MCQs on Muscle Contraction
1. The length of this is reduced while the muscle contracts
A. sarcomere
B. I-Band
C. A-Band
D. H-Zone
Answer:: C.
2. This about muscle fibres is true
A. for energy, they depend on anaerobic procedures
B. better adapted for slow sustained activities
C. myoglobin content is high
D. possess mitochondria in huge numbers
Answer:: A.
3. Muscle fatigue is due to the accumulation of
A. carbon dioxide
B. lactic acid
C. creatine phosphate
D. none of the above
Answer:: B.
4. White muscles are not used in this function
A. eyeball movement
B. sustained work at a slower pace for a prolonged period
C. fast flights of sparrows
D. strenuous and fast work for short duration of time
Answer:: B.
5. Duration of one muscle twitch is
A. 0.1 seconds
B. 1 second
C. 5 seconds
D. 10 seconds
Answer:: A.
6. A common connective tissue layer holding together the skeletal muscle bundles is
A. Aponeurosis
B. Fascia
C. Endomysium
D. Perimysium
Answer:: B.
7. This is a feature of white muscle fibers
A. less sarcoplasmic reticulum
B. large number of blood vessels
C. utilized for performing work for longer durations
D. none of these
Answer:: D.
8. Calcium, during muscle contraction binds with
A. Tropomyosin
B. TpC
C. TpI
D. TpT
Answer:: B.
9. This happens in a contracted skeletal muscle fiber
A. A band vanishes
B. M line vanishes
C. H zone elongates
D. I band is steady
Answer:: B.
10. Where does the stimulation of muscle fibers by a motor neuron take place
A. myofibril
B. transverse tubules
C. sarcoplasmic reticulum
D. neuromuscular junction
Answer:: D.
Excretory System MCQs
1. This substance cannot pass through semipermeable walls of glomerulus
A. Globin
B. Albumin
C. Blood cells
D. All of the above
Answer:: D.
2. The reason why the right kidney is slightly lower than the left is
A. the left kidney is bigger than right
B. considerable space occupied by the heart
C. considerable space occupied by the liver on the right side
D. the right kidney is bigger than the left
Answer:: C.
3. Kidneys in the human body extend from this level
A. 5th thoracic vertebrae to 3rd lumbar vertebrae
B. 8th thoracic vertebrae to 12th lumbar vertebrae
C. 10th thoracic vertebrae to 5th lumbar vertebrae
D. 12th thoracic vertebrae to 3rd lumbar vertebrae
Answer:: D.
4. This pressure facilitates filtration while urine is being formed
A. filtrate hydrostatic pressure
B. osmotic blood pressure
C. capillary hydrostatic pressure
D. all of these
Answer:: A.
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5. This happens if the proximal convoluted tubule is removed from nephron
A. urine is not formed
B. quality and quantity of urine is unaffected
C. urine is more concentrated
D. urine is more diluted
Answer:: D.
6. This is the activity of Atrial Natriuretic peptide (ANP)
A. inhibits aldosterone and ADH secretion
B. decreases reabsorption of water
C. decreases reabsoprtion of sodium
D. all of these
Answer:: D.
7. The total number of orifices for outgoing and incoming of urine through the bladder is
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer:: B.
8. Capillary hydrostatic pressure during filtration is built in the glomerulus as
A. size of Bowman’s capsule is significantly large
B. an afferent arteriole is narrow compared to efferent
C. Bowman’s capsule is cup-shaped
D. an efferent arteriole is narrow compared to afferent
Answer:: D.
9. This artery passes blood to the kidney
A. common iliac
B. cystic
C. renal
D. coeliac
Answer:: C.
10. This is the functional unit of the kidney
A. Hilum
B. Neurons
C. Nephrons
D. Medulla
Answer:: C.
MCQs on Muscular System
1. Division of joints allowing ample movement between 2 or more specific heads of bones are grouped as
A. diarthrosis
B. tendons and tibia
C. synarthroses
D. ligaments and femur
Answer:: A.
2. Ligaments restrict this action
A. cartilage junction
B. hyper extension
C. hyper flexion
D. both B. and C.
Answer:: D.
3. In muscle contraction, this ion is essential
A. Cl
B. Ca
C. K
D. Na
Answer:: B.
4. This is an example of stretch reflex stimulated by passive muscle movement
A. patellar reflex
B. tendon reflex
C. flexor reflex
D. ipsilateral reflex
Answer:: A.
5. This is a major energy source in a hurdle race to the leg muscles
A. glycolysis
B. lactate and pyruvate
C. performed ATP
D. oxidative metabolism
Answer:: D.
6. This event occurs during muscular contraction
I. H-zone disappears
II. A band widens
III. I band shortens
IV. Width of A band is unaffected
V. M line and Z line get closer
A. I, II and III
B. I, III, IV and V
C. II, IV and V
D. I, II and V
Answer:: B.
