH
C. Hereditary angiodema
D. Membranous nephritis
Answer: D
597. Molecular mass of IgG [in K Da]
A. 150
B. 400
C. 1000
D. 1500
Answer: A
598. Lattice phenomenon is seen in
A. Neutrilization reaction
B. Complement fixation test
C. Precipitation test
D. All of the above
Answer: C
599. Haptens are immunogenic when they covalently bind to
A. Lipid carrier
B. Polysaccharide carrier
C. Protein carrier
D. Any of the above carrier
Answer: C
600. IgM appears in fetus at what gestational age
A. 10 weeks
B. 20 weeks
C. 30 weeks
D. at birth
Answer: B
601. The serum concentration of which of the following human IgG subclass is maximum ?
A. IgG 1
B. IgG 2
C. IgG 3
D. IgG 4
Answer: A
602. Which is specific for acquired immunity ?
A. Immunological memory
B. Affected by genetic makeup
C. No antigen exposure
D. All of the above
Answer: A
603. Example of neutrilization reaction
A. VDRL
B. Widal test
C. Kahn test
D. Nagler reaction
Answer: D
604. Which does not stimulate active immunity
A. Subclinical infection
B. Clinical infection
C. Vaccination
D. Transplacental antibody in newborn
Answer: D
605. Which of the following is not true regarding amoebic liver abscess
A. Multiple abscesses is more common
B. May rupture into the pleural cavity
C. For asymptomatic luminal carriers diloxanide furoate is the drug of choice
D. Mostly involving the right lobe of liver
Answer: A
606. Gene responsible for mutation of HBV is ?
A. X gene
B. S gene
C. P gene
D. C gene
Answer: D
607. The statements regarding falciparum malaria are all except
A. Haemoglobinuria and renal failure
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Cerebral malaria
D. Adequately prevented with chloroquine therapy
Answer: D
608. Eggs discharged in urine
A. S. mansoni
B. S. japonicum
C. S. haematobium
D. All
Answer: C
609. Most common site for hydatid cyst
A. Lung
B. Liver
C. Brain
D. Kidney
Answer: B
610. A child come with fever, cold, cough, membrane over tonsils; nasal swab is taken, culture should be done on which medium for earliest diagnosis ?
