CHAPTER WISE MCQ’S ON CHEMISTRY
MCQs on Valence Bond Theory
1. In which year was the Valence bond theory introduced?
A. 1927
B. 1920
C. 1930
D. 1935
Answer::::A
2. The oxygen molecule is paramagnetic. It can be explained by
A. Resonance
B. Hybridisation
C. Valence bond theory
D. Molecular orbital theory
Answer:::: D
3. Bond angle of 120° is found in
A. PH3
B. NCl3
C. ClF3
D. BCl3
Answer:::: D
4. Which of the following has sp3 hybridisation?
A. NF3, BF3
B. SiF4, BeH2
C. H2S, BF3
D. NF3, H2O
Answer:::: D
5. Hybridisation of [Ni(CN)4]2- is
A. dsp2
B. d2sp2
C. sp3
D. d2sp3
Answer:::: A
6. Which of the following is correct for [Mn(CN)6]3-?
A. dsp2 and square planar
B. sp3d2 and octahedral
C. d2sp3 and octahedral
D. sp3d2 and tetrahedral
Answer:::: C
7. s-orbitals are nondirectional because of
A. spherical symmetry
B. their small size
C. being first orbital
D. All of the above
Answer:::: A
8. sp2 hybridisation is present in
A. C2H2
B. C2H4
C. BeCl2
D. C2H6
Answer:::: B
9. The hybridisation and geometry of XeF4 are
A. sp3d2, square planar
B. sp3d2, octahedral
C. sp3d3, triangular planar
D. sp3d, trigonal bipyramidal
Answer:::: B
10. Which of the following is true for the formation of stable bonds according to valence bond theory?
A. Greater overlapping between atomic orbitals
B. Close proximity between two atoms
C. Pairing of electrons having opposite spins
D. All of the above
Answer:::: D
MCQs on Half-Life
1. How many milligrams of tritium will remain after 49.2 years if the starting amount is 32 mg? The half-life of tritium is 12.3 years.
A. 8 mg
B. 2 mg
C. 1 mg
D. 4 mg
Answer:::: B
2. Find the half-life of 614C if 𝝺 is 2.31 x 10-4.
A. 4 x 103 years
B. 3 x 103 years
C. 3.5 x 104 years
D. 2 x 102 years
Answer:::: B
3. 200 mg of 14C will become 25 mg in how many years if the half-life is 5760 years?
A. 5760 years
B. 17280 years
C. 23040 years
D. 11520 years
Answer:::: B
4. If a body requires 0.01 m activity of radioactive substance (half-life = 6 hrs) after 24 hrs of injection then what is the maximum activity of injection to be injected?
A. 0.04
B. 0.32
C. 0.16
D. 0.08
Answer:::: C
5. What would be the remaining concentration of 300 g of radioactive substance after 18 hours if the half-life is 3 hours?
A. 9.37 g
B. 2.34 g
C. 3.34 g
D. 4.68 g
Answer:::: D
6. What would be the remaining concentration of 1 g of radioactive substance after 400 days if the half-life is 100 days?
A. 1/16
B. 1/4
C. 1/2
D. 1/8
Answer:::: A
7. What would be the remaining concentration of 10.4 micrograms of 231Pa after 3.25 x 105 years if the half-life is 3.25 x 104 years?
A. 0.0240 micrograms
B. 2.18 micrograms
C. 1.4 micrograms
D. 0.0102 micrograms
Answer:::: D
8. The radioactive isotope of phosphorus, P-32 is used as a tracer in the liver. If 3.5 mg is left in a sample after 288 hrs then how much P-32 was administered initially? [Half-life of P-32 is 14.3 days]
A. 7 mg
B. 6.26 mg
C. 1.96 mg
D. 4.17 mg
Answer:::: B
9. Uranium-238 forms thorium-234 after radioactive decay and has a half-life of 4.5 x 109 years. How many years will it take to decay 75% of the initial amount?
A. 4.5 x 109 years
B. 9 x 1010 years
C. 4.5 x 1010 years
D. 9 x 109 years
Answer:::: D
10. Which of the following radiations is the most penetrating?
A. 𝞬
B. 𝜶
C. 𝜷
D. neutron
Answer:::: A
MCQs on Alkyne
1. Ethyne and Ethane can be separated from a mixture by passing it through
A. Pyrogallol
B. Charcoal powder
C. Concentrated H2SO4
D. Ammonical Cu2Cl2
Answer:::: D
2. 1-butyne and 2-butyne can be identified by using which of the following reagents?
A. O2
B. Br2
C. NaNH2
D. HCl
Answer:::: C
3. Which of the following is used for welding?
A. CH4
B. C2H2
C. C2H6
D. C2H4
Answer:::: B
4. The product formed in the reaction of propyne with dilute H2SO4 and HgSO4 is
A. Propyl hydrogen sulphate
B. Propanone
C. Propanal
D. Propanol
Answer:::: B
5. Polymerisation product of propyne is
A. Benzene
B. Ethyl benzene
C. Propyl benzene
D. Mesitylene
Answer:::: D
6. The product formed in the reaction of ethyne with dilute H2SO4 and Hg2+ is
A. Ethyl hydrogen sulphate
B. Methoxymethane
C. Ethanal
D. Ethanol
Answer:::: C
7. In the ozonolysis reaction, acetylene forms
A. Formaldehyde
B. Glycol
C. Glyoxal, formic acid
D. None of the above
Answer:::: C
8. Acetylene is oxidised by KMnO4 to form
A. Acetic acid
B. Ethyl alcohol
C. Ethylene glycol
D. Oxalic acid
Answer:::: D
9. Find Z in the following reaction
https://cdn1.byjus.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/08/mcq-on-alkyne-qn9-eqn.png
A. Ethyl bromide
B. Ethylene bromide
C. Ethylidene bromide
D. Ethanol
Answer:::: A
10. When ethyne is passed through a red hot tube, _______ is formed
A. Cyclohexane
B. Neoprene
C. Benzene
D. Ethane
Answer:::: C
MCQs on Alkene
1. Which of the following compounds react most readily with Br(g)?
A. C2H2
B. C3H6
C. C2H4
D. C4H10
Answer:::: B
2. When propene reacts with HBr in the presence of peroxide, it gives rise to
A. allyl bromide
B. isopropyl bromide
C. n-propyl bromide
D. 3-bromopropane
Answer:::: C
3. Find the alkene with maximum stability
A. cis-2-Butene
B. trans-2-Butene
C. 1-Butene
D. All have the same stability
Answer:::: B
4. Ethylene bromide on treatment with Zn gives
A. Alkyne
B. Alkene
C. Alkane
D. All of the above
Answer:::: B
5. Which of the following reactions is common in alkenes?
A. Addition
B. Elimination
C. Substitution
D. Superposition
Answer:::: A
6. Cis-trans isomerism in alkenes is due to
A. chiral carbon
B. free rotation about single bond
C. free rotation about the double bond
D. restricted rotation about the double bond
Answer:::: D
7. Baeyer’s reagent is used to detect
A. glucose
B. double bonds
C. oxidation
D. reduction
Answer:::: B
8. Which of the following will form 2 acetaldehyde molecules on ozonolysis?
A. 1-pentene
B. 2-pentene
C. 1-butene
D. 2-butene
Answer:::: D
9. Which of the following reagents will form 1-propanol from propene?
A. B2H6, H2O2, OH–
B. Aq. KOH
C. H2O, H2SO4
D. Hg(OAc)2, NaBH4/H2O
Answer:::: A
10. Geometrical isomerism is exhibited by
A. 2-Butene
B. 2-Butyne
C. 2-Butenol
D. Butanol
Answer:::: A
MCQs On Conductor and Conductance
1. The unit of conductance cannot be expressed in
A. mho
B. (ohm)-1
C. siemens
D. ohm/m
Answer:::: D.
2. The SI unit of specific resistance is
A. ohm m
B. ohm/m
C. ohm/m2
D. (ohm)-1
Answer:::: A.
3. The reciprocal of resistivity of a conductor is
A. conductance
B. capacitance
C. conductivity
D. none of these
Answer:::: C.
4. In order to measure current in a resistance present in a circuit, the ammeter is connected
A. in series
B. in parallel
C. in series or parallel
D. nothing can be decided
Answer:::: A.
5. Good conductors have many loosely bound
A. atoms
B. protons
C. molecules
D. electrons
Answer:::: D.
6. The reciprocal of electrical resistance is
A. voltage
B. current
C. conductance
D. none of the above
Answer:::: C.
7. The element with the highest conductivity is
A. gold
B. silver
C. copper
D. platinum
Answer:::: B.
8. As temperature increases electrolytic conduction
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unaffected
D. none of the above
Answer:::: A.
9. The resistance of a conductor varies inversely as
A. length
B. area of cross-section
C. temperature
D. Resistivity
Answer:::: B.
10. With a rise in temperature, the resistance of semiconductors
A. decreases
B. increases
C. first, increase and then decrease
D. remains constant
Answer:::: A.
MCQs on Heat of Reaction
1. The energy released in the form of nuclear radiation in addition to heat and light during nuclear reactions is known as
A. chemical energy
B. nuclear energy
C. heat energy
D. electrical energy
Answer:::: B.
2. Fireworks release energy in the form of
A. heat
B. sound
C. light
D. all of the above
Answer:::: D.
3. The energy obtained from electric cells and batteries as a result of a chemical reaction is called
A. chemical energy
B. nuclear energy
C. heat energy
D. electrical energy
Answer:::: A.
4. As the rain falls the potential energy changes to
A. thermal energy
B. chemical energy
C. kinetic energy
D. nuclear energy
Answer:::: C.
5. The energy coming directly from magma called
A. mechanical energy
B. geothermal energy
C. heat energy
D. electrical energy
Answer:::: B.
6. In the process of rubbing hands, mechanical energy is converted into
A. sound energy
B. electrical energy
C. thermal energy
D. heat energy
Answer:::: C.
7. When a body vibrates, it produces
A. sound
B. water
C. heat
D. electricity
Answer:::: A.
8. In the exothermic reaction, the enthalpy of reaction is always
A. zero
B. positive
C. negative
D. none of these
Answer:::: C.
9. The heat required to raise the temperature of 1 mole of a substance by 1o is called
A. specific heat
B. molar heat capacity
C. water equivalent
D. specific gravity
Answer:::: B.
10. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a body through 1oC is called its
A. molar heat
B. specific heat
C. entropy
D. thermal capacity
Answer:::: B.
MCQs on 2nd and 3rd Law of Thermodynamics and Entropy
1. Which of the following processes is used to do maximum work done on the ideal gas that is compressed to half of its initial volume?
A. isothermal
B. isochoric
C. isobaric
D. adiabatic
Answer:::: D.
2. What is the ratio of Cp/Cv for gas if the pressure of the gas is proportional to the cube of its temperature and the process is an adiabatic process?
A. 2
B. 3/2
C. 4/3
D. 5/3
Answer:::: B.
3. The coefficient performance of a refrigerator is 5. Calculate the heat rejected to the surrounding if the temperature inside the freezer is -20oC
A. 11oC
B. 41oC
C. 21oC
D. 31oC
Answer:::: D.
4. What is a necessary condition for a reaction to be spontaneous at all temperatures?
A. 𐤃H < 𐤃G
B. 𐤃G and H should be positive
C. 𐤃H = 𐤃G = 0
D. 𐤃G and 𐤃H should be negative
Answer:::: D.
5. Which of the following factor affects the heat of reaction based on Kirchhoff equation?
A. molecularity
B. temperature
C. pressure
D. volume
Answer:::: B.
6. Chemical dissociation is
A. exothermic
B. reversible
C. endothermic
D. reversible and endothermic
Answer:::: D.
7. Which of the following is the largest unit of energy?
A. electron volt
B. joule
C. calorie
D. erg
Answer:::: C.
8. A perfect black body has a unique characteristic feature as
A. a good absorber only
B. a good radiator
C. a good absorber and a good radiator
D. neither a radiator nor an absorber
Answer:::: C.
9. A thermodynamic process where no heat is exchanged with the surroundings is
A. isothermal
B. adiabatic
C. isobaric
D. isotropic
Answer:::: B.
10. Which of the following laws was formulated by Nernst?
A. First law of thermodynamics
B. Second law of thermodynamics
C. Third law of thermodynamics
D. None of the above
Answer:::: C.
MCQs on First Law of Thermodynamics and Hess Law
1. The variations in enthalpy that can not be detected per calorimeter can be detected with the aid of
A. Newton’s law
B. Hess’s law
C. Krebs law
D. Ohm’s law
Answer:::: B.
2. The energy required to sever a given covalent bond is named
A. bond energy
B. bond enthalpy
C. bond dissociation energy
D. all of above
Answer:::: D.
3. Changes in enthalpy in an exothermic reaction is
A. positive
B. negative
C. constant
D. neutral
Answer:::: B.
4. The first law of thermodynamics states that energy can not be
A. created only
B. destroyed only
C. converted
D. created and destroyed
Answer:::: D.
5. Hess’s law states that a chemical reaction is independent of the route by which chemical reactions takes place while keeping the same
A. initial conditions only
B. final conditions only
C. mid-conditions
D. initial and final conditions
Answer:::: D.
6. The standard enthalpy change of neutralization involves the reaction of an acid with an alkali to form 1 mol of
A. water
B. oxygen
C. nitrogen
D. anhydrous salt
Answer:::: A.
7. The change in the energy between a chemical reaction and the surroundings at constant temperature is called
A. enthalpy change
B. enthalpy
C. enthalpy profile
D. dynamic enthalpy
Answer:::: A.
8. To initiate a reaction the minimum energy which is required to break bonds is called
A. bond energy
B. activation energy
C. breaking energy
D. ionization energy
Answer:::: A.
9. The standard condition for enthalpy changes are
A. the pressure of 100 kPa
B. temperature 298K
C. normal physical state
D. all of above
Answer:::: D.
10. The application of law of thermodynamics to the enthalpy change was done by
A. Newton
B. Hess’s
C. Lewis
D. Sophocles
Answer:::: B.
MCQs on Hydrogen Ion Concentration pH Scale and Buffer Solution
1. Range of pH scale is
A. 7 to 10
B. 0 to 10
C. 0 to 14
D. 7 to 14
Answer:::: C.
2. Level of pH found in antacid solution
A. ≤ 6.5
B. ≥ 7.0
C. > 10
D. > 14
Answer:::: B.
3. Three unknown solutions are given with pH value of 6, 8 & 9.5 respectively. Which solution will contain the maximum OH– ion?
A. Solution sample-1
B. Solution sample-2
C. Solution sample-3
D. Data are insufficient
Answer:::: C.
4. pH of neutral salt is
A. 7
B. <7 C. >7
D. 0
Answer:::: A.
5. Ammonium sulphate salt is
A. basic salt
B. acidic salt
C. neutral salt
D. complex salt
Answer:::: A.
6. When sulphuric acid reacts with eggshell it produces
A. hydrogen gas
B. nitrogen gas
C. carbon monoxide
D. carbon dioxide gas
Answer:::: D.
7. In the Chlor-alkali process, the byproduct gases are
A. hydrogen only
B. hydrogen and oxygen gas
C. hydrogen and chlorine gas
D. chlorine and nitrogen gas
Answer:::: C.
8. The following salt is not hygroscopic in nature
A. NaCl
B. MgCl
C. CaCl2
D. KCl
Answer:::: A.
9. When more and more water is diluted with acids its H+ ion concentration will
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remains the same
D. depends on the type of acids
Answer:::: B.
10. When acids react with metal oxide it produces
A. water and salt
B. salts and hydrogen gas
C. salts only
D. no reaction takes place
Answer:::: A.
MCQs on Acids and Bases
1. Bleaching powders chemical name is
A. calcium hypo oxychloride
B. calcium oxychloride
C. calcium chloride
D. calcium chloro oxide
Answer:::: B.
2. The ratio of the water molecule in plaster of paris and gypsum is
A. 3:1
B. 1:3
C. 1:4
D. 4:3
Answer:::: C.