7. Muscles utilized for controlling the flow of all substances within lumen are grouped as
A. hormonal system
B. skeletal system
C. cardiac muscles
D. smooth muscles
Answer:: D.
8. Division of joints fibrous in nature permitting no movement is
A. tendons and tibia
B. ligaments and femur
C. diarthrosis
D. synarthroses
Answer:: D.
9. A small band of dense, white and fibrous elastic tissue is grouped as
A. ligament
B. muscle junction
C. muscle filament
D. muscle cartilage
Answer:: A.
10. In the striated muscles, the functional unit of contractile system is
A. Z band
B. cross bridges
C. sarcomere
D. myofibril
Answer:: C.
Economic Zoology MCQ’s
1. Which of the following is not an epidemic species of the earthworm?
A. Eudrillus
B. Lampito
C. Octochaetona
D. Perionyx
Answer:: A.
2. Assertion: A unique flight taken by the queen, the Nuptial flight is followed by many drones
Reason: Pheromone is a substance secreted by the queen bee. In that area, the drones present are attracted to pheromone which results in mating
A. Both assertion and reasoning are incorrect but are related
B. Both assertion and reasoning is correct but are not related
C. Both assertion and reasoning are incorrect and not related
D. both assertion and reasoning are correct and related
Answer:: D.
3. Which of the following caterpillar species affects the coconut?
A. Prodenia litura
B. Calandra oryza
C. Pectinophora gossypiella
D. Nephantis serenopa
Answer:: D.
4. __________ is a part of the mouth of a honey bee that is utilized to mould wax and stick to the pollen
A. Labellum
B. Ligula
C. Labrum
D. Labium
Answer:: C.
5. Which of the following statement is true about the Lac?
A. Lac is secreted from the hind end of the body
B. Lac is a crawling scale insect and is microscopic
C. Lac introduces its proboscis into the plant tissue to suck juices and grow
D. Lac is a large scale production of lac can be attributed to the male lac insect
Answer:: D.
6. ________ is also known as Lesser Grain Borer
A. Rhizopertha dominica
B. Calandra oryza
C. Tribolim castaneum
D. Tragoderma granarium
Answer:: A.
7. Which of the following statement is true about the Honey?
A. It is the nectar of flowers processed by a honey bee by mixing with saliva
B. It is the nectar of flowers diluted by a honey bee by mixing with saliva
C. It is the nectar of pollen obtained from flowers and stored in the beehive
D. It is the nectar obtained from flowers and stored in the beehive
Answer:: C.
8. The commercial and scientific method of beekeeping to produce wax and honey is known as________.
A. Silviculture
B. Sericulture
C. Apiculture
D. Pisciculture
Answer:: C.
9. Callasobruchus, the beetle leads to the damage to _________.
A. Adult and standing pulses
B. Adult and stored pulses
C. Larval and stored pulses
D. Larval and standing pulses
Answer:: B.
10. Larger poison claws of centipede are_________.
A. Telson
B. Maxillae
C. Mandibles
D. Maxillepedes
Answer:: D.
MCQs on Endocrine System
1. This is not a function of insulin
A. decreasing glycogenolysis
B. lipogenesis
C. gluconeogenesis
D. glycogenesis
Answer:: C.
2. Action of parathormone in the human body
A. decreases blood sodium level
B. increases blood sodium level
C. decreases blood calcium level
D. increases blood calcium level
Answer:: D.
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3. Effects of hypothyroidism include all but this
A. Diarrhoea
B. lethargy
C. Anorexia
D. Weight gain
Answer:: A.
4. Glucagon
A. accelerates protein synthesis within cells
B. accelerates conversion of glycogen into glucose
C. decreases conversion of glycogen into glucose
D. slows down glucose formation from lactic acid
Answer:: B.
5. Pituitary hormone triggering the male testes to generate sperm and in females, triggering follicular development on a monthly basis is
A. prolactin
B. growth hormone
C. follicle-stimulating hormone
D. luteinizing hormone
Answer:: C.
6. This hormone is responsible for “fight-or-flight” response
A. Thyroxine and melatonin
B. insulin and glucagon
C. epinephrine and norepinephrine
D. oestrogen and progesterone
Answer:: C.
7. Difference between endocrine and exocrine glands is that
A. endocrine glands release hormones, exocrine glands release waste
B. endocrine glands are interconnected, exocrine glands are totally independent
C. endocrine glands are formed by epithelial tissue, exocrine glands are connective
tissues primarily
D. endocrine glands are ductless, exocrine glands release secretions into ducts or at the surface of the body
Answer:: D.
8. This hormone is not secreted by Hypothalamus
A. PRH
B. FSH
C. CRH
D. TRH
Answer:: B.
9. This is the most abundant hormone produced by the anterior pituitary
A. LH
B. TSH
C. ACTH
D. GH
Answer:: D.
10. This is not an endocrine gland
A. Adrenal
B. Pituitary
C. Lacrimal
D. Thyroid
Answer:: C.