A. Loffelers serum slop
B. L. J. media
C. MC Conkey’s Agar
D. Citrate media
Answer: A
611. What is p24 ?
A. Envelop antigen in HIV
B. Core antigen in HIV
C. Genome of HIV
D. Shell antigen
Answer: B
612. Invasive infection s caused by all except ?
A. Shigella
B. Salmonella
C. V. cholerae
D. Yersinia
Answer: C
613. A child with fever with ABCs & pus in stools, causative organism is ?
A. ETEC
B. EHEC
C. EPEC
D. EAEC
Answer: B
614. Painless genital ulcer in male with everted margin is seen in ?
A. Syphilis
B. Chancroid
C. Herpes
D. LGV
Answer: A
615.Which organism can be isolated from stool & sputum –
A. Paragnomus
B. Fasciola
C. Chlornchis
D. P. carini
Answer: A
616. Largest intestinal protozoa is ?
A. E. coli
B. Balantidium coli
C. Giardia
D. T. gondii
Answer: B
617. Rhaditiform larvae is seen in ?
A. Tenia solium
B. Strongyloides
C. D. latum
D. Trichenella
Answer: B
618. Burkholderia cepacia is resistant to which of the following drugs:
A. Ceftazidime
B. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
C. Temocillin
D. Cefotetan
Answer: D
619. Shingles Is caused by which of the following ?
A. Varicella-zoster
B. Herpes simplex
C. CMV
D. None
Answer: A
620. Urea breath test is used for diagnosis of:
A. H.pylori
B. Campylobacter jejuni
C. E. coli
D. Lactobacillus
Answer: A
621. Hyperacute graft rejection occurs after how much time?
A. 24 hours
B. 2 weeks right
C. In minutes
D. Years
Answer: C
622. Australian antigen for hepatitis b is?
A. Hb S ag
B. Hb E ag
C. Hb D ag
D. HbV Dna
Answer: A
623. Which fungus is most commonly associated with orbital cellulitis in patients with diabetic ketoacidosis.
A. Candida
B. Mucor
C. Aspergillus
D. Rhizopus
Answer: C
624. Sabin Feldman dye test is used for diagnosis of which of the following condition:
A. Botulism
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. Sarcoidosis
D. Yellow fever
Answer: B
625. Acute Hemorrhagic Conjunctivitis is caused by which of enterovirus type ?
A. 69
B. 68
C. 70
D. 71
Answer: C
626. Echinococcus granulosus are commonly seen in which of the given animals:
A. Dog
B. Cat
C. Fox
D. Pig
Answer: A
627. An anaerobe causing multiple abscess with discharging sinuses, demonstrating sulphur granules in pus is?
A. Actinomycetes
B. Nocardia
C. Salmonella
D. Tularemia
Answer: A
628. Whole blood is used as a sample for which test?
A. Bacteria
B. IGRA
C. Genexpert
D. Virus
Answer: B
629. Which organism causing acute bacterial prostatitis ?
A. Enterococcus
B. Streptococcus viridans
C. Peptostreptococcus
D. E.coli
Answer: D
630. Which of the following organism releases histamine and cause scombroid fish poisoning
A. Salmonella
B. Staphylococcus
C. P. aeruginosa
D. Weissella
Answer: C
631. Who is the father of microbiology?
A. A.V.L.hook
B. Robert brown
C. J.C Bose
D. Pasteur
Answer: A
632. Cutaneous larva migrans caused by which organism?
A. Strongyloides
B. Toxocara canis
C. Ancylostoma braziliense
D. Necator americanus
Answer: C
633. After kidney transplantation which organisms infection is more likely to happens
A. CMV
B. Klebsiella
C. Streptococcus
D. Staphylococcus
Answer: A
634. Vector for zika virus is
A. Aedes
B. Culex
C. Anopheles
D. None of these
Answer: A
635. All of the following is/are having superantigen Property Except
A. Vibrio cholera
B. Streptococcal pyrogenic
C. Staphylococcal enterotoxins
D. None of these
Answer: A
636. Type A bioterrorism Agent
A. Chikungunya
B. Anthrax
C. Hendra
D. Influenza
Answer: B
637. Culture media used for E.coli 0157:H7 is
A. SMAC
B. Wilson and Blair medium
C. Potassium tellurite in Mcleod’s medium
D. Deoxycholate citrate agar (DCA)
Answer: A
638. Donovanosis is Caused By
A. H. ducreyi
B. Leishmania donovani
C. K. granulomatis
D. Treponema pallidum
Answer: C
639. Fungal Infection which is acquired by traumatic inoculation is?
A. Sporothrix
B. Blastomycosis
C. Coccidioides
D. Paracoccidioides
Answer: A
640. Which of the following is not involved in urethritis
A. Trichomonas
B. H.ducreyi
C. Chlamydia
D. Gonococcus
Answer: B
641. A patient complains about nausea, vomiting and stomach cramps after attending a social gathering party, which causative organism is likely responsible for Food Poisoning within 3 hours.
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Salmonella
C. Clostridium botulinum
D. Clostridium perfringens
Answer: A
642. A 46-year-old woman with HIV complains severe persistent diarrhea, Histological Investigation was performed, Identify the organism causing diarrhea in HIV Patient.
A. Cryptosporidium
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Salmonella
D. Clostridium botulinum
Answer: A
643. Organism Causing LGV
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C. Treponema pallidum
D. Haemophilus ducreyi
Answer: A
644. Which interleukin responsible for producing IgE from B cells
A. IL 1
B. IL 3
C. IL 4
D. Both B & C
Answer: C
645. HbsAg is based on which principle
A. Immunochromatography assays
B. Chemiluminescence
C. ELISA
D. Immunofluorescence
Answer: A
646. Nosocomial Infection occurs within?
A. A- 48
B. B. 72
C. C. 24
D. D. 50
Answer: A
647. Which of the following cell components produced by Neisseria gonorrhoeae is responsible for attachment to host cells?
A. Lipooligosaccharide
B. Pili (fimbriae)
C. IgA1 protease
D. Outer membrane porin protein
Answer: B