3. Baking powder is
A. sodium carbonate + sodium tartaric
B. sodium bicarbonate + sodium tartaric
C. sodium carbonate + tartaric acid
D. sodium carbonate + sodium benzoate
Answer:::: B.
4. Gastric juice contains HCl which is one example of
A. inorganic acid
B. organic acid
C. soft organic acid
D. strong inorganic acid
Answer:::: A.
5. When milk of magnesia reacts with acetic acid it produces
A. basic salts
B. acidic salts
C. neutral salt
D. complex salt
Answer:::: C.
6. Which of the following phenomena will occur when a small amount of acid is added to water?
A. dilution
B. neutralisation
C. salt formation
D. ionization
Answer:::: (a, d)
7. Brine is used for industrial production of
A. NaOH
B. KOH
C. bleaching powder
D. none of the above
Answer:::: A.
8. When base reacts with the non-metal oxide
A. it neutralizes each other
B. it creates fire
C. it produces acidic salts
D. it produces basic salts
Answer:::: A.
9. Corrosive effect on the skin is caused by
A. acids
B. bases
C. water
D. mercury
Answer:::: (a, b)
10. The acid used for the manufacture of fertilizers and explosives is
A. nitric acid
B. sulfuric acid
C. phosphoric acid
D. hydrochloric acid
Answer:::: A.
MCQs on Electrical Conductors, Arrhenius Theory and Ostwald’s Dilution Law
1. If a conductor length is increased, 100% then keeping all other parameters fixed, what will be the increase in power dissipate?
A. 100%
B. 200%
C. 300%
D. 400%
Answer::::B.
2. What happens to the conductivity of semiconductors when there is an increase in temperature?
A. decrease
B. increase
C. first, increase and then decrease
D. remains constant
Answer::::B.
3. Semiconductors have electrical conductivity
A. more than metals but less than insulators
B. less than thermistor but more than an insulator
C. equal to the thermistor
D. less than metals but more than typical insulators
Answer::::D.
4. When temperature increases the conductance of conductors is
A. decrease
B. increase
C. first, increase and then decrease
D. remains constant
Answer::::A.
5. When acids dissolve in water it releases
A. H+ ion
B. H– ion
C. H3O+ ion
D. H3O2+ ion
Answer::::A.
6. Which element is always present in Arrhenius acid
A. oxygen
B. nitrogen
C. hydrogen
D. none of the above
Answer::::C.
7. Ostwald’s dilution law is applicable to
A. strong electrolytes only
B. weak electrolytes only
C. non-electrolytes
D. strong as well as weak electrolytes
Answer::::B.
8. In the titration of iodine against hype the indicator used is
A. starch
B. potassium ferricyanide
C. methyl orange
D. methyl red
Answer::::A.
10. One litre of 0.5M KCl solution is electrolysed for one minute in a current of 16.08 mA. Considering 100% efficiency, the pH of the resulting solution will be
A. 7
B. 9
C. 8
D. 10
Answer::::C.
MCQs on Le Chatelier Principle and its Application
1. In what manner will increase of pressure affect the following equation
C(s) + H2O → CO(g) + H2(g)
A. shift in the reverse direction
B. shift in the forward direction
C. increase in the yield of hydrogen
D. no effect
Answer:::: A.
2. The equilibrium between water and its vapour in an open vessel
A. can be achieved
B. depends upon pressure
C. cannot be achieved
D. depends upon temperature
Answer:::: C.
3. When a catalyst is added to a reversible reaction in equilibrium state the value of the equilibrium constant
A. increases
B. decreases
C. does not change
D. becomes zero
Answer:::: C.
4. A vessel at equilibrium contains SO3, SO2 and O2, now some helium gas is added so that total pressure increases while temperature and volume remain constant. According to Le Chatelier Principle the dissociation of SO32-
A. decreases
B. remain constant
C. increases
D. change unpredictably
Answer:::: B.
5. The chemical equilibrium of a reversible reaction is not influenced by
A. temperature
B. pressure
C. catalyst
D. concentration
Answer:::: C.
6. Le Chatelier Principle is applicable to
A. heterogeneous reaction
B. homogeneous reaction
C. irreversible reaction
D. system in equilibrium
Answer:::: D.
7. The equilibrium constant of a reaction is 300. If the volume of reaction flask is tripled the equilibrium constant is
A. 300
B. 600
C. 900
D. 100
Answer:::: A.
8. For a reversible reaction the concentration of the reactants are doubled, then the equilibrium constant
A. becomes one-fourth
B. is doubled
C. is halved
D. remains the same
Answer:::: D.
9. The role of a catalyst in a reversible reaction is to
A. alter the equilibrium constant of the reaction
B. increase the rate of the forward reaction
C. allow the equilibrium to be achieved quickly
D. decrease the rate of backward reaction
Answer:::: C.
10. In which of the following cases does the reaction go farthest to completion?
A. K = 1
B. K = 10
C. K = 10-2
D. K = 102
Answer:::: D.
MCQs on Kp And Kc Relationship And Characteristics Of K
1. What will be the value of Kp if the Kc is 26 for a reaction, PCl5 ⇌ PCl3 + Cl2 at 25o°?
A. 0.57
B. 0.46
C. 0.83
D. 0.61
Answer:::: D.
2. For which of the following reactions Kp is less than Kc?
A. 2HI ⇌ H2 + I2
B. N2 + O2 ⇌ 2NO
C. N2O4 ⇌ 2NO2
D. 2SO2 + O2 ⇌ 2SO3
Answer:::: D.
3. Two moles of PCl5 were heated to 400oC in 2 litres closed vessel. At equilibrium, 40% of PCl5 was dissociated into PCl3 and Cl2. Its Kc will be
A. 3.75 mol/L
B. 0.533 mol/L
C. 0.267 mol/L
D. None of the above
Answer:::: C.
4. Which of the following is not correct?
A. large value of K indicates large amount of products
B. small value of K indicates large amount of reactants
C. for K < 1 amount of reactants > amount of products
D. none of the above
Answer:::: D.
5. When Q (concentration quotient) is smaller than equilibrium constant
A. reaction will be in equilibrium
B. reaction will proceed in forward direction
C. reaction will proceed in backward direction
D. none of the above
Answer:::: B.
6. If Kp and Kc are in equilibrium constants in terms of partial pressure and concentration
A. Kp = Kc/RT
B. Kp = KcRT
C. Kp = Kc/(RT)𐤃n
D. Kp = Kc(RT)𐤃n
Answer:::: D.
7. For a reaction in equilibrium
A. Q (concentration quotient) = K (equilibrium constant)
B. Q > K
C. Q < K
D. none of the above
Answer:::: A.
8. Active mass in the law of mass action is
A. molar concentration
B. absolute concentration
C. concentration at 0oC
D. molar mass
Answer:::: A.
9. The mass of a gas dissolved in a given mass of a solvent at any temperature is directly proportional to
A. pressure of gas
B. volume of gas
C. density of gas
D. none of above
Answer:::: A.
10. Which of the following is an example of solid-solution equilibrium?
A. dissolution of sugar in water
B. melting of ice
C. evaporation of water in a closed vessel
D. none of the above
Answer:::: A.
MCQs On Law Of Equilibrium And Equilibrium Constant
1. Could BF3 acidity be clarified using one of the following concepts?
A. Arrhenius concept
B. Bronsted Lowry concept
C. Lewis concept
D. Bronsted Lowry as well as Lewis concept
Answer:::: C.
2. What will be the value of pH of 0.01 mol dm-3 CH3COOH (Ka = 1.74 x 10-5)?
A. 3.4
B. 3.6
C. 3.9
D. 3.0
Answer:::: A.
3. Which of the following options will be correct for the stage of half completion of the reaction A ⇌ B?
A. Go = 0
B. Go > 0
C. Go < 0
D. Go = – RT ln 2
Answer:::: A.
4. What should be the correct order of the gas, acetone and ether vapour concentration at 30℃. Considering that water has a maximum boiling point among these compounds, and that ether has a minimum boiling point?
A. water > ether > acetone
B. water < acetone < ether
C. ether < acetone < water
D. acetone < ether < water
Answer:::: B.
5. What is the pH of the resulting solution when equal volumes of 0.1M NaOH and 0.01M HCl are mixed?
A. 7.0
B. 1.04
C. 12.05
D. 2.0
Answer:::: C.
6. Which one of the following species cannot act as both Bronsted acid and base?
A. H2O
B. HCO3–
C. HSO4–
D. NH2–
Answer:::: D.
7. Which of the following salts will give the highest pH in the water?
A. KCl
B. NaCl
C. Na2CO3
D. CuSO4
Answer:::: C.
8. The aqueous solution of NH4Cl is
A. alkaline
B. acidic
C. neutral
D. none of these
Answer:::: B.
9. For acidic solution
A. pH = 7
B. pH < 7 C. pH > 7
D. None of these
Answer:::: B.
10. The oxidation number of Cr in K2CrO4 is
A. +6
B. -6
C. +8
D. -8
Answer:::: A.
MCQs On Law Of Mass Action
1. Which of the following is not correct?
A. the rate law is an experimental fact, but the law of mass action is theoretical
B. the rate law is always different from the expression of the law of mass action
C. the rate law is more informative than the law of mass action for the development of a mechanism
D. the order of a reaction is equal to the sum of the powers of the concentration terms in the rate law.
Answer:::: B.
2. The temperature coefficient of a reaction is 2. How many times the rate of reaction increases when the temperature is increased from 30oC to 60oC.
A. 4 times
B. 6 times
C. 8 times
D. 16 times
Answer:::: C.
3. If a reaction with t1/2 = 69.3 sec, has a rate constant 10-2 per sec the order is
A. zero
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer:::: B.
4. K for a zero-order reaction is 2 x 10-2 mole/L/sec. If the concentration of reactant after 25 sec is 0.5M, the initial concentration must have been
A. 0.5M
B. 1.25M
C. 12.5M
D. 1.0M
Answer:::: D.
5. A first-order reaction is 75% complete after 32 minutes. When was 50% of the reaction completed?
A. 16min
B. 8min
C. 4min
D. 32min
Answer:::: A.
6. What is the half-life of a radioactive substance if 87.5% of any given amount of the substance disintegrate in 40 minutes?
A. 160 min
B. 10 min
C. 20 min
D. 13 min 20 sec
Answer:::: D.
7. Half-life of 10g of radioactive substance is 10 days. The half-life of 20 g is
A. 10 days
B. 5 days
C. 20 days
D. 40 days
Answer:::: A.
8. The chemical reactions in which reactants need a high amount of activation energy are generally
A. fast
B. slow
C. very fast
D. instantaneous
Answer:::: B.
9. For a reaction A → Products the rate of reaction doubles when the concentration of A is increased by 4 times. The order of the reaction is
A. 4
B. 0
C. 1/2
D. 1
Answer:::: C.
10. The number of atoms or molecules whose concentration alters during a chemical change is its
A. molecularity
B. order of reaction
C. change in reaction
D. none
Answer:::: B.
MCQs On Equilibrium State
1. Equimolar solutions of the following compounds are prepared separately in water. Which will have the lowest pH value?
A. BeCl2
B. SrCl2
C. CaCl2
D. MgCl2
Answer:::: A.
2. Addition of which chemical will decrease the hydrogen ion concentration of an acetic acid solution?
A. NH4Cl
B. Al2(SO4)3
C. AgNO3
D. NaCN
Answer:::: D.
3. In some solutions, the concentration of H3O+ remains constant even when small amounts of strong acid or strong base are added to them. These solutions are known as
A. ideal solution
B. colloidal solution
C. true solution
D. buffer solution
Answer:::: D.
4. All compounds are in equilibrium in a reversible reaction. If reactants are doubled in concentration the equilibrium constant would be
A. reduced to half its original value
B. reduced to one-fourth of its original value
C. doubled
D. constant
Answer:::: D.
5. The solubility of Fe(OH)3 would be maximum in
A. 0.1M NaOH
B. 0.1M HCl
C. 0.01M KOH
D. 0.1M H2SO4
Answer:::: D.
6. Which of the following sulphides has the largest value of Ksp?
A. CuS
B. CdS
C. PbS
D. ZnS
Answer:::: D.
7. According to Le Chatelier’s principle adding heat to a solid and liquid in equilibrium will cause the
A. amount of solid to decrease
B. amount of liquid to decrease
C. temperature to rise
D. temperature to fall
Answer:::: A.
8. 0.1M solution of which of the substances will be basic?
A. sodium borate
B. ammonium chloride
C. calcium nitrate
D. sodium sulphate
Answer:::: A.
9. At a certain temperature 2HI ⥨ H2 + I2 only 50% HI is dissociated at equilibrium. The equilibrium constant is
A. 0.25
B. 1.0
C. 3.0
D. 0.6
Answer:::: A.
10. Which has the highest degree of ionization?
A. 0.1M NH3
B. 0.001M NH3
C. 0.1M NH3
D. 0.0001M NH3
Answer:::: D.
MCQs On Reversible And Irreversible Reaction
1. The net energy change in a reversible cyclic process is
A. 3/2 RT
B. zero
C. always > 0
D. always < 0
Answer:::: B.
2. Which of the following is an extensive property?
A. temperature
B. pressure
C. mass/volume ratio
D. energy
Answer:::: D.
3. Which of the following represents the largest amount of energy?
A. 1 electron volt
B. 1 erg
C. 1 calorie
D. 1 joule
Answer:::: C.
4. Which of the following is correct for an adiabatic process?
A. 𐤃E = q
B. q = 0
C. q = +w
D. P𐤃 V = 0
Answer:::: B.
5. The mixing of gases is generally accompanied by
A. decrease in entropy
B. a decrease in free energy
C. change in heat content
D. increase in free energy
Answer:::: B.
6. One litre atmosphere is approximately equal o
A. 101J
B. 8.314J
C. 931J
D. 19.2J
Answer:::: A.
7. The enthalpy change for a given reaction at 298K is -x J/mol. If the reaction occurs spontaneously at 298K the entropy change at that temperature
A. can be negative but larger than x/298
B. can be negative but smaller than x/298
C. cannot be negative
D. cannot be positive
Answer:::: B.
8. The initial energy change (𐤃U) of a process does not depend upon
A. amount of substance undergoing the change
B. temperature
C. path of the process
D. nature of substance undergoing the change
Answer:::: C.
9. Vibrational energy is
A. partial potential and partly kinetic
B. only potential
C. only kinetic
D. neither kinetic nor potential
Answer:::: A.
10. The total entropy change for a system and its surroundings increases if a process is
A. exothermic
B. endothermic
C. reversible
D. irreversible
Answer:::: D.
MCQs On Hydrogen Peroxide
1. The structure of hydrogen peroxide is
A. Planar
B. Spherical
C. Linear
D. Non-planar
Answer:::: D.
2. Fenton’s reagent is
A. Zn + HCl
B. Sn + HCl
C. FeSO4 + H2O2
D. None
Answer:::: C.
3. Hydrogen peroxide is
A. oxidising agent
B. reducing agent
C. oxidising as well as reducing
D. None
Answer:::: C.
4. In the disproportionation Hydrogen peroxide, forming H2O and O2 its equivalent weight is
A. 8.5
B. 17
C. 34
D. 68
Answer:::: C.
5. The gram equivalent weight of H2O2 as a reductant is
A. 34
B. 68
C. 18
D. 17
Answer:::: D.
6. H2O2 cannot oxidise
A. Na2SO3
B. O3
C. PbS
D. KI/HCl
Answer:::: B.
7. Which of the following contains peroxide linkage?
A. SO2
B. MnO2
C. NO2
D. BaO2
Answer:::: D.
8. Which of the following statement is false
A. H2O2 is oxidising
B. H2O2 is reducing
C. H2O2 is basic
D. H2O2 is acidic
Answer:::: C.
9. Which of the following gives hydrogen peroxide on electrolysis?
A. H2SO4
B. H2O
C. HCl
D. None of the above
Answer:::: A.