MCQs on Nervous System
1. The falx cerebri developing from the durometer is present between
A. Brain and spinal cord
B. Cerebellar hemispheres
C. Cerebral hemispheres
D. Subdural and epidural space
Answer:: C.
2. Which of the following is the correct order of meninges from the inner side?
A. Pia mater – arachnoid mater – durometer
B. Pericardium – myocardium – endocardium
C. Durometer – pia mater – arachnoid mater
D. Durometer – arachnoid mater – pia mater
Answer:: D.
3. Space which separates arachnoid mater and durometer is ______.
A. Epidural
B. Mediastinum
C. Subdural
D. Subarachnoid
Answer:: C.
4. Neurons are aided by following glial cells except for ______.
A. Ependymal
B. Lymphocytes
C. Oligodendrocytes
D. Astrocytes
Answer:: B.
5. Which of the following structure at a synapse has the neurotransmitter?
A. Schwan cells
B. Synaptic cleft
C. Synaptic knobs
D. Synaptic vesicles
Answer:: D.
6. The action potential while the propagation of a nerve impulse is due to the movement of________.
A. K+ ions from intracellular to extracellular fluid
B. K+ ions from extracellular to intracellular fluid
C. Na+ ions from intracellular to extracellular fluid
D. Na+ ions from extracellular to intracellular fluid
Answer:: D.
7. In the left hemisphere, Broca’s area is related to_______.
A. Speech
B. Smell sensation
C. Impulses received from eyes
D. Reasoning and learning
Answer:: A.
8. As a stimulant of the CNS, cocaine interferes with the reuptake of _________ at synapses
A. Epinephrine
B. Dopamine
C. Scetylcholine
D. Oxygen
Answer:: B.
9. The synaptic vesicles a neuromuscular junction discharges______.
A. adrenaline
B. epinephrine
C. acetylcholine
D. none of the above
Answer:: C.
10. ______________ is the ability of neurons to initiate nerve impulses
A. myelination
B. conductivity
C. irritability
D. neurotransmission
Answer:: C.
MCQs on Cardiovascular System
1. This is the reason why the SA node acts as heart’s pacemaker
A. because it has a poor cholinergic innervations
B. because it has a rich sympathetic innervations
C. because of its capability of generating impulses
D. because it generates impulses at the highest rate
Answer:: D.
2. This about second heart sound is incorrect
A. it is occasionally split
B. it is due to the closure of semilunar valves
C. indicates the commencement of diastole
D. it has a longer duration than the first sound
Answer:: D.
3. The reason for the dicrotic notch on the aortic pressure curve is
A. contraction of aorta
B. closure of the aortic valve
C. rapid filling of the left ventricle
D. closure of the pulmonary valve
Answer:: B.
4. Rise in the carotid sinus pressure leads to
A. reflex hypercapnia
B. reflex hyperpnea
C. reflex bradycardia
D. reflex tachycardia
Answer:: C.
5. Peripheral vascular resistance can be best given by
A. pulse pressure as it corresponds to aortic compliance and stroke volume
B. mean arterial pressure as it supplies blood to organs
C. diastolic blood pressure as it leads to the decrease till mid-thoracic aorta
D. systolic pressure as it causes an increase in the descending aorta
Answer:: C.
6. Duration of the absolute period, i.e., when the whole of heart is in diastole is
A. 0.2 seconds
B. 0.1 seconds
C. 0.4 seconds
D. 0.7 seconds
Answer:: A.
7. This sets glomerular capillary pressure apart from other capillaries found in the body
A. Lower filtration pressure
B. Higher filtration pressure
C. Both A. and B.
D. none of these
Answer:: B.
8. The ventricular muscles accepts impulses directly from
A. AV node
B. Bundle of His
C. Right and left bundle branches
D. Purkinje system
Answer:: D.
9. This is the similarity between pulmonary and systemic circulation
A. total capacity
B. pulse pressure
C. peripheral vascular resistance
D. volume of the circulation per minute
Answer:: D.
10. On the heart, the impact of adrenaline is all of these except that
A. it increases the uptake of oxygen by the heart
B. it increases the contraction force
C. it decreases the myocardial irritability
D. it increases the heart rate
Answer:: C.
MCQs on Cell Cycle Phases
1. The division of cytoplasm is known as
A. Mitosis
B. Synapsis
C. Cytokinesis
D. Karyokinesis
Answer:: C.
2. The stage in which chromosomes align on the equator of spindle fiber is
A. Telophase
B. Anaphase
C. Metaphase
D. Prophase
Answer:: C.
3. The best stage at which the total number of chromosomes can be counted in any species is
A. Telophase
B. Metaphase
C. Late anaphase
D. Late prophase
Answer:: B.
4. Balbiani rings are found in
A. Heterosome
B. Lampbrush chromosome
C. Autosome
D. Polytene chromsome
Answer:: D.
5. This structure tends to vanish always during meiosis and mitosis
A. Plastids
B. Plasma membrane
C. Nucleolus and nuclear membrane
D. All of these
Answer:: C.