10. Acidified potassium permanganate is dropped over sodium peroxide taken in a round bottom flask at room temperature, the vigorous reaction takes place to produce
A. hydrogen peroxide
B. a mixture of hydrogen and oxygen
C. a colourless gas hydrogen
D. a colourless gas dioxygen
Answer:::: D.
MCQs On Water Or Hydride Of Oxygen
1. Water is oxidised to oxygen by
A. H2O2
B. KMnO4
C. ClO2
D. fluorine
Answer:::: D.
2. The H-O-H bond angle in a water molecule is about
A. 90o
B. 105o
C. 135o
D. 180o
Answer:::: B.
3. The action of water or dilute mineral acids on metals can give
A. tritium
B. dihydrogen
C. trihydrogen
D. mono hydrogen
Answer:::: B.
4. Reaction of potassium with water is
A. hydrolysis
B. absorption
C. exothermic
D. Endothermic
Answer:::: C.
5. Water softening by Clarke’s process uses
A. potash alum
B. calcium bicarbonate
C. calcium hydroxide
D. sodium bicarbonate
Answer:::: C.
6. A variety of water which contains soluble salts of Ca and Mg is known as
A. soft water
B. heavy water
C. conductivity water
D. hard water
Answer:::: D.
7. Oxygen does not react with
A. Na
B. P
C. Cl
D. S
Answer:::: C.
8. The gas O3 (ozone) cannot oxidise
A. KI
B. FeSo4
C. KMnO4
D. K2MnO4
Answer:::: C.
9. The molarity of pure water at 277K is
A. 1M
B. 5M
C. 55.5M
D. 2.5M
Answer:::: C.
10. Which one of the following substances has the highest proton affinity?
A. NH3
B. H2O
C. PH3
D. H2S
Answer:::: A.
MCQs On Hydrogen
1. Electrolysis of brine produces
A. chlorine gas
B. hydrogen gas
C. sodium hydroxide
D. all the above
Answer:::: D.
2. A reactant containing the element that is oxidised is called
A. reducing agent
B. oxidising agent
C. hydrogen
D. sublime
Answer:::: A.
3. By losing one or two electrons the atoms of metal are
A. oxidised
B. reduced
C. hydrogenated
D. sublimated
Answer:::: A.
4. Electrolytes conduct electricity in
A. solid state
B. liquid state
C. gaseous state
D. plasma state
Answer:::: B.
5. Loss of hydrogen atoms by an element is called
A. hydrogenation
B. oxidation
C. reduction
D. sublimation
Answer:::: B.
6. The electrolyte among the following is
A. NaOH
B. Urea
C. glucose
D. benzene
Answer:::: A.
7. O-O-H bond angle in H2O2 is
A. 97°
B. 106°
C. 120°
D. 109°28′
Answer:::: A.
8. Which of the following is very high for proton?
A. radius
B. ionization potential
C. charge
D. hydration energy
Answer:::: D.
9. The list which contains only elements is
A. air, water, oxygen
B. hydrogen, oxygen, brass
C. air, water, fire, earth
D. calcium, sulphur, carbon
Answer:::: D.
10. The smallest part of an element that cannot exist as a free state is
A. ion
B. charge
C. atom
D. molecule
Answer:::: C.
MCQs On Compounds of Transitional Elements
1. The 3d transition series contains elements having an atomic number from
A. 21 to 30
B. 21 to 31
C. 22 to 30
D. 21 to 29
Answer:::: A.
2. The first transition element is
A. copper
B. nickel
C. scandium
D. vanadium
Answer:::: C.
3. Transition metals are generally coloured because
A. they absorb electromagnetic radiations
B. their penultimate d-subshells are fully filled
C. of d-d transition
D. none of the above
Answer:::: C.
4. Atomic radii of d-block elements in a series
A. decreases with increase in atomic number
B. increases with increase in atomic number
C. remains constant
D. none of the above
Answer:::: A.
5. Formation of interstitial compounds makes the transition metals more
A. soft
B. ductile
C. malleable
D. none of the above
Answer:::: D.
6. Paramagnetism is common in
A. s-block elements
B. p-block elements
C. d-block elements
D. any of them
Answer:::: C.
7. Transition metals are complexes act as
A. Lewis acid
B. Lewis base
C. Neutral
D. none of the above
Answer:::: A.
8. Transition elements exhibit variable valency because they release electrons from
A. ns orbitals
B. np orbitals
C. (n-1)d orbitals
D. (n-1)d & ns orbitals
Answer:::: C.
9. The density of transition metals in a series
A. decreases gradually
B. increases gradually
C. remains constant
D. may increase or decrease
Answer:::: B.
10. In industrial processes, transition elements and their oxides are used as
A. surfactants
B. insecticides
C. catalyst
D. any of them
Answer:::: C.
MCQs On Corrosion
1. Which of the following methods is not used for the prevention of corrosion?
A. greasing
B. painting
C. plating
D. Heating
Answer:::: D.
2. Widening of a river valley takes place due to
A. corrosion
B. lateral erosion
C. corrasion
D. hydraulic action
Answer:::: B.
3. Elements which have properties of metals and nonmetals are
A. amorphous
B. crystalline
C. metalloids
D. metals
Answer:::: C.
4. Corrosion can be prevented by
A. alloying
B. tinning
C. galvanizing
D. all of the above
Answer:::: D.
5. Galvanic cells are also named as
A. electrolytic cells
B. battery cells
C. daniel cells
D. john cells
Answer:::: A.
6. Voltaic cells generate electricity by
A. spontaneous redox reaction
B. non spontaneous redox reaction
C. sublimation reaction
D. thermochemical reaction
Answer:::: A.
7. Galvanization is a method to
A. protect the iron metal from corrosion
B. extract iron from its ore
C. protect food from rancidity
D. improve the ductility property of the metal
Answer:::: A.
8. Rusting of iron could take place in
A. distilled water
B. ordinary water
C. distilled and ordinary water
D. none of the above
Answer:::: C.
9. Which of the following non-metals is liquid at the room temperature?
A. iodine
B. bromine
C. carbon
D. sulphur
Answer:::: B.
10. During roasting which of the following poisonous gas is mainly produced
A. CO
B. CO2
C. SO2
D. N2O
Answer:::: C.
MCQs On Cell Constant and Electrochemical Cells
1. Oxygen has a +2 oxidation state in
A. H2O
B. H2O2
C. F2O
D. SO2
Answer:::: C.
2. Which of the following is the strongest reducing agent?
A. Li
B. Na
C. Mg
D. Ca
Answer:::: A.
3. When the salt bridge is removed from a cell, its voltage
A. will increase
B. will decrease to half
C. will decrease to zero
D. will not change
Answer:::: C.
4. When a dilute solution of H2SO4 is electrolysed using a platinum electrode, at anode the gas evolved is
A. SO3
B. SO2
C. H2
D. O2
Answer:::: D.
5. The oxidation number of sulphur in Caro’s acid is
A. +4
B. +5
C. +6
D. +8
Answer:::: C.
6. Which of the following is the most powerful reducing agent?
A. H2S
B. H2SO3
C. SnCl2
D. HNO2
Answer:::: A.
7. Which of the following substances can act as both oxidising and reducing agent?
A. KMnO4
B. K2Cr2O7
C. HNO3
D. H2O2
Answer:::: D.
8. Electrolytes conduct electric current
A. by the movement of ions
B. by the movement of atoms
C. by the movement of molecules
D. by the movement of electrons from the cathode to anode
Answer:::: D.
9. The reductant may be defined as a substance, whose oxidation no of the atom
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. may increases or decreases
Answer:::: A.
10. Which of the following is not an example of an oxidizing agent?
A. hydrogen peroxide
B. potassium dichromate
C. nitric acid
D. hydrogen sulphide
Answer:::: D.
11. The conductance in electrolyte conductors is due to
A. Either movement of electrons or ions
B. The flow of free mobile electrons
C. Movement of ions
D. None of the above
Answer:::: C.
12. The cell constant of a conductivity cell
A. Changes with a change of concentration of electrolyte
B. Remains constant for a cell
C. changes with a change of electrolyte
D. changes with change in temperature
Answer:::: B.
MCQs on Soil Pollution
1. Which of the following serves as an indicator of atmospheric pollution?
A. fern
B. liverworts
C. hornworts
D. epiphytic lichens
Answer:::: D.
2. In 1984, the Bhopal gas tragedy took place because methyl isocyanate
A. reacted with ammonia
B. reacted with water
C. reacted with DDT
D. reacted with CO2
Answer:::: B.
3. Negative soil pollution is
A. reduction in soil productivity due to erosion and overuse
B. reduction in soil productivity due to addition of pesticides and industrial wastes
C. converting fertile land into harden land by dumping ash, sludge and garbage
D. None of the above
Answer:::: A.
4. Air pollution that occurs in sunlight is
A. reducing smog
B. acid rain
C. oxidizing smog
D. fog
Answer:::: C.
5. The layer of atmosphere between 10km to 50km above the sea level is called as
A. troposphere
B. thermosphere
C. stratosphere
D. mesosphere
Answer:::: C.
6. The concentration of dissolved oxygen in cold water can go up to
A. 14 ppm
B. 8 ppm
C. 10 ppm
D. 16 ppm
Answer:::: C.
7. The quantity of DDT at each trophic level in the food chain
A. decreases
B. remains the same
C. increases
D. changes
Answer:::: C.
8. Formation of London smog takes place in
A. winter during day time
B. summer during day time
C. summer during morning time
D. winter during morning time
Answer:::: D.
9. Brewery and sugar factory waste alter the quality of a water body by increasing
A. temperature
B. turbidity
C. pH
D. COD and BOD
Answer:::: D.
10. In a coal-fired power plant electrostatic precipitators are installed to control the emission of
A. SO2
B. NO2
C. SPM
D. CO
Answer:::: C.
MCQs on Freezing Point of the Solvent
1. 1. Which one of the following gases has the lowest value of Henry’s law constant?
A. N2
B. He
C. H2
D. CO2
Answer:::: D.
2. If 10ml of 0.1M aqueous solution of NaCl is divided into 1000 drops of equal volume. What will be the concentration of one drop?
A. 0.01M
B. 0.10M
C. 0.001M
D. 0.0001M
Answer:::: B.
3. A 0.5 molal solution of ethylene glycol in water is used as a coolant in a car. If the freezing point constant of water be 1.86oC per mole, the mixture shall freeze at
A. 0.93oC
B. -0.93oC
C. 1.86oC
D. -1.86oC
Answer:::: B.
4. Which statement is true for a solution of 0.020M H2SO3?
A. 2 litre of the solution contains 0.020 mole of SO42-
B. 2 litre of the solution contains 0.080 mole of H3O+
C. 1 litre of the solution contains 0.020 mole of H3O+
D. None of these
Answer:::: B.
5. A 500g toothpaste sample has 0.2g fluoride concentration. What is the concentration of F in terms of ppm level?
A. 250
B. 300
C. 400
D. 1000
Answer:::: C.
6. If at a certain temperature the vapour pressure of pure water is 25 mm Hg and that of a very dilute aqueous urea solution is 24.5mm Hg, the molality of the solution is
A. 0.02
B. 1.2
C. 1.11
D. 0.08
Answer:::: C.
7. Which of the following 0.10m aqueous solutions will have the lowest freezing point?
A. Al2(SO4)3
B. C6H12O6
C. KCl
D. C12H22O11
Answer:::: A.
8. The amount of urea to be dissolved in 500 cc of water (K = 1.86oC mol-1) to produce a depression of 0.186oC in the freezing point is
A. 9g
B. 6g
C. 3g
D. 0.3g
Answer:::: C.
9. The empirical formula of a nonelectrolyte is CH2O. A solution containing 6g of the compound exerts the same osmotic pressure as that of 0.05M glucose solution at the same temperature, The molecular formula of the compound is
A. C2H4O2
B. C3H6O3
C. C5H10O5
D. C4H8O4
Answer:::: D.
10. The molar mass of the solute sodium hydroxide obtained from the measurement of the osmotic pressure of its aqueous solution at 27oC is 25gmol-1. Therefore its ionization solution at 27oC is 25 g mol-1. Therefore its ionization percentage in this solution is
A. 75
B. 60
C. 80
D. 70
Answer:::: B.
MCQ’S ON HYBRIDISATION
1. The compound which contains both ionic and covalent bond:
A. KCl
B. KCN
C. CH4
D. H2
Answer:::: B.
2. The maximum number of 90o angles between bond pair-bond pair of electrons is observed in
A. dsp2 hybridisation
B. sp3d hybridisation
C. dsp3 hybridisation
D. sp3d2 hybridisation
Answer:::: D.
3. Ether is more volatile than alcohol having the same molecular formula. This is due to
A. alcohols having resonance structures
B. intermolecular hydrogen bonding in ethers
C. intermolecular hydrogen bonding in alcohols
D. the dipolar character of ethers
Answer:::: C.
4. The main axis of a diatomic molecule is z, molecular orbital px and py overlap to form which of the following orbital?
A. pi molecular orbital
B. sigma molecular orbital
C. gamma molecular orbital
D. No bond will be formed
Answer:::: A.
5. Total number of lone pair of electrons in I3- ion is
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 12
Answer:::: C.
6. BCl3 is a planar molecule whereas NCl3 is pyramidal because
A. B-Cl bond is more polar than NaCl bond
B. N-Cl bond is more covalent than B-Cl bond
C. the nitrogen atom is smaller than boron atom
D. BCl3 has no pair but NCl3 has a lone pair of electrons
Answer:::: D.
7. In which solvent NaCl has maximum solubility?
A. H2O
B. C2H5OH
C. CH3COCH3
D. C2H5OC2H5
Answer:::: A.
8. Which one of the following pairs of molecules will have permanent dipole moments for both members?
A. NO2 and CO2
B. NO2 and O3
C. SiF4 and CO2
D. SiF4 and NO2
Answer:::: B.
9. Which of the following compounds has the smallest bond angle in its molecule?
A. H2O
B. H2S
C. NH3
D. SO2
Answer:::: B.
10. Which one of the following properties is not shown by NO?
A. it is diamagnetic in the gaseous state
B. it is a neutral oxide
C. it combines with oxygen to form nitrogen dioxide
D. its bond order is 2.5
Answer:::: A.
MCQs on Overlapping and Bonds
1. Which of the following at ordinary temperature and pressure exists as a linear polymer due to extensive hydrogen bonding?
A. H2O
B. HCl
C. HF
D. NH3
Answer:::: C.
2. The shape of SF3Cl3 molecule is
A. triangle bi-pyramidal
B. cubic
C. octahedral
D. tetrahedral
Answer:::: C.
3. The structure of CH2=C=H2 is
A. linear
B. planar
C. non-planar
D. has several reasoning structure
Answer:::: A.
4. Which is the correct arrangement of the molecules based on dipole moments?
A. BF3 > NF3 > NH3
B. NF3 > BF3 > NH3
C. NH3 > BH3 > NF3
D. NH3 > NF3 > BF3
Answer:::: D.
5. When two ice cubes are pressed over each other, they unite to form one cube. Which of the following forces is responsible to hold them together?
A. Ionic interaction
B. covalent attraction
C. van der waals forces
D. hydrogen bond formation
Answer:::: D.
6. Which of the following is diamagnetic?
A. Superoxide ion
B. carbon molecule
C. unipositive ion of nitrogen molecule
D. oxygen molecule
Answer:::: B.
7. A molecule of fluorine is formed by
A. the axial p-p orbital overlap
B. the sidewise p-p orbital overlap
C. the axial s-s orbital overlap
D. the axial s-p orbital overlap
Answer:::: D.
8. Which one of the following molecules has the smallest bonds?
A. NH3
B. PH3
C. H2O
D. H2Se
Answer:::: D.
9. Polarity in a molecule and hence the dipole moment depends primarily on electronegativity to the constituent atoms and shape of a molecule. Which of the following has the highest dipole moment?
A. CO2
B. HI
C. H2O
D. SO2
Answer:::: C.
10. The electron configuration of the outermost shell of the most electronegative element is
A. 2s22p2
B. 3s23p5
C. 4s24p5
D. 5s25p5
Answer:::: A.
MCQs on Polarisation and Fajans Rule
1. The molecule, which contains sp3d2 and p orbitals overlapping in it is
A. PCl5
B. BrF5
C. ClF3
D. IF7
Answer:::: B.
2. Homolytic fission of C-C bond of ethane (C2H6) which gives an intermediate in which carbon atom is
A. sp3 hybridised
B. sp2 hybridised
C. sp hybridised
D. sp3d hybridised
Answer:::: B.
3. Which of the following compounds has the electron pair geometry as trigonal bipyramidal with three equatorial positions occupied by lone pairs of electrons?
A. AlCl3
B. XeF2
C. Pt(NH3)2Cl
D. CH3MgBr
Answer:::: B.
4. Select correct statement
A. Cations with 18 electron shells have greater polarising power than the cations with 8-electron shells.
B. Inner shell electrons have a poor shielding effect on the nucleus and thus electronegativity of the 18 electron shell is increased.
C. CuCl is covalent and NaCl is ionic
D. All are correct statements
Answer:::: D.
5. In BrF3 molecule the lone pairs occupy an equatorial position to minimise
A. lone pair-bond pair repulsion only
B. bond pair-bond pair repulsion only
C. lone pair-lone pair repulsion and lone pair-bond pair repulsion
D. lone pair-lone pair repulsion only
Answer:::: D.
6. The hybridisation of phosphorous in POCl3 is the same as in
A. P in PCl3
B. S in SF4
C. Cl in ClF3
D. B in BCl3
Answer:::: A.
7. If the bond length and dipole moment of diatomic molecules are 1.25Ao and 1.0D respectively, what is the percent ionic character of the bond?
A. 10.66
B. 12.35
C. 16.66
D. 19.33
Answer:::: C.
8. The molecule MLx is planar with six pairs of electrons around M in the valence shell. The value of x is
A. 6
B. 2
C. 4
D. 3
Answer:::: C.
9. Total number of electron pairs in PCl5, PCl4+ and PCl6– are respectively
A. 20, 16, 24
B. 24, 16, 20
C. 16, 20, 24
D. 24, 20, 16
Answer:::: A.
10. If the water molecule is linear
A. it would have a very high boiling point
B. it would be highly reactive
C. its dipole moment would be zero
D. it would be highly ionic
Answer:::: C.
MCQs on Dipole Moment
1. Molecules with odd electron bond are
A. paramagnetic
B. unstable
C. forms dimers at low temperature
D. all are correct
Answer:::: D.
2. In a crystal, atoms are located at the positions of
A. maximum potential energy
B. minimum potential energy
C. zero potential energy
D. indefinite potential energy
Answer:::: B.
3. If the water molecule is linear
A. it would have a very high boiling point
B. it would be highly reactive
C. its dipole moment would be zero
D. it would be highly ionic
Answer:::: C.
4. The percentage of ionic character of the bond between two atoms is calculated from the difference between their
A. ionic radii
B. electronegativities
C. electron affinities
D. ionisation energies
Answer:::: B.
5. Which of the following is not correct for dipole moment?
A. lone pair of electrons present on the central atom can give rise to the dipole moment
B. the dipole moment is a vector quantity
C. CO2 molecule has no dipole moment since C-O bonds are nonpolar
D. the difference in electronegativities of combining atoms can lead to the dipole moment
Answer:::: C.
6. For two ionic solids CaO and KI, identify the wrong statement among the following
A. the lattice energy of CaO is much larger than KI
B. KI is soluble in benzene
C. CaO has a higher melting point
D. KI has a lower melting point
Answer:::: B.
7. A diatomic molecule has a dipole moment of 1.2D. If its bond distance is 1.0Ao, what fraction of electric charge “e” exists on each atom?
A. 12% of e
B. 18% of e
C. 25% of e
D. 30% of e
Answer:::: C.
8. Find the species with a maximum dipole among the following
A. NF3
B. CO2
C. NH3
D. CH4
Answer:::: C.
9. In conductors, opposite charges are separated by
A. dielectric
B. insulator
C. microscopic distances
D. large distances
Answer:::: B.
10. Electric susceptibility is inversely proportional to
A. permittivity
B. polarization vector
C. magnetic field intensity
D. permeability
Answer:::: A.
MCQs on Coordinate or Dative Bonding
1. When two species A and B form an electron-pair bond and A does not provide its electrons for bonding, the bond present between A and B must be
A. ionic
B. covalent
C. dative
D. Hydrogen
Answer:::: C.
2. Each of the following pairs of chemical species will combine. Which of the following combinations is best explained by the coordinate covalent bond?
A. H2 + I2
B. Mg +O2
C. Cl + Cl
D. H+ + H2O
Answer:::: D.
3. BF3 forms an adduct with NH3 because
A. nitrogen has a high electronegativity
B. boron has a high electronegativity
C. boron has an empty p-orbital and nitrogen has one lone pair of electrons
D. boron has an electropositive character
Answer:::: C.
4. Protons play an important role in which type of bonding?
A. electrovalent
B. hydrogen
C. covalent
D. coordinate
Answer:::: D.
5. Which of the following compounds contain all three types: ionic, covalent and dative bonds?
A. CuSO4.5H2O
B. Solid N2O5
C. (NH4)2SO4
D. All
Answer:::: D.
6. The type of bond formed during the hydration of cation is
A. ionic
B. covalent
C. electrostatic
D. dative bond
Answer:::: D.
7. Which of the following compounds has electrovalent linkage?
A. CH3Cl
B. NaCl
C. CH4
D. Cl2
Answer:::: B.
8. Which of the following bonds has the most polar character?
A. C-O
B. C-Br
C. C-S
D. C-F
Answer:::: D.
9. A molecule with multiple covalent bonds is
A. C2H4
B. H2
C. F2
D. N2
Answer:::: D.
10. The weakest bond is
A. Hydrogen
B. Van der Waals
C. Covalent
D. Coordinate
Answer:::: B.
MCQs on Covalent Bonding
1. 1. The octet rule is not valid for the molecule
A. CO2
B. H2O
C. O2
D. CO
Answer:::: D.
2. The nature of bonding in CCl4 and CaH2 is
A. electrovalent in both CCl4 and CaH2
B. covalent in CCl4 and electrovalent in CaH2
C. electrovalent in CCl4 and covalent in CaH2
D. covalent in both CCl4 and CaH2
Answer:::: B.
3. CCl4 is insoluble in water because
A. CCl4 is nonpolar and water is polar
B. water is nonpolar and CCl4 is polar
C. water and CCl4 are both polar
D. none
Answer:::: A.
4. Which is not an exception to octet rule?
A. BF3
B. SnCl4
C. BeI2
D. ClO2
Answer:::: B.
5. The compound with the lowest melting point is
A. AlF3
B. AlCl3
C. AlBr3
D. AlI3
Answer:::: D.
6. A solid substance is soft, has a low melting point and is a poor conductor of electricity. The substance is most likely
A. an ionic solid
B. network solid
C. a metallic solid
D. a molecular solid
Answer:::: D.
7. By applying a Silver Nitrate solution to pure carbon tetrachloride
A. a white precipitate soluble in ammonia is obtained
B. a curdy precipitate insoluble in ammonia is obtained
C. a pale yellow precipitate is obtained
D. no precipitate is obtained
Answer:::: D.
8. The rate of reaction of organic compounds is slow due to
A. ionic bonding
B. amphoteric nature
C. covalent bonding
D. coordinate covalent bonding
Answer:::: C.
9. The self linking ability of carbon is called
A. catenation
B. sublimation
C. hydrogenation
D. carbonation
Answer:::: A.
10. Almost 95% of compounds are of carbon because they can form
A. single bonds
B. double bonds
C. triple bonds
D. multiple bonds
Answer:::: D.
MCQs on Electrovalent Bonding
1. Electrovalent compounds are
A. low melting
B. insoluble in polar solvents
C. conductors in the fused state
D. none of the above
Answer:::: C.
2. Ionic compounds don’t conduct electricity in
A. solution
B. fused state
C. solid state
D. none of the above
Answer:::: C.
3. When an element of very low ionization potential reacts with an element of very high electron affinity
A. a covalent bond is formed
B. an electrovalent bond is formed
C. a metallic bond is formed
D. no bond is formed
Answer:::: B.
4. The bond between two atoms of the same element is
A. polar covalent bond
B. ionic bond
C. non-polar covalent bond
D. none of the above
Answer:::: C.
5. The percentage of ionic character of a bond is calculated by the difference in
A. size of atoms
B. ionization potential of atoms
C. electronegativity of atoms
D. atomic volumes of atoms
Answer:::: C.
6. In which of the following C-C bond length is least?
A. benzene
B. diamond
C. ethylene
D. acetylene
Answer:::: D.
7. The paramagnetic nature of oxygen molecule is explained by
A. Valence bond theory
B. Heitler London theory
C. Hund Mulliken theory
D. none of the above
Answer:::: C.
8. The bonds present in CuSO4.5H2O are
A. electrovalent and coordinate
B. covalent and coordinate
C. electrovalent and covalent
D. electrovalent, covalent and coordinate
Answer:::: D.
9. An element having 4 electrons in its outermost orbit forms bond by
A. losing electrons
B. gaining electrons
C. sharing electrons
D. any of the above
Answer:::: C.
10. Elements with electronegativities 1.2 and 3.0 form
A. electrovalent bond
B. covalent bond
C. coordinate bond
D. metallic bond
Answer:::: A.
MCQs on Auto Oxidation and Disproportionation
1. Which one of the following will not reduce an acidified solution of potassium dichromate (VI)?
A. (CH3)2C(OH)CH3
B. FeSO4
C. CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3
D. Zn
Answer:::: A.
2. 25.4g of iodine and 14.2g of chlorine is made to react completely to yield a mixture of ICl and ICl3. Calculate the ratio of moles of ICl and ICl3
A. 1:1
B. 1:2
C. 1:3
D. 2:3
Answer:::: A.
3. Which of the following has been arranged in order of decreasing average oxidation number of sulphur?
A. H2S2O7 > Na2S4O6 > Na2S2O3 > S8
B. SO2+ > SO42- > SO32- > HSO4–
C. H2SO5 > H2SO3 > SCl2 > H2S
D. H2SO4 > SO2 > H2S > H2S2O8
Answer:::: C.
4. The decomposition of KClO3 to KCl and O2 on heating is an example of
A. intermolecular redox change
B. intramolecular redox change
C. disproportionation or auto redox change
D. none of these
Answer:::: B.
5. Disproportionation means
A. only oxidation
B. only reduction
C. both, oxidation and reduction of a reactant
D. neither oxidation nor reduction
Answer:::: C.
6. The compounds behaving both oxidizing, as well as a reducing agent, is
A. H2O2
B. SO2
C. HNO2
D. HNO3
Answer:::: (a,b,c)
7. A substance which can be oxidised as well as reduced easily is
A. HCl
B. HClO
C. HClO3
D. HClO4
Answer:::: (b,c)
8. Equivalent mass of oxidising agent in the reaction
SO2 + 2H2S → 3S + 2H2O
A. 32
B. 64
C. 16
D. 8
Answer:::: C.
9. The oxidation number of iron in Fe3O4 is
A. +2
B. +3
C. 8/3
D. ⅔
Answer:::: (a, b)
10. Oxidation numbers of chlorine in Cl2O, Cl2 and ClO3– are respectively
A. +1, -1, +5
B. +1, 0, -1
C. -1, 0, +1
D. +1, 0, +5
Answer:::: D.
MCQs on Redox Reaction and Method for Balancing Redox Reaction
1. Which of the following represents a redox reaction?
A. NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O
B. BaCl2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2HCl
C. CuSO4 + 2H2O → Cu(OH)2 + H2SO3
D. Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2
Answer:::: D.
2. Which reaction involves neither oxidation nor reduction?
A. CrO42- -→ Cr2O72-
B. Cr → CrCl3
C. Na → Na+
D. 2S2O32- → S4O62-
Answer:::: A.
3. Zn gives H2 gas with H2SO4 and HCl but not with HNO3 because
A. Zn acts as an oxidising agent when it reacts with HNO3
B. HNO3 is a weaker acid than H2SO4 and HCl
C. In electrochemical series, Zn is above hydrogen
D. NO3– is reduced in preference to hydronium ion
Answer:::: D.
4. A compound of Xe and F is found to have 53.5% of Xe. What is the oxidation number of Xe in this compound?
A. -4
B. 0
C. +4
D. +6
Answer:::: D.
5. A solution contains Fe2+, Fe3+ and I– ions. This solution was treated with iodine at 35oC. Eo for Fe3+/Fe2+ is 0.77V and Eo for I2/2I– = 0.536V. The favourable redox reaction is
A. I2 will be reduced to I–
B. there will be no redox reaction
C. I– will be oxidised to I2
D. Fe2+ will be oxidised to Fe3+
Answer:::: C.
6. One mole of N2H4 loses 10 moles of electrons to form a new compound y. Assuming that all nitrogen appears in the new compound, what is the oxidation state of nitrogen in y.
A. -1
B. -3
C. +3
D. +5
Answer:::: C.
7. The equivalent mass of oxidising agent in the following reaction is
SO2 + 2H2S → 3S + 2H2O
A. 32
B. 64
C. 16
D. 8
Answer:::: C.
8. In the reaction
3Br2 + 6CO32- + 3H2O → 5Br– + BrO3– + 6HCO3–
A. bromine is oxidised and carbonate is reduced
B. bromine is reduced and water is oxidised
C. bromine is neither reduced nor oxidised
D. bromine is both reduced and oxidised
Answer:::: D.
9. Which of the following cannot function as an oxidising agent?
A. I–
B. Si(s)
C. NO3–(aq)
D. Cr2O72-
Answer:::: A.
10. The oxidation number of Pt in [Pt(C2H4)Cl3]– is
A. +1
B. +2
C. +3
D. +4
Answer:::: B.
MCQs on Oxidation Number and Oxidation State
1. Number of moles of K2Cr2O7 reduced by 1 mole of Sn2+ is
A. 1/6
B. 1/3
C. 2/3
D. 1
Answer:::: B.
2. The oxidation number of carbon in CH2Cl2 is
A. 0
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
Answer:::: A.
3. Which of the following will not be oxidised by O3?
A. KI
B. FeSO4
C. KMnO4
D. K2MnO4
Answer:::: C.
4. The oxidation state of chromium in the final product formed by the reaction between KI and acidified potassium dichromate solution is
A. +4
B. +6
C. +2
D. +3
Answer:::: D.
5. What products are expected from the disproportionation reaction of hypochlorous acid?
A. HCl and Cl2O
B. HCl and HClO3
C. HClO3 and Cl2O
D. HClO2 and HClO4
Answer:::: B.
6. Which of the following elements does not show disproportionation tendency?
A. Cl
B. Br
C. F
D. I
Answer:::: C.
7. What is the oxidation number of chlorine in HClO4?
A. +3
B. +5
C. +7
D. +8
Answer:::: C.
8. The oxidation state of each Cl in CaOCl2 is
A. 0
B. +1
C. -1
D. +1, -1
Answer:::: D.
9. The products formed when an aqueous solution of NaBr is electrolysed in a cell having inert electrodes are
A. Na and Br2
B. Na and O2
C. H2, Br2, NaOH
D. H2 and O2
Answer:::: C.
10. Number of moles of MnO4– required to oxidise one mole of ferrous oxalate completely in the acidic medium will be
A. 7.5 moles
B. 0.2 moles
C. 0.6 moles
D. 0.4 moles
Answer:::: C.
MCQs on Oxidizing and Reducing Agent
1. Oxygen can be converted into ozone by
A. oxidation at high temperature
B. catalytic oxidation
C. oxidation under high pressure and temperature
D. silent electric discharge
Answer:::: D.
2 Which of the following statements is not correct?
A. oxygen is neutral to litmus
B. oxygen is not combustible
C. oxygen supports combustion
D. oxygen is a powerful oxidising agent
Answer:::: B.