6. Centrosome duplication takes place in this phase
A. S phase
B. G1 phase
C. G0 phase
D. M phase
Answer:: A.
7. The __________ checkpoint is also known as restriction point
A. G1 checkpoint
B. G2 checkpoint
C. M checkpoint
D. None of these
Answer:: A.
8. The characteristic of this stage of mitosis is the separation of the sister chromatids
A. Telophase
B. Metaphase
C. Prometaphase
D. Anaphase
Answer:: D.
9. This condition is necessary for a cell to qualify through the G2 checkpoint
A. Cell should be of a size sufficient enough
B. Complete and accurate DNA replication
C. Sufficient stockpile of nucleotides
D. Complete attachment of mitotic spindle fibers to kinetochores
Answer:: B.
10. Individual chromosomes become distinct through a light microscope during this mitotic stage
A. Prometaphase
B. Prophase
C. Anaphase
D. Metaphase
Answer:: B.
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MCQs on ECG
1. ECG (Electrocardiogram) was developed first by
A. Wilhelm His
B. Steward
C. Hubert Mann
D. Willem Einthoven
Answer:: D.
2. This is the classic ECG change in MI (myocardial infarction)
A. ST-segment elevation
B. T-wave inversion
C. Development of an abnormal Q wave
D. All of these
Answer:: D.
3. In which of these conditions can widen QRS and Tall-tented T waves be observed?
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Hyperphosphatemia
Answer:: B.
4. Hypokalemia is the condition of low potassium levels in your blood. Hypokalemia ECG changes are observed by
A. ST segment elevation
B. U wave (a position deflection after the T wave)
C. Tall peaked T waves
D. Widening of the QRS complex and increased amplitude
Answer:: B.
5. A normal ECG report must consist of the following information
A. Rhythm, cardiac axis
B. Conduction intervals
C. Description of the ST segments, QRS complexes, T-waves
D. All of these
Answer:: D.
6. For the normal heartbeat, depolarization stimulus originates in
A. His-bundle areas
B. Epicardium
C. Sinoatrial (SA)node
D. Atrioventricular (AV) node
Answer:: C.
7. The characteristics – slurring of the initial QRS deflection, shortened PR interval, and prolonged QRS duration are of this condition
A. Atrial tachycardia
B. Left bundle branch block
C. WPW (Wolff-Parkinson-White) syndrome
D. Myocardial ischemia
Answer:: C.
8. P wave indicates
A. Depolarization of right ventricle
B. Depolarization of left ventricle
C. Depolarization of both atria
D. Atria to ventricular conduction time
Answer:: C.
9. Ventricular muscle depolarization is indicated by
A. PR interval
B. P wave
C. U wave
D. The QRS complex
Answer:: D.
10. ECG identified by the PR interval tends to become longer with every succeeding ECG complex until there is a P wave not followed by a QRS is observed in
A. Third-Degree Atrioventricular Block
B. Second-Degree Atrioventricular Block, Type II
C. Second-Degree Atrioventricular Block, Type I
D. First-Degree Atrioventricular Block, Type II
Answer:: C.
MCQs on Diversity in Living World
1. Compared to genus, which of the following is less general in characters?
A. Family
B. Species
C. Division
D. Class
Answer:: B.
2. For wheat, which of the following combinations is correct?
A. Genus Triticum, family Poaceae, order Poales, Class Monocotyledonae
B. Genus Triticum, family Poaceae, order Poales, Class Dicotyledonae
C. Genus Triticum, family Poaceae, order Sapindales, Class Monocotyledonae
D. Genus Triticum, family Anacardiaceae, order Poales, Class Monocotyledonae
Answer:: A.
3. Regulation of cells’ activity takes place through
A. Flow of substances
B. Flow of energy
C. Flow of hormones
D. Flow of smoke
Answer:: B.
4. AssertionA.: “Biological species” concept helps to ask how species are formed
Reason(r): Concept of biological species is centred around the question of how reproductive isolation comes about
A. Both A. and (r) are correct, but (r) is not the explanation for A.
B. Both A. and (r) are correct, (r) is the correct explanation for A.
C. A. and (r) both are incorrect
D. A. is true, (r) is incorrect
Answer:: D.
5. The correct sequence of taxonomic categories is:
A. Species -> genus -> order -> phylum
B. Species -> order -> genus-> kingdom
C. Genus -> species -> order -> kingdom
D. None of these
Answer:: A.
6. Taxonomic hierarchy refer to
A. Classification of species based on the fossil record
B. A list of botanists or zoologists who have worked on the taxonomy of a species or group
C. a group of senior taxonomists who decide the nomenclature of animals and plants
D. Stepwise arrangement of all categories for classification of animals and plants
Answer:: D.
7. Which one of these categories has real existence?
A. Species
B. Genus
C. Kingdom
D. Phylum
Answer:: A.
8. A true species comprises of a population
A. Interbreeding
B. Sharing the same niche
C. Reproductively isolated
D. Feeding over the same food
Answer:: C.