3. The violet colour of acidified KMnO4 is decolourised by H2O2. In this reaction H2O2 acts as an
A. oxidising agent
B. reducing agent
C. oxidising as well as reducing agent
D. none of the above
Answer:::: B.
4. Hydrogen peroxide is used as an
A. oxidising agent
B. reducing agent
C. bleaching agent
D. all are correct
Answer:::: D.
5. The oxides of which of the following are neutral in nature?
A. hydrogen
B. halogens
C. alkali metals
D. all the above
Answer:::: A.
6. Oxidation is also referred to as
A. combustion only
B. respiration only
C. transpiration
D. combustion and respiration
Answer:::: D.
7. Why potassium iodide (KI) is a potent reducing agent?
A. iodide is oxidised to iodine
B. iodine is reduced to iodide ion
C. iodide ion is reduced to iodine
D. iodine is oxidized to iodide ion
Answer:::: A.
8. Oxidising agents do not include
A. potassium iodide
B. potassium manganate
C. potassium dichromate
D. bromine solutions
Answer:::: A.
9. Hydrogen acts as a reducing agent, by
A. taking oxygen only
B. giving electron only
C. taking hydrogen
D. taking oxygen and giving electrons
Answer:::: D.
10. In the copper oxide (CuO) and carbon monoxide (CO) reaction, the reducing agent is
A. CuO
B. CO
C. Cu
D. CO2
Answer:::: B.
MCQs on Oxidation Reduction
1. The total of the oxidation number in an element is
A. charge
B. volatility
C. reduction
D. oxidation
Answer:::: A.
2. The reduction is a gain of
A. electrons
B. protons
C. neutros
D. oxygen
Answer:::: A.
3. Which of the following is not a reducing agent?
A. CO2
B. SO2
C. NO2
D. ClO2
Answer:::: A.
4. A number which is assigned to each atom or ion in a compound which explains its degree of oxidation is called
A. oxidation state only
B. oxidation number
C. oxidation degree only
D. oxidation state and number
Answer:::: D.
5. The gain of oxygen is known as
A. oxidation
B. reduction
C. halogenation
D. chlorination
Answer:::: A.
6. Which of the following undergoes a maximum change in its oxidation number, when a mixture of oxalic acid, potassium chlorate and sulphuric acid is heated?
A. S
B. Cl
C. H
D. C
Answer:::: B.
7. The oxidation number for oxygen will always be
A. 2
B. -2
C. 1
D. -1
Answer:::: B.
8. The reduction is the decrease in
A. oxidation number
B. charge
C. solubility
D. none of the above
Answer:::: A.
9. The reaction in which oxidation and reduction takes place at the same time is called
A. redox reaction
B. oxidation reaction
C. reduction reaction
D. none of the above
Answer:::: A.
10. Hydrogen (H2) is used for making
A. margarine only
B. ammonia only
C. salts
D. margarine and ammonia
Answer:::: D.
MCQs on Free Energy and Work Function
1. If the standard free energy change for a reaction is 1.546 kJ/mol at 500oC then the value of the standard equilibrium constant for the reaction is
A. antilog (0.105)
B. antilog (-0.105)
C. antilog (0.241)
D. antilog (-0.241)
Answer:::: B.
2. The standard free energy of formation of NO(g) is
A. 84.8 kJ/mol
B. 86.8 kJ/mol
C. 88.8 kJ/mol
D. 90.8 kJ/mol
Answer:::: B.
3. The term R ln KPo is equal to
A. – ∆G
B. – ∆Go
C. – ∆G/T
D. – ∆Go/T
Answer:::: D.
4. If one gram of kerosene liberates 46.0 kJ of heat when it is burned, to what temperature can 0.25g of kerosene raise the temperature of 75 cm3 of water at 25oC?
A. 61.6oC
B. 46.0oC
C. 66.1oC
D. 64.0oC
Answer:::: A.
5. Which of the following statements regarding entropy is not true?
A. S (monoclinic) > S (rhombic)
B. C (diamond) > C (graphite)
C. H2O(g) > H2O(l)
D. O3(g) > O2(g)
Answer:::: B.
6. Which of the following is expressed to have the largest bond dissociation enthalpy?
A. HF
B. HCl
C. HBr
D. HI
Answer:::: A.
7. During an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas which of the following is true for the gas?
A. enthalpy decreases
B. entropy decreases
C. enthalpy remains constant
D. entropy remains constant
Answer:::: C.
8. For a spontaneous process, the change in Gibbs function is equal to the
A. the heat content of the system
B. entropy change of the system
C. work of expansion
D. useful work
Answer:::: D.
9. Which of the following is an extensive property?
A. surface area
B. pressure
C. molar volume
D. concentration
Answer:::: A.
10. Which of the following is a state function?
A. q
B. w
C. qrev/T
D. qw
Answer:::: C.
MCQs on Bond Energy
1. Which bond is most polar?
A. N-F
B. C-O
C. O-F
D. C-F
Answer:::: D.
2. On the basis of octet rule, which bond is not present in gaseous nitrogen pentoxide molecule?
A. covalent bonds
B. coordinate bond
C. electrovalent bond
D. both electrovalent and coordinate bonds
Answer:::: C.
3. Back pi donation exist in
A. NF3
B. NH3
C. BF3
D. BF4–
Answer:::: C.
4. What is correct about bond order?
A. it always has an integral value
B. it can have any value positive, integral or fraction including zero
C. it can have any value greater than zero
D. all the above statements are correct
Answer:::: B.
5. In which of the following molecules, the bond lengths around the central atom are not equal?
A. SF6
B. PF5
C. PCl3
D. BF3
Answer:::: B.
6. Which one among the following has the highest bond order according to MO theory?
A. BN
B. CO
C. F2
D. Ne2
Answer:::: B.
7. The weak forces between molecules are called
A. molecular forces
B. intermolecular forces
C. intramolecular forces
D. extramolecular forces
Answer:::: B.
8. Bond energy refers to the
A. energy required to make a mole of a compound
B. energy required to break a mole of a compound
C. energy required to carry out sublimation
D. none of the above
Answer:::: B.
9. In O-C-O the bond angle is
A. 180o
B. 87.5o
C. 120o
D. 109.5o
Answer:::: A.
10. The energy which is required to break 1 mole of a given bond is called
A. bond energy
B. molar energy
C. molar bond energy
D. bond breaking energy
Answer:::: A.
Organic compounds containing Nitrogen MCQs
1. Acetamide can be converted to methenamine by which of the following reactions?
A. Stephen’s reaction
B. Hoffmann bromamide reaction
C. Carbylamine reaction
D. Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
Answer:::: B.
2. An aldehyde on reaction with primary amine forms
A. ketone
B. Schiff’s base
C. aromatic acid
D. carboxylic acid
Answer:::: B.
3. Benzene-diazonium chloride on reaction with phenol in weakly basic medium gives
A. Diphenyl ether
B. p-hydroxyazobenzene
C. Chlorobenzene
D. Benzene
Answer:::: B.
4. Which one of the following does not contain the -COOH group?
A. Picric acid
B. Aspirin
C. Benzoic acid
D. Ethanoic acid
Answer:::: A.
5. C3H9N can have how many structural isomers?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer:::: C.
6. Products formed when Nitrobenzene reacts with HNO3/H2SO4 at 80-100°C
A. 1, 4-Dinitrobenzene
B. 1, 2, 4-Trinitrobenzene
C. 1, 2-Dinitrobenzene
D. 1, 3-Dinitrobenzene
Answer:::: D.
7. Benzene forms Nitrobenzene on reaction with conc. HNO3/H2SO4, in the reaction HNO3 acts as a
A. catalyst
B. reducing agent
C. base
D. acid
Answer:::: C.
8. The bad-smelling substance formed by the action of alcoholic caustic potash on chloroform and aniline is
A. Phenyl Isocyanide
B. Nitrobenzene
C. Chloropicrin
D. Acetylene
Answer:::: A.
9. Which of the following compound will form secondary amine on reaction with LiAlH4?
A. Methyl cyanide
B. Methyl isocyanide
C. Acetamide
D. Nitroethane
Answer:::: B.
10. Find the compound which is more basic than aniline
A. Diphenylamine
B. Triphenylamine
C. Benzylamine
D. p-Nitroaniline
Answer:::: C.
Polymers MCQs
1. 1. Nylon threads are made of
A. polyester polymer
B. polyamide polymer
C. polyethylene polymer
D. polyvinyl polymer
Answer:::: B.
2. Which of the following is a branched polymer?
A. low density polymer
B. polyester
C. high density polymer
D. nylon
Answer:::: A.
3. On the basis of mode of formation polymers can be classified:
A. as addition polymers only
B. as condensation polymers only
C. as copolymers
D. as addition and condensation polymers
Answer:::: D.
4. The process of heat softening, moulding and cooling to rigidness can be repeated for which plastics?
A. thermoplastics
B. thermosetting plastics
C. both A. and B.
D. neither A. nor B.
Answer:::: A.
5. The polymer used in making hair synthetic hair wigs is mage up of
A. CH2=CHCl
B. CH2=CHCOOCH3
C. C6H5CH=CH2
D. CH2=CH-CH=CH2
Answer:::: A.
6. Which of the following monomers form biodegradable polymers?
A. 3-hydroxybutanoic acid + 3-hydroxypentanoic acid
B. Glycine + amino caproic acid
C. ethylene glycol + phthalic acid
D. both a and b
Answer:::: D.
7. In addition polymer, monomer used is
A. unsaturated compounds
B. saturated compounds
C. bifunctional saturated compounds
D. trifunctional saturated compounds
Answer:::: A.
8. Polymer formation from monomer starts by
A. the condensation reaction between monomers
B. the coordinate reaction between monomers
C. conversion of monomer to monomer ions by protons
D. hydrolysis of monomers
Answer:::: A.
9. Which of the following statements is not correct for fibres?
A. Fibres possess high tensile strength and high modulus
B. Fibres impart crystalline nature
C. Characteristic features of fibres are due to strong intermolecular forces like hydrogen bonding
D. All are correct
Answer:::: D.
10. Which of the following does not undergo additional polymerization?
A. vinyl chloride
B. butadiene
C. styrene
D. all of the above undergoes addition polymerizations
Answer:::: D.
MCQs on Chemistry in Everyday Life
1. Chloramine-T is an
A. disinfectant
B. antiseptic
C. analgesic
D. antipyretic
Answer:::: A.
2. Benzalkonium chloride is a
A. cationic surfactant and antiseptic
B. anionic surfactant and soluble in most of the organic solvents
C. cationic surfactant and insoluble in most organic solvents.
D. cationic surfactant and antimalarial
Answer:::: A.
3. Interferon is connected with
A. tonic
B. virus
C. carbohydrate
D. ore of iron
Answer:::: B.
4. Ibuprofen contains
A. only S-enantiomer
B. only R-enantiomer
C. the racemic mixture of both R and S enantiomer
D. both R and S enantiomers are active pain killers
Answer:::: C.
5. Which of the following is a hypnotic drug?
A. luminal
B. salol
C. catechol
D. chemisol
Answer:::: A.
6. Detergents are prepared by the action of H2SO4 on which of the following?
A. cholesterol
B. Lauryl alcohol
C. Cyclohexanol
D. p-Nitrophenol
Answer:::: B.
7. Which of the following will not act as an antacid?
A. sodium hydrogen carbonate
B. magnesium hydroxide
C. sodium carbonate
D. aluminium carbonate
Answer:::: C.
8. The main cause of acidity in the stomach is
A. release of extra gastric acids which decrease the pH level
B. indigestion and pain in the large intestine
C. increase the pH level in the stomach
D. release of extra bile juice which increases alkaline medium in the stomach
Answer:::: A.
9. Chloramphenicol is
A. broad spectrum antibacterial
B. broad spectrum analgesic
C. broad spectrum antibiotic
D. narrow spectrum antibiotic
Answer:::: C.
10. One of the most widely used drugs in medicine iodex is
A. methyl salicylate
B. ethyl salicylate
C. acetyl salicylic acid
D. o-hydroxy benzoic acid
Answer:::: A.
MCQs on Hydrogen Bonding
1. Which one of the following is not an isotope of hydrogen?
A. Deuterium
B. Tritium
C. Ortho hydrogen
D. None of these
Answer:::: C.
2. Out of the two allotropic forms of dihydrogen, the form with lesser molecular energy is
A. ortho
B. meta
C. para
D. All have the same energy
Answer:::: C.
3. Non-stoichiometric hydrides are produced by
A. palladium, vanadium
B. manganese, lithium
C. nitrogen, fluorine
D. carbon, nickel
Answer:::: A.
4. The boiling point of water is exceptionally high because
A. there is a covalent bond between H and O
B. water molecule is linear
C. water molecules associate due to hydrogen bonding
D. water molecules are not linear
Answer:::: C.
5. Hydrogen can behave as a metal
A. at very high temperature
B. at very low temperature
C. at very high pressure
D. at very low pressure
Answer:::: C.
6. When two ice cubes are pressed over each other, they unite to form one cube. Which of the following forces is responsible to hold them together?
A. hydrogen bond formation
B. van der Waals forces
C. covalent attraction
D. ionic interaction
Answer:::: A.
7. Hydrogen will not reduce
A. heated cupric oxide
B. heated ferric oxide
C. heated stannic oxide
D. heated aluminium oxide
Answer:::: D.
8. Which is true about different forms of hydrogen?
A. ortho hydrogen has same spins of two nuclei clockwise or anticlockwise
B. Para hydrogen has different spins of two nuclei
C. At absolute zero temperature, there is a 100% para form and at high temperature, there is 75% ortho form
D. all are correct
Answer:::: D.
9. The reagent commonly used to determine hardness of water titrimetrically is
A. oxalic acid
B. sodium thiosulphate
C. sodium citrate
D. disodium salt of EDTA
Answer:::: D.
10. Metal which does not react with cold water but evolves H2 with steam is
A. Na
B. K
C. Pt
D. Mg
Answer:::: D.
MCQs on Surface Chemistry
1. Which one of the following is an example of adsorption?
A. ammonia in contact with water
B. anhydrous CaCl2 with water
C. silica gel in contact with water vapours
D. all of these
Answer:::: C.
2. At 15oC out of H2, CH4, CO2, NH3, which gas will be adsorbed maximum by charcoal?
A. H2
B. CH4
C. CO2
D. NH3
Answer:::: D.
3. Which of the following colloids are solvent hating?
A. lyophilic
B. lyophobic
C. hydrophilic
D. none of these
Answer:::: B.
4. If the dispersed phase is a liquid and the dispersion medium is solid, the colloid is known as
A. foam
B. sol
C. emulsion
D. gel
Answer:::: D.
5. The process of separating a crystalloid, from a colloid by filtration is called
A. emulsification
B. dialysis
C. coagulation
D. Peptization
Answer:::: B.
6. The movement of colloidal particles towards the oppositely charged electrodes on passing electric current is known as
A. Tyndall effect
B. Cataphoresis
C. Brownian movement
D. None of these
Answer:::: B.
7. An emulsifier is a substance which
A. stabilizes the emulsion
B. coagulates the emulsion
C. retards the dispersion of liquid in liquid
D. causes homogenesis of emulsion
Answer:::: A.
8. Homogeneous catalysis does mean
A. Reactants and goods have to be at the same level
B. Catalyst and reactants must be in the same phase
C. The reaction mixture must be formed homogeneously during
D. The reaction mixture distribution must be homogeneous
Answer:::: B.
9. Which of the following kinds of catalysis can be explained by the adsorption theory?
A. enzyme catalysis
B. homogeneous catalysis
C. acid base catalysis
D. heterogeneous catalysis
Answer:::: D.
10. The volume of gases H2, CH4, CO2 and NH3 adsorbed by 1 gm charcoal at 293 K can be given in the order?
A. CH4 > CO2 > NH3 > H2
B. CO2 > NH3 > H2 > CH4
C. NH3 > CO2 > H2 > CH4
D. NH3 > CO2 > CH4 > H2
Answer:::: D.
General principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements MCQs
1. In the equation,
4M + 8CN– + H2O + O2 → 4[M(CN)2]– + 4OH–, the metal M is
A. copper
B. iron
C. gold
D. Zinc
Answer:::: C.
2. Heating ore with carbon in the absence of air is known as:
A. reduction
B. carbon-reduction
C. smelting
D. Roasting
Answer:::: C.
3. In the extraction of copper from sulphide ore, the metal is formed by reduction of Cu2O with
A. FeS
B. CO
C. Cu2S
D. SO2
Answer:::: C.
4. The method of zone refining of metals is based upon the principle of
A. greater solubility of the impurity in molten state than in solid
B. greater mobility of pure metal than impurity
C. higher melting point of impurity than that of pure metal.
D. greater noble character of solid metal than that of the impurity
Answer:::: A.
5. Cassiterite is the ore of which metal?
A. Mn
B. Sb
C. Sn
D. Ni
Answer:::: C.
6. In electrorefining of copper some gold is produced as:
A. cathode mud
B. anode mud
C. cathode deposit
D. anode deposit
Answer:::: B.
7. In the electrolytic method of obtaining aluminium from purified bauxite, cryolite is added to the charge in order to:
A. lower the melting point of bauxite
B. dissolve bauxite and render it a conductor of electricity
C. protect aluminium produced from oxygen
D. minimise the heat loss due to radiation
Answer:::: B.
8. The purest form of iron is:
A. cast iron
B. pig iron
C. wrought iron
D. steel
Answer:::: C.
9. During the process of electrolytic refining of copper, some metals present as impurity settle as ‘anode mud’. These are:
A. Pb and Zn
B. Sn and Ag
C. Fe and Ni
D. Ag and Au
Answer:::: D.
10. Extraction of zinc from zinc blende is achieved by
A. electrolytic reduction
B. roasting followed by reduction with carbon
C. roasting followed by reduction with another metal
D. roasting followed by self-reduction
Answer:::: B.
MCQ on D and F Block Elements
1. The number of unpaired electrons in gaseous species of Mn3+, Cr3+ and V3+ respectively are:
A. 4, 4 and 2
B. 3, 3 and 2
C. 4, 3 and 2
D. 3, 3 and 3
Answer:::: C.
2. Gun metal is an alloy of:
A. Cu and Al
B. Cu and Sn
C. Cu, Zn and Sn
D. Cu, Zn and Ni
Answer:::: C.
3. Which one of the following elements shows the maximum number of different oxidation states in its compounds?
A. Eu
B. La
C. Cd
D. Am
Answer:::: D.
4. When potassium ferrocyanide crystals are heated with concentrated sulphuric acid, the gas evolved is
A. sulphur dioxide
B. ammonia
C. carbon monoxide
D. carbon dioxide
Answer:::: C.
5. Zinc and mercury do not show variable valency like d-block elements because
A. they are soft
B. their d-shells are complete
C. they have only two electrons in the outermost subshell.
D. their d-shells are incomplete
Answer:::: B.
6. Which of the following products are obtained when Na2CO3 is added to a solution of copper sulphate?
A. Basic copper carbonate , sodium sulphate and CO2
B. Copper hydroxide, sodium sulphate and CO2
C. Copper carbonate, sodium sulphate and CO2
D. Copper carbonate and sodium sulphate
Answer:::: D.
7. The pair that has similar atomic radii is
A. Mn and Re
B. Ti and Hf
C. Sc and Ni
D. Mo and W
Answer:::: D.
8. Silver nitrate produces a black stain on the skin due to
A. being a strong reducing agent
B. its corrosive action
C. formation of complex compound
D. its reduction to metallic silver
Answer:::: D.
9. According to IUPAC nomenclature sodium nitroprusside dihydrate is named as
A. Sodium pentacyanonitrosylferrate (III)
B. Sodium nitroferrocyanide
C. Sodium nitroferricyanide
D. Sodium pentacyanonitrosylferrate (II)
Answer:::: A.
10. In Fe(CO)5, the Fe-C bond possesses:
A. ionic character
B. sigma character only
C. pi character
D. both sigma and pi characters
Answer: D.
Coordination Compounds MCQ
1. When 0.1 mol CoCl3(NH3)5 is combined with excess AgNO3, then 0.2 mol AgCl is obtained. The conductivity of the solution suits the
A. 1:3 electrolyte
B. 1:1 electrolyte
C. 3:1 electrolyte
D. 1:2 electrolyte
Answer:::: D.
2. A chelating agent has two or more than two donor atoms to bind to a single metal ion. Which of the following is not a chelating agent?
A. Thiosulphato
B. Oxalato
C. Glycinato
D. Ethane-1,2-diamine
Answer:::: A.
3. IUPAC name of [Pt(NH3)2Cl(NO2)] is
A. Platinum diamminechloronitrite
B. Chloronitrito-N-ammineplatinum (II)
C. Diamminechloridonitrito-N-platinum (II)
D. Diamminechloronitrito-N-plantinate (II)
Answer:::: C.
4. In the complex [E(en)2(C2O4)]NO2 (where (en) is ethylenediamine) _______are the coordination number and the oxidation state of the element ‘E’ respectively.
A. 6 and 2
B. 2 and 2
C. 4 and 3
D. 6 and 3
Answer:::: D.
5. The sum of coordination number and oxidation number of the metal M in the complex [M(en)2(C2O4)]Cl (where (en) is ethylenediamine) is
A. 9
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
Answer:::: A.
6. Some salts containing two different metallic elements give test for only one of them in solution, such salts are
A. double salts
B. normal salts
C. complex salts
D. None of these
Answer:::: C.
7. An example of a sigma bonded organometallic compound is
A. Grignard reagent
B. Ferrocene
C. Cobaltocene
D. Ruthenocene
Answer:::: A.
8. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is
A. Tetranuclear
B. Mononuclear
C. Dinuclear
D. Trinuclear
Answer:::: B.
9. The type of isomerism shown by the complex [CoCl2(en)2] is
A. Geometrical isomerism
B. Coordination isomerism
C. Linkage isomerism
D. Ionization isomerism
Answer:::: A.
10. Which of the following elements do not form a complex with EDTA?
A. Ca
B. Mg
C. Be
D. Sr
Answer:::: C.
Haloalkanes and Haloarenes MCQ’s
1. The reaction of tert butyl bromide with sodium methoxide produces mainly
A. isobutane
B. isobutylene
C. tert-butyl methyl ether
D. sodium tert butoxide
Answer:::: B.
Solution:
When the reaction of tert butyl bromide occurs with sodium methoxide, an elimination takes place. This is the E1cB elimination, wherein the Hoffman alkene is major. Then dehydro halogenation takes place. Subsequently, rather than an ether, which is typically the case, an alkene is obtained. This is why, isobutylene is formed.
2. Which of the following undergoes nucleophilic substitution exclusively by SN1 mechanism?
A. Benzyl Chloride
B. Ethyl chloride
C. Chlorobenzene
D. Isopropyl chloride
Answer:::: A.
3. The increasing order of nucleophilicity would be?
A. Cl– < Br– < I–
B. I– < Cl– < Br–
C. Br– < Cl– < F–
D. I– < Br– < Cl–
Answer:::: A.
4. Which of the following is most reactive towards SN1 reaction?
A. C6H5C(CH3)C6H5Br
B. C8H5CH2Br
C. C6H5CH(C6H5)Br
D. C6H5CH(CH3)Br
Answer:::: A.
5. CH3CH2CH2Br + NaCN → CH3CH2CH2CN + NaBr, will be fastest in
A. ethanol
B. methanol
C. N, N-dimethylformamide
D. Water
Answer:::: C.
6. A Grignard reagent may be made by reacting magnesium with
A. Methyl amine
B. Diethyl ether
C. Ethyl iodide
D. Ethyl alcohol
Answer:::: C.
7. C-Cl bond of chlorobenzene in comparison to C-Cl bond in methyl chloride is
A. Longer and weaker
B. Shorter and weaker
C. Shorter and stronger
D. Longer and stronger
Answer:::: C.
8. A solution of (+) 2-chloro-2-phenylethane in toluene racemises slowly in the presence of a small amount of SbCl5, due to the formation of
A. carbanion
B. carbene
C. free radical
D. carbocation
Answer:::: D.
9. The decreasing order of boiling points of alkyl halides is
A. RF > RCl > RBr > RI
B. RBr > RCl > RCl > RF
C. RI > RBr > RCl > RF
D. RCl > RF > RI > RBr
Answer:::: C.
10. Phosgene is commonly known as
A. thionyl chloride
B. carbonyl chloride
C. carbon dioxide and phosphine
D. phosphoryl chloride
Answer:::: B.
MCQ on Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers
1. Benzenediazonium chloride on reaction with phenol in weakly basic medium gives
A. diphenyl ether
B. p-hydroxyazobenzene
C. chlorobenzene
D. Benzene
Answer:::: B.
2. Phenol reacts with bromine in CS2 at low temperature to give
A. m-bromophenol
B. o-and p-bromophenol
C. p-bromophenol
D. 2,4,6-tribromophenol
Answer:::: B.
3. When phenol is treated with excess bromine water it gives
A. m-bromophenol
B. o- and p-bromophenol
C. 2,4-dibromophenol
D. 2,4,6-tribromophenol
Answer:::: D.
4. Phenol on reduction with H2 in the presence of Ni catalyst gives
A. benzene
B. toluene
C. cyclohexane
D. Cyclohexanol
Answer:::: D.
5. Dehydration of alcohol is an example of
A. addition reaction
B. elimination reaction
C. substitution reaction
D. redox reaction
Answer:::: B.
6. The compound obtained by the reaction of ethene with diborane followed by hydrolysis with alkaline H2O2 is
A. ethanol
B. propanol
C. ethanol
D. triethyl bromide
Answer:::: A.
7. Which of the following is formed when phenol is exposed to air?
A. o-Benzoquinone
B. p-Benzoquinone
C. Phenoquinone
D. o-and p-Benzoquinone
Answer:::: D.
8. Which of the following is formed when glycerol is heated with oxalic acid at 503K?
A. Glyceric acid
B. Acrolein
C. Allyl alcohol
D. Methanoic acid
Answer:::: C.
9. The alcohol which does not react with Lucas reagent is
A. isobutyl alcohol
B. n-butanol
C. tert-butyl alcohol
D. sec-butyl alcohol
Answer:::: B.
10. Phenol is less acidic than
A. acetic acid
B. p-methoxyphenol
C. p-nitrophenol
D. Ethanol
Answer:::: (a,c)
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids MCQs
1. A mixture of benzaldehyde and formaldehyde on heating with aqueous NaOH solution gives
A. benzyl alcohol + sodium formate
B. sodium benzoate + methanol
C. benzyl alcohol + methanol
D. sodium benzoate + sodium formate
Answer:::: A.
2. Which of the following has the most acidic hydrogen?
A. hexane-2,4-dione
B. hexane-2,3-dione
C. hexane-2,5-dione
D. hexane-3-one
Answer:::: A.
3. A new C-C bond formation is possible in
A. cannizzaro reaction
B. friedel crafts reaction
C. clemmensen reduction
D. reimer tiemann reaction
Answer:::: (b,d)
4. Under Wolff-Kishner reduction conditions, the conversions which may be brought about are
A. cyclohexanone into cyclohexane
B. benzaldehyde into benzyl alcohol
C. cyclohexanone into cyclohexanol
D. benzophenone into diphenylmethane
Answer:::: (a,d)
5. The formation of cyanohydrin from a ketone is an example of
A. electrophilic addition
B. nucleophilic addition
C. nucleophilic substitution
D. electrophilic substitution
Answer:::: B.
6. Benzoic acid reacts with conc.HNO3 and conc.H2SO4 to give
A. o-nitrobenzoic acid
B. p-nitrobenzoic acid
C. m-nitrobenzoic acid
D. o,p-dinitrobenzoic acid
Answer:::: C.
7. An inorganic compound producing an organic compound on heating is
A. ammonium cyanate
B. soda lime
C. sodamide
D. potassium cyanide
Answer:::: A.
8. The reaction of ethyl formate with an excess of CH3MgI followed by hydrolysis gives
A. ethanol
B. n-propyl alcohol
C. propanal
D. isopropyl alcohol
Answer:::: D.
9. Formic acid and acetic acid are distinguished by reaction with
A. sodium ethoxide
B. sodium
C. HgCl2
D. 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine
Answer:::: C.
10. Heating a mixture of sodium benzoate and soda lime gives
A. calcium benzoate
B. benzene
C. sodium benzoate
D. methane
Answer:::: B.
MCQs on Solid State
1. How many unit cells are divided equally in a face-centred cubic lattice?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer:::: C.
2. A crystalline solid:
A. changes abruptly from solid to liquid when heated.
B. has no definite melting point.
C. undergoes deformation of its geometry easily
D. has irregular 3-dimensional arrangements.
Answer:::: A.
3. In a simple cubic, body-centred cubic and face-centred cubic structure, the ratio of the number of atoms present is respectively
A. 8:1:6
B. 1:2:4
C. 4:2:1
D. 4:2:3
Answer:::: B.
4. Na and Mg crystallize in crystals of bcc and fcc form respectively and then the amount of Na and Mg atoms present in their respective crystal unit cells is:
A. 4 and 2
B. 9 and 14
C. 14 and 9
D. 2 and 4
Answer:::: D.
5. Ferrous oxide has a cubic structure and each unit cell edge is 5.0Ao. Assuming the oxide density is 4.0g / cm3, the amount of Fe2+ and O2- ions in each unit cell will then be
A. four Fe2+ and four O2-
B. two Fe2+ and four O2-
C. four Fe2+ and two O2-
D. three Fe2+ and three O2-
Answer:::: A.
6. Each of the following solids shows the Frenkel defect except
A. ZnS
B. AgBr
C. AgI
D. KCl
Answer:::: D.
7. Schottky defect in a crystal is observed when
A. The ion leaves its normal position and occupies an interstitial location
B. the unequal number of cation and anions are missing from the lattice
C. the density of the crystal increases.
D. an equal number of cations and anions are missing from the lattice.
Answer:::: D.
8. Copper crystalline in FCC with a unit cell length of 361pm. What is the radius of a copper atom?
A. 128pm
B. 157pm
C. 181pm
D. 108pm
Answer:::: A.
9. The total no of voids in 0.5 mol of a compound forming hexagonal close-packed structure are:
A. 6.022 × 1023
B. 3.011 × 1023
C. 9.033 × 1023
D. 4.516 × 1023
Answer:::: C.
10. For the orthorhombic system, axial ratios are a ≠ b ≠ c and the axial angles are:
A. α = β = γ ≠ 90o
B. α ≠ β ≠ γ ≠ 90o
C. α = β = γ = 90o
D. α ≠ β ≠ γ = 90o
Answer:::: C.
MCQs on Solutions Chemistry
1. The mole fraction of the solute in one molal aqueous solution is
A. 0.009
B. 0.018
C. 0.027
D. 0.036
Answer:::: B.
2. 5 cm3 of acetone is added to 100 cm3 of water, the vapour pressure of water over the solution will be
A. equal to the vapour pressure of pure water.
B. less than the vapour pressure of pure water.
C. greater than the vapour pressure of pure water.
D. very large.
Answer:::: B.
3. The density of a solution prepared by dissolving 129g of urea in 1000g of water is 1.15g/ml. The molarity of this solution is
A. 1.78M
B. 1.02M
C. 2.05M
D. 0.50M
Answer:::: C.
4. If at a certain temperature the vapour pressure of pure water is 25 mm Hg and that of a very dilute aqueous urea solution is 24.5 mm Hg, the molality of the solution is:
A. 0.02
B. 1.2
C. 1.11
D. 0.08
Answer:::: C.
5. The relationship between osmotic pressure at 273K when 10g glucose (P1), 10g urea (P2) and 10g sucrose (P3) are dissolved in 250ml of water is
A. P1 > P2 > P3
B. P3 > P1 > P2
C. P2 > P1 > P3
D. P2 > P3 > P1
Answer:::: C.