9. Nicotiana sylvestris flowers only during long days while N.tabacum flowers only during short days. Under different photoperiods, they can be induced to flower at the same time and can be cross-fertilized to produce self-fertile offsprings. What is the best reason for considering Nicotiana sylvestris and N.tabacum as separate species?
A. They are reproductively distinct
B. They fail to interbreed in nature
C. They are physiologically different
D. They are distinct morphologically
Answer:: B.
10. One of the first acts in taxonomy is
A. Identification
B. Description
C. Naming
D. Classification
Answer:: A.
11. The common characteristics between tomato and potato will be maximum at the level of their
A. family
B. genus
C. division
D. order
Answer:: A.
12. A taxon is
A. a type of living organisms
B. a group of related species
C. a group of related families
D. a taxonomic group of any ranking
Answer:: D.
13. The living organisms can be unexceptionable distinguished from the nonliving things on the basis of their ability for
A. responsiveness to touch
B. reproduction
C. interaction with the environment and progressive evolution
D. growth and movement
Answer:: A.
14. ICBN stands for
A. International Code of Botanical Nomenclature
B. Indian Congress of Biological Names
C. International Congress of Biological Names
D. Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature
Answer:: A.
15. Biosystematics aims at
A. delimiting various taxa of organisms and establishing their relationships
B. the classification of organisms based on broad morphological characters
C. identification and arrangement of organisms on the basis of their cytological characteristics
D. the classification of organisms based on their evolutionary history and establishing their phylogeny on the totality of various parameters from all fields of studies
Answer:: D.
16. The label of a herbarium sheet does not carry information on
A. local names
B. name of collector
C. date of collection
D. height of the plant
Answer:: D.
17. Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is contrary to the rules of nomenclature?
A. The first word in a biological name represents the genus name and the second is a specific epithet.
B. The names are written in Latin and are italicised.
C. Biological names can be written in any language.
D. When written by hand the names are to be underlined.
Answer:: C.
MCQs on Morphology of a Bacteria
1. Which of this bacteria is resistant to penicillin as it lacks a cell wall?
A. Spirochetes
B. Cyanobacteria
C. Mycoplasmas
D. Bdellovibrios
Answer:: C.
2. What is a cluster of polar flagella called?
A. Petritrichous
B. Monotrichous
C. Amphitrichous
D. Lophotrichous
Answer:: D.
3. Which of these is a cocci occurring in single or pairs?
A. Diplococci
B. Streptococci
C. Tetracocci
D. None of the above
Answer:: A.
4. Flagella in bacteria enable them to
A. reproduce
B. locomote
C. Thrive in nutrient agar
D. Adhere to tissue surfaces
Answer:: B.
5. This about cell wall of gram-positive bacteria is true
A. cell wall comprises of many layers
B. the cell wall is thicker than the associated gram-negative bacteria
C. Cell wall comprises of teichoic acids
D. All of the above
Answer:: D.
6. What is Chemotaxis?
A. Swimming towards a bacteria
B. Swimming away of a bacteria
C. In the presence of a chemical compound, swimming towards or away of a bacteria
D. None of these
Answer:: C.
7. Which of these is exposed on the outer surface of a gram-negative bacterium?
A. Braun lipoprotein
B. O-antigen of lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
C. Polysaccharide portion of lipoteichoic acid (LTA)
D. Electron transport system components
Answer:: B.
8. The covalent bond which links the cell walls of gram-positive bacteria containing two modified sugars – N – acetylmuramic acid (NAM) and N-acetyl glucosamine (NAG) is
A. glycosidic bond
B. 1,4-glycosidic bond
C. 1,6-glycosidic bond
D. glycosidic bond
Answer:: B.
9. Which one of these has a Chinese letter arrangement?
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Bacillus anthracis
D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Answer:: D.
10. This is analogous to mesosomes of bacteria
A. Golgi apparatus of eukaryotes
B. Lysosomes of eukaryotes
C. Mitochondria of eukaryotes
D. None of the above
Answer:: C.
MCQs on Meiosis
1. The evolutionary advantage of meiosis can be best explained by which of these statements?
A. Meiosis alternates with mitosis from one to the next generation
B. Meiosis is essential for sexual reproduction
C. Passing of the same genetic system from one to next generation
D. Genetic recombination is possible from one to next generation
Answer:: D.
2. One of these events does not take place during meiosis
A. One successive division without any DNA replication
B. Chiasmata formation and crossing over
C. Segregation of homologous chromosomes
D. Separation of sister chromatids
Answer:: A.
3. The meiotic division takes place in
A. Meristematic cells
B. Conductive cells
C. Reproductive cells
D. Vegetative cells
Answer:: C.
4. Name the event wherein the paternal and maternal chromosomes change their material with each other in cell division
A. Crossing over
B. Synapsis
C. Dyad forming
D. Bivalent forming
Answer:: A.