6. Two liquids X and Y form an ideal solution. At 300K vapour pressure of the solution containing 1mol of X and 3 mol of Y is 550 mm Hg. At the same temperature, if 1 mol of Y is further added to this solution, the vapour pressure of the solution increases by 10 mm Hg. Vapour pressure of X and Y in the pure states will be respectively
A. 300 and 400
B. 400 and 600
C. 500 and 600
D. 200 and 300
Answer:::: B.
7. Mixing up equal volumes of 0.1M NaOH and 0.1M CH3COOH yields a solution which is
A. basic
B. acidic
C. neutral
D. None
Answer:::: A.
8. Equal volumes of 0.1M AgNO3 and 0.2M NaCl are mixed. The concentration of NO3– ions in the mixture will be
A. 0.1M
B. 0.05M
C. 0.2M
D. 0.15M
Answer:::: B.
9. Which of the following should be done in order to prepare 0.4M NaCl starting with 100ml of 0.3M NaCl?
A. add 5.85g of NaCl
B. and 20ml water
C. add 0.01 mol NaCl
D. evaporate 10ml of water
Answer:::: C.
10. The volume of 0.025M H3PO4 required to neutralise 25ml of 0.03M Ca(OH)2 is
A. 20ml
B. 25ml
C. 40ml
D. 50ml
Answer:::: A.
MCQs on Electrochemistry
1. The aqueous solution of which of the following compounds is the best conductor of electric current?
A. Acetic acid,
B. Hydrochloric acid
C. Ammonia
D. Fructose
Answer:::: B.
2. An increase in the conductivity equivalent of a solid electrolyte with dilution is primarily due to
A. increased ionic mobility of ions
B. 100 percent electrolyte ionisation with natural dilution
C. increase in both ion numbers and ionic mobility
D. A rise in ion counts
Answer:::: A.
3. The equivalent conductance of Ba2+ and Cl– are respectively 127 and 76 ohm-1 cm-1 eq-1 at infinite dilution. The equivalent conductance of BaCl2 at infinite dilution will be
A. 139.5
B. 203
C. 279
D. 101.5
Answer:::: A.
4. When heating one end of a metal plate, the other end gets hot because of
A. the resistance of the metal
B. mobility of atoms in the metal
C. energised electrons moving to the other end
D. minor perturbation in the energy of atoms.
Answer:::: C.
5. The weight of silver displaced by a quantity of electricity which displaces 5600ml of O2 at STP will be
A. 5.4g
B. 10.8g
C. 54.9g
D. 108.0g
Answer:::: D.
6. Once a current of 1.0 ampere was passed through one litre of CuCl2 solution for 16 min and 5 sec, all of the solution’s copper was deposited at the cathode. The strength of solution CuCl2 was (Molar mass of Cu = 63.5; Faraday constant = 96,500 C/mol)
A. 0.01N
B. 0.01M
C. 0.02M
D. 0.2N
Answer:::: A.
7. On electrolysis of dilute sulphuric acid using platinum electrodes, the product obtained at the anode will be
A. hydrogen
B. oxygen
C. hydrogen sulphide
D. sulphur dioxide
Answer:::: B.
8. A device that converts the energy of combustion of fields like hydrogen and methane directly into electrical energy is known as
A. Electrolytic cell
B. Dynamo
C. Ni-Cd cell
D. Fuel cell
Answer:::: D.
9. Which reaction is not feasible?
A. 2KO + Br2 → 2KBr + I2
B. 2KBr + I2 → 2KI + Br2
C. 2KBr + Cl2 → 2KCl + Br2
D. 2H2O + 2F2 → 4HF + O2
Answer:::: B.
10. Without losing its concentration ZnCl2 solution cannot be kept in contact with
A. Au
B. Al
C. Pb
D. Ag
Answer:::: B.
MCQs on Environmental Chemistry
1. Photochemical smog normally does not contain
A. Chlorofluorocarbons
B. Peroxyacetyl nitrate
C. Ozone
D. Acrolein
Answer:::: A.
2. Depletion of the ozone layer is caused due to
A. Ferrocene
B. Fullerenes
C. Freons
D. Polyhalogens
Answer:::: C.
3. Find the incorrect statement
A. BOD value of clean water is less than 5 ppm
B. Drinking water pH should be between 5.5-9.5
C. carbon, sulphur and nitrogen oxides are the most widespread air pollutants
D. dissolved oxygen concentration below 5 ppm is ideal for the growth of fish
Answer:::: D.
4. Find the secondary pollutant among these
A. PAN
B. N2O
C. SO2
D. CO2
Answer:::: A.
5. The reaction responsible for the radiant energy of the Sun is
A. nuclear fission
B. nuclear fusion
C. chemical reaction
D. combustion
Answer:::: B.
6. Alum’s capacity to purify water is due to
A. softens hard water
B. pathogenic bacteria get destroyed
C. impurities’ coagulation
D. it improves taste
Answer:::: C.
7. The coldest region of the atmosphere
A. Troposphere
B. Thermosphere
C. Stratosphere
D. Mesosphere
Answer:::: D.
8. Which of the oxide of nitrogen is not a common pollutant?
A. N2O5
B. N2O
C. NO
D. NO2
Answer:::: A.
9. The compound essential for the process of photosynthesis has this element
A. Ca
B. Ba
C. Fe
D. Mg
Answer:::: D.
10. In the air, N2 and O2 occur naturally but they do not react to form oxides of nitrogen because
A. oxides of nitrogen are unstable
B. catalyst is required for the reaction
C. the reaction is endothermic
D. N2 and O2 do not react with each other
Answer:::: C.
MCQs on Chemical Kinetics
1. The rate of a chemical reaction tells us about
A. the reactants taking part in the reaction
B. the products formed in the reaction
C. how slow or fast the reaction is taking place
D. none of the above
Answer:::: C.
2. In the rate equation, when the concentration of reactants is unity then the rate is equal to
A. specific rate constant
B. average rate constant
C. instantaneous rate constant
D. None of the above
Answer:::: A.
3. The average rate and instantaneous rate of a reaction are equal
A. at the start
B. at the end
C. in the middle
D. when two rates have a time interval equal to zero
Answer:::: D.
4. Which of the following observations is incorrect about the order of a reaction?
A. Order of a reaction is always a whole number
B. The stoichiometric coefficient of the reactants doesn’t affect the order
C. Order of reaction is the sum of power to express the rate of reaction to the concentration terms of the reactants.
D. Order can only be assessed experimentally
Answer:::: A.
5. The rate constant of zero-order reactions has the unit
A. s-1
B. mol L-1 s-1
C. L2 mol-2 s-1
D. L mol-1 s-1
Answer:::: B.
6. In the reaction 2A + B → A2B, if the concentration of A is doubled and that of B is halved, then the rate of the reaction will
A. increase 2 times
B. increase 4 times
C. decrease 2 times
D. remain the same
Answer:::: A.
7. when the rate of the reaction is equal to the rate constant, the order of the reaction is
A. zero order
B. first order
C. second order
D. third order
Answer:::: A.
8. A substance ‘A’ decomposes by a first-order reaction starting initially with [A] = 2.00M and after 200min, [A] becomes 0.15M. For this reaction t1/2 is
A. 53.72 min
B. 50.49 min
C. 48.45 min
D. 46.45 min
Answer:::: A.
9. In the Haber process for the manufacture of ammonia the following catalyst is used
A. Platinized asbestos
B. Iron with molybdenum as a promoter
C. Copper oxide
D. Alumina
Answer:::: B.
10. A catalyst alters, which of the following in a chemical reaction?
A. Entropy
B. Enthalpy
C. Internal energy
D. Activation energy
Answer:::: D.
MCQs on Organic Chemistry
1. Which is the best-suited method for the separation of para and ortho-nitrophenols from 1:1 mixture?
A. crystallisation
B. chromatography
C. sublimation
D. steam distillation
Answer:::: D.
2. Find the incorrect statement for a nucleophile
A. A nucleophile is a Lewis acid
B. Nucleophiles do not seek electron
C. Ammonia is a nucleophile
D. Nucleophiles attack low electron density sites
Answer:::: A.
3. Which among the following is the most deactivating meta-directing group in aromatic substitution reaction?
A. -COOH
B. -SO3H
C. -NO2
D. -CN
Answer:::: C.
4. Ammonia evolved from 0.75 g of the soil sample in the Kjeldahl’s method for nitrogen estimation, neutralises 10 ml of 1M H2SO4. Find the percentage of nitrogen present in the soil
A. 35.33
B. 37.33
C. 43.33
D. 45.33
Answer:::: B.
5. The correct order of increasing nucleophilicity is
A. Cl– < Br– < I–
B. Br– < Cl– < I–
C. I– < Br– < Cl–
D. I– < Cl– < Br–
Answer:::: A.
6. Homologous series of alkanols have a general formula
A. CnH2nO2
B. CnH2nO
C. CnH2n+1O
D. CnH2n+2O
Answer:::: D.
7. Find the compound which undergoes nucleophilic substitution reaction exclusively by an SN1 mechanism
A. Benzyl chloride
B. Chlorobenzene
C. Ethyl chloride
D. Isopropyl chloride
Answer:::: A.
8. Which of the following methods is best suited for the separation of a mixture containing naphthalene and benzoic acid
A. Crystallisation
B. Chromatography
C. Sublimation
D. Distillation
Answer:::: C.
9. How many structural isomers are possible if one hydrogen in diphenylmethane is replaced by chlorine?
A. 8
B. 4
C. 7
D. 6
Answer:::: B.
10. Why do we boil the extract with conc. HNO3 in Lassaigne’s test for halogens?
A. to increase the concentration of NO3– ions
B. to increase the solubility product of AgCl
C. it increases the precipitation of AgCl
D. for the decomposition of Na2S and NaCN formed
Answer:::: D.
MCQs on p-Block Elements
1. Find the amphoteric oxide
A. CaO2
B. CO2
C. SnO2
D. SiO2
Answer:::: C.
2. Graphite has a structural similarity with
A. B2H6
B. B4C
C. B
D. BN
Answer:::: D.
3. Which is the correct order of decreasing acidity of lewis acids?
A. BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3
B. BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3
C. BCl3 > BF3 > BBr3
D. BBr3 > BF3 > BCl3
Answer:::: A.
4. In the presence of KF, AlF3 is soluble in HF. Find the complex formed
A. K3[AlF6]
B. AlH3
C. K[AlF3H]
D. K3[AlF3H3]
Answer:::: A.
5. S-S bond is present in which of the ion pairs
A. S2O72-, S2O32-
B. S4O62-, S2O72-
C. S2O72-, S2O82-
D. S4O62-, S2O32-
Answer:::: D.
6. Which is the correct order of decreasing bond dissociation enthalpy?
A. F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
B. I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2
C. Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
D. Br2 > I2 > F2 > Cl2
Answer:::: C.
7. Oxygen is not released on heating which of the compounds?
A. (NH4)2Cr2O7
B. K2Cr2O7
C. Zn(ClO3)2
D. KClO3
Answer:::: A.
8. Which of the species has a permanent dipole moment?
A. SF4
B. SiF4
C. BF3
D. XeF4
Answer:::: A.
9. Which of the statement is incorrect for XeO4 ?
A. four p𝜋-d𝜋 bonds are present
B. four sp3 – p 𝜎 bonds are present
C. It has a tetrahedral shape
D. It has a square planar shape
Answer:::: D.
10. P4O10 has ______ bridging O atoms
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 2
Answer:::: C.
MCQs on States of Matter
1. A container with a pin-hole contains equal moles of H2(g) and O2(g). Find the fraction of oxygen gas escaped at the same time when one-fourth of hydrogen gas escapes
A. 1/16
B. 1/4
C. 1/2
D. 1/8
Answer:::: A.
2. What are the conditions for gas like Carbon monoxide to obey the ideal gas laws?
A. low temperature and low pressure
B. low temperature and high pressure
C. high temperature and low pressure
D. high temperature and high pressure
Answer:::: C.
3. If the temperature is doubled, the average velocity of a gaseous molecule increases by
A. 4
B. 1.4
C. 2
D. 2.8
Answer:::: B.
4. Find the molecular mass of a gas that takes three times more time to effuse as compared to He with the same volume
A. 9 u
B. 64 u
C. 27 u
D. 36 u
Answer:::: D.
5. At the same temperature, the average molar kinetic energy of N2 and CO is
A. KE1 > KE2
B. KE1 < KE2
C. KE1 = KE2
D. insufficient information given
Answer:::: C.
6. Find the temperature at which the rate of effusion of N2 is 1.625 times to that of SO2 at 500℃
A. 620℃
B. 173℃
C. 110℃
D. 373℃
Answer:::: A.
7. Find the change in the root mean square speed of the gas on raising the temperature from 27℃ to 927℃
https://cdn1.byjus.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/01/this-is-the-rendered-form-of-the-equation-you-can5.gif
A. becomes times
B. gets doubled
C. gets halved
D. remains same
Answer:::: B.
9. If 1.204 x 1021 molecules of H2SO4 are removed from 392 mg of H2SO4, find the moles of H2SO4 left.
A. 4 x 10-3
B. 1.5 x 10-3
C. 1.2 x 10-3
D. 2 x 10-3
Answer:::: D.
10. Find the fraction of the total pressure exerted by hydrogen if it is mixed with ethane in an empty container at 25℃
A. 15/16
B. 1/16
C. 1/2
D. 1
Answer:::: A.
MCQs on Redox Reaction
1. Which of the compounds can exist together?
A. HgCl2, SnCl2
B. FeCl3, KI
C. FeCl3, SnCl2
D. FeCl2, SnCl2
Answer:::: D.
2. One mole of ferrous oxalate requires____ moles of MnO4– to get oxidised completely in an acidic medium
A. 0.6 moles
B. 0.4 moles
C. 0.2 moles
D. 7.5 moles
Answer:::: B.
3. H2O2 changes Cr2O72- ion to CrO5 in an acidic medium, the oxidation state of Cr in CrO5 is
A. +6
B. +5
C. -10
D. +3
Answer:::: A.
4. H2SO4 acts as a strong oxidising agent. In which of the reaction, is it not acting as an oxidising agent?
A. C + 2H2SO4 → CO2 + 2SO2 + 2H2O
B. CaF2 + 2H2SO4 → CaSO4 + 2HF
C. S + 2H2SO4 → 3SO2 + H2O
D. Cu + 2H2SO4 → CuSO4 + SO2 + 2H2O
Answer:::: B.
5. During a reaction of oxalic acid, potassium chlorate and sulphuric acid, the oxidation number of which of the element undergoes a maximum change
A. H
B. S
C. C
D. Cl
Answer:::: D.
6. Find the redox reaction
A. In the atmosphere, O3 from O2 by lighting
B. The reaction of H2SO4 with NaOH
C. Both oxidation and reduction reaction
D. Evaporation of water
Answer:::: C.
7. Find the oxidation state of I in H4IO6–
A. +7
B. +5
C. +1
D. -1
Answer:::: A.
8. In which of the following complex, the oxidation number of Fe is +1?
A. Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
B. [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4
C. [FeBr4]–
D. [Fe(H2O)6]2-
Answer:::: B.
9. Which among the following compounds is the most reducing compound?
A. H2S
B. HNO2
C. SnCl2
D. H2SO3
Answer:::: A.
10. Which among the following is the strongest oxidising agent?
A. H2O2
B. O3
C. K2Cr2O7
D. KMnO4
Answer:::: B.
MCQs on Chemical Equilibrium
1. Find the pH of a solution when 0.01 M HCl and 0.1 M NaOH are mixed in equal volumes
A. 12.65
B. 1.04
C. 7.0
D. 2.0
Answer:::: A.
2. Which of the following aqueous solution will be the best conductor of electricity?
A. NH3
B. CH3COOH
C. HCl
D. C6H12O6
Answer:::: C.
3. In 0.10 M aqueous solution of pyridine (C5H5N), find the percentage of pyridine that forms pyridinium ion (C5H5N+H) (Kb for C5H5N = 1.7 x 10-9 )
A. 1.6%
B. 0.77%
C. 0.0060%
D. 0.013%
Answer:::: D.