5. The reason for daughter cells to differ from parent cells and also each other in meiosis is;
A. Segregation and crossing over
B. Segregation and independent assortment
C. Segregation, crossing over and independent assortment
D. Independent assortment and crossing over
Answer:: C.
6. Continuous variations are due to
A. Mutation
B. Crossing over
C. Polyploidy
D. Chromosomal aberrations
Answer:: B.
7. Synapsis takes place between
A. Spindle fibre and centromere
B. mRNA and ribosomes
C. a female and a male gamete
D. Two homologous chromosomes
Answer:: D.
8. Mendelian factor (Aa) is segregated during
A. Anaphase I
B. Anaphase II
C. Diplotene
D. Zygotene/Pachytene
Answer:: A.
9. The stage of prophase I wherein crossing over occurs is
A. Zygotene
B. Diplotene
C. Leptotene
D. Pachytene
Answer:: D.
10. Meiosis I is reductional division and meiosis II is equational division because of
A. Separation of chromatids
B. Crossing over
C. The disjunction of homologous chromosomes
D. The pairing of homologous chromosomes
Answer:: A.
MCQs on Thyroid Gland
1. The main hormone secreted by the Thyroid gland
A. T4
B. T3
C. A. and B. Both
D. TSH
Answer:: C.
2. Iodine deficiency can cause
A. Goitre
B. Thyroid cancer
C. Solitary thyroid nodules
D. Thyroiditis
Answer:: A.
3. Grave’s disease or Basedow’s disease is due to
A. Hyperactivity of adrenal cortex
B. Hypoactivity of the thyroid gland
C. Hyperactivity of thyroid gland
D. Hypoactivity of islets of Langerhans
Answer:: C.
4. The four small glands in the thyroid gland are known as
A. Adrenal gland
B. Pineal gland
C. Parathyroid gland
D. Endocrine and exocrine gland
Answer:: C.
5. Sometimes, the thyroid symptoms are mistaken for which condition?
A. Menopause
B. Posttraumatic stress
C. Pregnancy
D. Crohn’s disease
Answer:: A.
6. Medications for hypothyroidism include treatment that:
A. Replaces insulin
B. Replaces ADH
C. Replaces TH
D. Replaces surfactant
Answer:: C.
7. Which of these diseases is not related to thyroid glands?
A. Cretinism
B. Myxoedema
C. Goitre
D. Acromegaly
Answer:: D.
8. In chronically deficient patients, this abnormality is directly related to the enlargement of the thyroid gland
A. Impaired conversion of T3 and T4
B. Reduced activity of thyroperoxidase
C. Elevated levels of TSH
D. An antibody that binds to the TSH receptor in the thyroid gland
Answer:: C.
9. ____________ encloses thyroid, responsible for its movement during swallowing
A. Prevertebral fascia
B. Pretracheal fascia
C. Investing layer of the deep cervical fascia
D. Superficial fascia
Answer:: B.
10. This condition of chronic inflammation of the thyroid leading to under-activity is
A. Thyroiditis
B. Goitre
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Hyperthyroidism
Answer:: A.-
MCQs on Prokaryotes
1. What is the name of the region where double-stranded single circular DNA is found in the prokaryotic cell?
A. Protonucleus
B. Nucleus
C. Nucleoid
D. Nucleoplasm
Answer:: C.
2. In prokaryotic cells, ribosomes are
A. 70 S
B. 80 S
C. 60S + 40S
D. 50S + 40S
Answer:: A.
3. The two domains to which prokaryotes are classified into are:
A. Bacteria and Protista
B. Bacteria and Archaea
C. Archaea and Eukarya
D. Eukarya and Monera
Answer:: B.
4. When a water sample from a hot thermal vent was tested, it was found to contain a single-celled organism having a cell wall lacking a nucleus. What is its classification most likely?
A. Eukarya
B. Fungi
C. Protista
D. Archaea
Answer:: D.
5. Which of these is a characteristic of prokaryotic cells?
A. Absence of cell organelles
B. Absence of nucleus
C. Presence of 70S ribosomes
D. All of these
Answer:: D.
6. A difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells is in having
A. Ribosomes
B. Cell wall
C. Nuclear membrane
D. None of the above
Answer:: C.
7. In prokaryotes, the hair-like outgrowths which attach to the surface of other bacterial cells are
A. Flagella
B. Pili
C. Capsule
D. Plasmids
Answer:: B.
8. A component of prokaryotic cells:
A. Plasma membrane
B. DNA
C. Cytoplasm
D. All of these
Answer:: D.
9. The process of recombination in prokaryotes takes place in this way
A. Transformation
B. Conjugation
C. Transduction
D. All of the above
Answer:: D.
10. The flagella of a prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell vary in
A. Mode of functioning and location in the cell
B. Types of movement and placement in the cell
C. Microtubular organization and function
D. Microtubular organization and type of movement
Answer:: D.
MCQs on Coronary artery
1. Coronary artery disease (CAD) can be determined by this test
A. Cardiac catherization
B. Electrocardiogram
C. Treadmill stress test
D. all of these
Answer:: D.
2. The modifiable risk factor associated with coronary artery disease is
A. Age
B. Obesity
C. Heredity
D. Gender
Answer:: B.
3. This is one of the symptoms of Coronary artery disease
A. Sleep problems
B. Headache
C. Diarrhoea
D. Pain or discomfort in the chest, lower jaw or arms
Answer:: D.
4. If a stent is not used in a few cases who have coronary angioplasty done, the artery tends to narrow down or get blocked again in 6 months. This is more likely to happen if:
A. one smokes
B. one has unstable angina before the procedure
C. one has diabetes
D. all of these
Answer:: D.
5. Coronary angioplasty, part of CAD’s treatment involves:
A. A new part of artery replaces the blocked section
B. to expand artery, medication is used
C. inflation of a tiny balloon inside an artery
D. None of these
Answer:: C.
6. Doctors place a stent inside the artery during angioplasty. A stent is a
A. A new fragment of the artery
B. A wire mesh tube
C. A cotton tube
D. A slow-release medicine capsule
Answer:: B.
7. The __________ branches into Circumflex artery and left anterior descendary artery
A. Left main coronary artery
B. right marginal artery
C. Posterior descendary artery
D. None of these
Answer:: A.
8. One of these is not a symptom of acute coronary syndrome
A. ST Segment elevation myocardial infarction
B. Non ST segment elevation myocardial infarction
C. unstable angina
D. No episodes of dyspnea
Answer:: D.
9. Ischemia is
A. restriction of blood supply to tissues
B. Overflow of blood to tissues
C. Inadequate deoxygenated blood carrying veins
D. the medical term for shortness of breath
Answer:: A.
10. This is the role of the coronary artery
A. to carry blood away from the heart muscles
B. to supply blood to heart muscles
C. to supply blood to all parts of the body
D. none of these
Answer:: B.
Amoebiasis Questions
1. Amoebiasis causes
A. Headache and cold
B. Dysentry
C. Fever
D. Severe cold
Answer:: B.
2. Amoebiasis is caused by
A. Toxoplasma gondii
B. Entamoeba histolytica
C. Ascaris lumbricoides
D. None of these
Answer:: B.
3. Entamoeba histolytica can be cultured in
A. Diamond’s medium
B. CLED medium
C. NNN medium
D. MacConkey agar
Answer:: A.
4. Presence of ingested RBCs is a characteristic feature of
A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Dientamoeba fragilis
C. Entamoeba coli
D. Iodamoeba butcheli
Answer:: A.
5. The most common site for amoebiasis is:
A. Cecum
B. Sigmoid colon
C. Transverse colon
D. Hepatic flexure
Answer:: A.
6. Amoebiasis is transmitted by
A. Direct contact with dirty hands
B. Sexual contact
C. Faecal contamination of drinking water and food
D. All of these
Answer:: D.
7. Differentiation between pathogenic and non-pathogenic strains can be done by
A. Phagocytic activity
B. Use of genetic markers
C. Zymodeme analysis
D. All of these
Answer:: D.
8. In tissues, amoebiasis is treated with
A. Tinidazole
B. Nitazoxanide
C. Metronidazole
D. Any of these
Answer:: D.
9. The karyosome of Entamoeba histolytica is
A. liver
B. progressive
C. central
D. even
Answer:: C.
10. Entamoeba histolytica cysts have _________ nuclei
A. 1-4
B. 5
C. 9
D. 6-8
Answer:: A.
11. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. amoebiasis.
A. Causes dysentery
B. Parasite of the small intestine
C. Houseflies are mechanical carriers
D. Symptoms include constipation, abdominal pain and cramp.
Answer:: B.
Thalassemia MCQs
1. This statement is true about Thalassemia
A. There is a type of thalassemia depending on the number of mutations in genes
B. It is caused by mutations in the DNA of cells which make up the haemoglobin
C. Mild thalassemia may not need treatment
D. All of these
Answer:: D.
2. This is not a symptom of Thalassemia disease
A. Abdominal cramps
B. Weakness and slow growth
C. Dark urine
D. Facial bone deformities
Answer:: A.
3. This type of thalassemia disease is Cooley anaemia
A. Alloimmunization
B. Beta-thalassemia
C. Alpha-thalassemia
D. None of these
Answer:: B.
4. Name the blood test which can detect if a person is a carrier of thalassemia
A. Prenatal testing
B. A complete blood count (CBC)
C. A Reticulocyte Count
D. All of these
Answer:: D.
5. Treatment that can be given to thalassemia patients
A. Stem cell or bone marrow transplant
B. Blood transfusions
C. Iron chelation
D. All of the above
Answer:: D.
6. Possible complications of thalassemia
A. Infection
B. Iron overload
C. Only B
D. Both A and B
Answer:: D.
7. The complications that can occur in severe thalassemia is
A. Enlarged spleen
B. Bone deformities
C. Problems with the heart
D. All of these
Answer:: D.
8. Factors leading to an increase in the risk of thalassemia disease
A. Certain ancestry
B. Family history of thalassemia
C. Only B
D. Both A and B
Answer:: D.
9. This about alpha-thalassemia is correct
A. Number of gene mutations decide the severity of the condition
B. Haemoglobin fails to produce enough alpha protein in alpha-thalassemia
C. Alpha-thalassemia is common in South-east Asia, southern Asia, India etc
D. All of the above
Answer:: D.
10. This about beta-thalassemia is true
A. two genes are necessary to make beta-globin chains
B. Mutation of genes decide the severity of the condition
C. Beta thalassemia is a common condition in West Asia, North Africa and the Mediterranean islands
D. All of these
Answer:: D.
MCQs on Muscular Dystrophy
1. One of the ways scientists suggest to find a treatment for muscular dystrophy is
A. replacing muscles
B. create customized diets for them to be healthier and stronger
C. attempt to correct defective genes so it creates the right proteins
D. none of these
Answer:: C.
2. Define muscular dystrophy
A. Diseases which destruct the muscles of the body
B. diseases which cause the muscles to get disproportionate
C. born with too many or too little muscles
D. diseases which do not allow muscles to grow
Answer:: A.
3. Muscular dystrophy can affect
A. Only humans
B. Only animals
C. Both animals and humans
D. Only plants
Answer:: C.
4. Another way that scientists propose as a treatment to cure muscular dystrophy is
A. Removal of defective genes
B. Replacing defective genes after removing with parents genes again
C. Discovering chemicals which can substitute the missing chemical
D. none of these
Answer:: C.
5. _____________ is not a form of muscular dystrophy
A. Lunar dystrophy
B. Myotonic dystrophy
C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
D. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy
Answer:: A.
6. The protein whose production gets affected in Duchenne muscular dystrophy is
A. Actin
B. Myotropin
C. Dystrophin
D. Leucovorin
Answer:: C.
7. The gene responsible for causing Duchenne muscular dystrophy is found on
A. Y chromosome
B. X chromosome
C. Autosomal chromosome number 5
D. Autosomal chromosome number 8
Answer:: B.
8. The enzyme, whose blood levels is increased in patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy is
A. Carbonic anhydrase
B. Dystrophin kinase
C. Adenosine triphosphate
D. Creatinine phosphokinase
Answer:: D.
9. Duchenne muscular dystrophy can be cured with
A. Allopurinol
B. Creatinine phosphokinase inhibitors
C. Corticosteroids
D. None of these
Answer:: D.
10. The involvement of this muscle affects the breathing in Duchenne muscular dystrophy
A. Triceps
B. Biceps
C. Diaphragm
D. Quadriceps
Answer:: C.
MCQs on Amniocentesis
1. Amniocentesis, chorionic villi and alpha-fetoprotein sampling are performed to determine_____.
A. The most likely date of birth of the foetus
B. Whether the baby will be normal or abnormal
C. Whether the mother has a genetic abnormality
D. A and B
Answer:: B.
2. Which of the following tests cannot be examined by Amniocentesis procedure?
A. Chromosome analysis
B. Detecting genetic defects
C. Maturity of fetal lungs
D. None of these
Answer:: D.
3. The fluid sample required for performing the Amniocentesis test is ________.
A. The amnion
B. The placenta
C. The liquid surrounding the immediate fetus
D. All of the above
Answer:: C.
4. How many days are required for the Amniocentesis tests results?
A. 1 day
B. 1-2 days
C. 1-2 weeks
D. 3-4 weeks
Answer:: D.
5. The amniocentesis procedure is not done before the _________ week after conception.
A. 4th-5th
B. 6th-8th
C. 10th-12th
D. 15th-16th
Answer:: D.
6. Which of these procedures has the least risk for an unborn child?
A. Amniocentesis
B. Alpha-fetoprotein sampling
C. Chorionic villi sampling
D. All have the same risk level
Answer:: B.
7. Amniocentesis is a prenatal diagnostic test, which can also determine whether an unborn child will have __________ or not.
A. Obesity
B. Diabetes
C. Down’s syndrome
D. All of the above
Answer:: C.
8. Which of the following sentence is true for the chorion?
A. The organ in the uterus connected to the fetus by the umbilical cord
B. The sac or pouch-like organ within uterus containing the amniotic fluid surrounding the fetus
C. A membrane developing around an embryo, contributing to the formation of the placenta
D. None of the above
Answer:: C.
9. Which of the following procedure is involved in injecting a small flexible plastic tube into the uterus through the vagina?
A. Amniocentesis
B. Alpha-fetoprotein screening
C. Chorionic villi sampling
D. None of the above
Answer:: C.
10. Which of the following medical conditions are responsible for producing incorrect Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) screening results and indicating a fetus has genetic defects?
A. The mother is anaemic
B. The mother has Rh-negative blood
C. The date of conception has been miscalculated
D. All the above
Answer:: B.