5. Highest pH will be recorded for which of the following solutions if they are equimolar
A. AlCl3
B. BaCl2
C. BeCl2
D. LiCl
Answer:::: B.
7. What will be the pH of a buffer solution having an equal concentration of B– and HB (Kb = 10-10 for B–)
A. 7
B. 4
C. 10
D. 6
Answer:::: B.
8. Find the increase in equilibrium concentration of Fe3+ ions if OH– ions concentration decreases to 1/4th in the following reaction
https://cdn1.byjus.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/01/this-is-the-rendered-form-of-the-equation-you-can16.gif
A. 8 times
B. 16 times
C. 4 times
D. 64 times
Answer:::: D.
9. On increasing the concentration of reactants in a reversible reaction, then equilibrium constant will
A. depend on the concentration
B. increase
C. unchanged
D. decrease
Answer:::: C.
10. Find the conjugate acid of NH2–
A. NH3
B. NH4OH
C. NH4+
D. NH2–
Answer:::: A.
MCQs on Thermodynamics
1. What will be the value of ΔH, if the forward and reverse reactions have the same energy of activation?
A. ΔH = ΔG = ΔS = 0
B. ΔS = 0
C. ΔG = 0
D. ΔH = 0
Answer:::: D.
4. What is the molar entropy change for melting of ice at 0℃, if ΔHf = 1.435 kcal/mol?
A. 0.526 cal/(mol K)
B. 5.26 cal/(mol K)
C. 10.52 cal/(mol K)
D. 21.04 cal/(mol K)
Answer:::: B.
5. What is the function of a catalyst in a chemical reaction?
A. decrease rate constant of reaction
B. increases activation energy of reaction
C. reduces enthalpy of reaction
D. does not affect the equilibrium constant of reaction
Answer:::: D.
6. What will be the work done by 3 moles of an ideal gas when it expands spontaneously in a vacuum?
A. zero
B. infinite
C. 3 joules
D. 9 joules
Answer:::: A.
7. Find the temperature at which the below reaction will be in equilibrium if the enthalpy and entropy change for the reaction is 30 kJ mol-1 and 105 J K-1 mol-1 respectively
Br2(l) + Cl2(g) → 2BrCl(g)
A. 273 K
B. 300 K
C. 450 K
D. 285.7 K
Answer:::: D.
8. Which is true for the entropy of a spontaneous reaction?
A. ΔS(system) – ΔS(surroundings) > 0
B. ΔS(system) + ΔS(surroundings) > 0
C. ΔS(surroundings) > 0 only
D. ΔS(system) > 0 only
Answer:::: B.
9. An ideal gas is expanded isothermally at 300 K from 1 litre to 10 litres. Find the ΔE for this process (R = 2 cal mol-1 K-1)
A. 9 L atm
B. 1381.1 cal
C. zero
D. 163.7 cal
Answer:::: C.
10. ΔH for the reaction N2 + 3H2 ⇋ 2NH3
A. ΔE – 2RT
B. ΔE + 2RT
C. ΔE – RT
D. ΔH = RT
Answer:::: A.
MCQs on Periodic Classification of Elements
1. Find the successive elements of the periodic table with ionisation energies, 2372, 520 and 890 kJ per mol respectively
A. Li, Be, B
B. H, He, Li
C. B, C, N
D. He, Li, Be
Answer:::: D.
2. In the modern periodic table, the number of period of the element is the same as
A. principal quantum number
B. atomic number
C. azimuthal quantum number
D. atomic mass
Answer:::: A.
3. The correct order for the size of I, I+, I– is
A. I > I– > I+
B. I > I+ > I–
C. I– > I > I+
D. I+ > I– > I
Answer:::: C.
4. For the same value of n, the penetration power of orbital follows the order
A. s = p = d = f
B. p > s > d > f
C. f < d < p < s
D. s < p < d < f
Answer:::: C.
5. Which of the reactions will need the maximum amount of energy?
A. Na → Na+ + e–
B. Ca+ → Ca++ + e–
C. K+ → K+ ++ e–
D. C2+ → C3+ + e–
Answer:::: C.
6. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. I.E.1 of O is lower than that of N but I.E.2 O is higher than that of N
B. The enthalpy of N to gain an electron is almost zero but of P is 74.3 kJ mol-1
C. isoelectronic ions belong to the same period
D. The covalent radius of iodine is less than its Van der Waal’s radius
Answer:::: C.
7. The correct order of electronegativity is
A. Cl > F > O > Br
B. F > O > Cl > Br
C. F > Cl > Br > O
D. O > F > Cl > Br
Answer:::: B.
8. Two different beakers contain M1-O-H, and M2-O-H solutions separately. Find the nature of the two solutions if the electronegativity of M1 = 3.4, M2 = 1.2, O = 3.5, H = 2.1
A. acidic, acidic
B. basic, acidic
C. basic, basic
D. acidic, basic
Answer:::: D.
9. Which one is the most acidic among these?
A. MgO
B. CaO
C. Al2O3
D. Na2O
Answer:::: C.
10. Which one will have the highest 2nd ionisation energy?
A. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1
B. 1s2 2s2 2p4
C. 1s2 2s2 2p6
D. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
Answer:::: A.
MCQs on s-Block Elements
Alkali metals: H, Li, Na, K, Rb, Cs, Fr
Alkaline earth metals: Be, Mg, Ca, Sr, Ba, Ra
1. Which of the compounds is known as Slaked lime?
A. CaO
B. CaSO4
C. Ca(OH)2
D. CaCO3
Answer:::: C.
2. Which of the ions have maximum hydration energy?
A. Sr2+
B. Ca2+
C. Mg2+
D. Be2+
Answer:::: D.
3. As compared to K, Na has
A. higher ionization potential
B. lower melting point
C. lower electronegativity
D. larger atomic radius
Answer:::: A.
4. Which one is the most stable carbonate?
A. BaCO3
B. MgCO3
C. CaCO3
D. BeCO3
Answer:::: A.
5. Plaster of Paris (POP) is
A. CaSO4 H2O
B. CaSO4 2H2O
C. CaSO4
D. CaSO4 1/2H2O
Answer:::: D.
6. Which oxide is amphoteric?
A. BaO
B. CaO
C. BeO
D. MgO
Answer:::: C.
7. Be shows the diagonal relationship with
A. Na
B. Al
C. Mg
D. B
Answer:::: B.
8. The tendency to lose their valance electron easily by alkali metals makes them
A. strong reducing agent
B. weak reducing agent
C. strong oxidising agent
D. weak oxidising agent
Answer:::: A.
9. Which one is known as a fusion mixture?
A. Na2CO3 + NaHCO3
B. Na2CO3 + NaOH
C. Na2CO3 + K2SO4
D. Na2CO3 + K2CO3
Answer:::: D.
10. Find the incorrect trend for alkaline earth metals
A. atomic size Be < Mg < Ca < Sr
B. second ionization energy Be < Mg < Ca < Sr
C. Hydration enthalpy Sr < Ca < Mg < Be
D. Density Ca < Mg < Be < Sr
Answer:::: B.
MCQs on Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
1. C-O bond length is minimum in
A. CO2
B. CO32-
C. HCOO–
D. CO
Answer:::: D.
2. Molecules are held together in a crystal by
A. hydrogen bond
B. electrostatic attraction
C. Van der Waal’s attraction
D. dipole-dipole attraction
Answer:::: C.
3. Sp3d2 hybridization is present in [Co(NH3)63+], find its geometry
A. octahedral geometry
B. square planar geometry
C. tetragonal geometry
D. tetrahedral geometry
Answer:::: A.
4. Find the molecule with the maximum dipole moment
A. CH4
B. NH3
C. CO2
D. NF3
Answer:::: B.
5. MX6 is a molecule with octahedral geometry. How many X – M – X bonds are at 180°?
A. four
B. two
C. three
D. six
Answer:::: C.
6. Find the pair with sp2 hybridisation of the central molecule
A. NH3 and NO2–
B. BF3 and NH2–
C. BF3 and NO2–
D. NH2– and H2O
Answer:::: C.
7. The formal charge and P-O bond order in PO43- respectively are
A. 0.6, -0.75
B. -0.75, 1.25
C. 1.0, -0.75
D. 1.25, -3
Answer:::: B.
8. Which of the molecules does not have a permanent dipole moment?
A. SO3
B. SO2
C. H2S
D. CS2
Answer:::: D.
9. pℼ – dℼ bonding is present in which molecule
A. SO32-
B. CO32-
C. NO3–
D. BO33-
Answer:::: A.
10. Which one has a pyramidal shape?
A. SO3
B. PCl3
C. CO32-
D. NO3–
Answer:::: B.
MCQs on Structure of Atom
1. How many orbitals can have the following set of quantum numbers, n = 3, l = 1, m1 = 0 ?
A. 3
B. 1
C. 4
D. 2
Answer:::: B.
2. Electronic configuration of the outer shell of the element Gd with atomic number 64 is
A. 4f4 5d5 6s1
B. 4f3 5d5 6s2
C. 4f5 5d4 6s1
D. 4f7 5d1 6s2
Answer:::: D.
3. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell can be
A. 4l + 2
B. 4l – 2
C. 2n2
D. 2l + 1
Answer:::: A.
4. The orientation of atomic orbitals depends on their
A. spin quantum number
B. magnetic quantum number
C. azimuthal quantum number
D. principal quantum number
Answer:::: B.
5. A gas X has Cp and Cv ratio as 1.4, at NTP 11.2 L of gas X will contain_______ number of atoms
A. 1.2 × 1023
B. 3.01 × 1023
C. 2.01 × 1023
D. 6.02 × 1023
Answer:::: D.
6. Number of unpaired electrons in N2+
A. 3
B. 1
C. 2
D. 0
Answer:::: B.
7. The excitation energy of a hydrogen atom from its ground state to its third excited state is
A. 12.75 eV
B. 0.85 eV
C. 10.2 eV
D. 12.1 eV
Answer:::: A.
8. 3p orbital has _____ radial nodes
A. three
B. two
C. one
D. none
Answer:::: C.
9. A 0.66 kg ball is moving with a speed of 100 m/s. Find its wavelength
A. 6.6 × 10-34 m
B. 6.6 × 10-32 m
C. 1.0 × 10-32 m
D. 1.0 × 10-35 m
Answer:::: D.
MCQs on Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
1. Elements X and Y combine to form two compounds XY and X2Y. Find the atomic weight of X and Y, if the weight of 0.1 moles of XY is 10g and 0.05 moles of X2Y is 9g
A. 30, 20
B. 80, 20
C. 60, 40
D. 20, 30
Answer:::: B.
2. Which one will have maximum numbers of water molecules?
A. 18 molecules of water
B. 1.8 grams of water
C. 18 grams of water
D. 18 moles of water
Answer:::: D.
3. The number of atoms present in 0.1 moles of a triatomic gas is
A. 1.806 × 1023
B. 1.806 × 1022
C. 3.600 × 1023
D. 6.026 × 1022
Answer:::: A.
4. Find the volume of O2 required to burn 1 L of propane completely, measured at 0℃ temperature and 1 atm pressure
A. 10 L
B. 7 L
C. 6 L
D. 5 L
Answer:::: D.
5. A gas X has Cp and Cv ratio as 1.4, at NTP 11.2 L of gas X will contain_______ number of atoms
A. 1.2 × 1023
B. 3.01 × 1023
C. 2.01 × 1023
D. 6.02 × 1023
Answer:::: D.
6. Which of the species is not paramagnetic?
A. As+
B. Cl–
C. Ne2+
D. Be+
Answer:::: B.
7. Pressure has the same dimension as ____________
A. energy per unit volume
B. energy
C. force per unit volume
D. force
Answer:::: A.
8. A container has an equal mass of H2, O2 and CH4 at 27℃, the ratio of their volume is
A. 16:8:1
B. 8:1:2
C. 16:1:2
D. 8:16:1
Answer:::: C.
9. There are two chlorides of sulphur S2Cl2 and SCl2. What is the equivalent mass of S in SCl2
A. 64.8 g/mole
B. 32 g/mole
C. 16 g/mole
D. 8 g/mole
Answer:::: C.
10. Boron exists as two stable isotopes; 10B(19%) and 11B(81%). Find out the average atomic weight of boron in the periodic table
A. 10.0
B. 11.2
C. 10.2
D. 10.8
Answer:::: D.
11. The mass of carbon-12 atom considered in the definition of a mole is
A. 0.12g
B. 0.012 kg
C. 120 mg
D. None of these
Answer:::: B.
12. Which of the following is a pair of physical and chemical property respectively of a substance
A. density and acidity
B. basicity and colour
C. colour and density
D. acidity and combustibility
Answer:::: A.
13. The normality of 0.3M phosphorous acid is
A. 0.9
B. 0.1
C. 0.6
D. 0.3
Answer:::: C.
14. 3g of an oxide of a metal is converted into chloride and it yielded 5g of chloride. Find the equivalent weight of the metal
A. 20
B. 12
C. 3.325
D. 33.25
Answer:::: D.
15. 0.32 gm of a metal on treatment with an acid gave 112mL of hydrogen at STP. Calculate the equivalent weight of the metal.
A. 24
B. 11.2
C. 32
D. 58
Answer:::: C.
16. Which of the following is not a homogenous mixture?
A. Brass
B. Air
C. Smoke
D. Aqueous solution of sugar
Answer:::: C.
MCQs on Hydrocarbons
3. The product obtained on heating 2-Bromopentane with potassium ethoxide in ethanol is
A. 1-pentene
B. 2-cis-pentene
C. trans-2-pentene
D. 2-ethoxy pentane
Answer:::: C.
4. Choose the process by which liquid hydrocarbons can be converted to gaseous hydrocarbons
A. hydrolysis
B. oxidation
C. cracking
D. distillation under reduced pressure
Answer:::: C.
5. Which one of the following halide can be used in the Friedel-Crafts reaction?
A. Isopropyl chloride
B. Bromobenzene
C. Chlorobenzene
D. Chloroethene
Answer:::: A.
6. Which one of the following compound forms salt on reaction with NaNH2?
A. C2H2
B. C2H6
C. C6H6
D. C2H4
Answer:::: A.
7. Which among the following reagent can be used to distinguish between CH2BrCH=CH2 from CH3CH=CHBr?
A. Br2/CCl4
B. cold KMnO4
C. AgNO3/C2H5OH
D. Ag(NH3)2OH
Answer:::: C.
8. Isopropyl iodide is formed after reaction of propene with HI, this is due to
A. more stable free radical
B. homolysis
C. more stable carbanion
D. more stable carbocation
Answer:::: D.
9. C6H5CHO is formed when C6H6 is treated with CO and HCl in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3. Name of the reaction is:
A. Friedel crafts reaction
B. Gattermann Koch reaction
C. Rosenmund reaction
D. Stephen reaction
Answer:::: B.
10. A compound having a bond angle 180° is
A. alkyne
B. alkane
C. alkene
D. cycloalkane
Answer:::: A.
MCQs on Molecular Orbital Theory
1. Which among the following has the shortest C-C bond length?
A. Ethene
B. Ethane
C. Benzene
D. Ethyne
Answer:::: D
2. The oxygen molecule is paramagnetic. It can be explained by
A. Resonance
B. Hybridisation
C. Valence bond theory
D. Molecular orbital theory
Answer:::: D
3. Find the paramagnetic species
A. CN–
B. NO+
C. CO
D. O2–
Answer:::: D
4. Find the diamagnetic species
A. H2
B. H2–
C. He2+
D. H2+
Answer:::: A
5. Which of the following pairs has the same bond order?
A. O2+, NO+
B. N2, O2
C. O22-, B2
D. NO, CO
Answer:::: C
6. Each P of P4O10 is attached to how many oxygen atoms?
A. 3
B. 2.5
C. 2
D. 4
Answer:::: D
7. When O2 changes to O2–, the electron goes to which of the orbitals?
A. 𝜋 orbital
B. 𝜎 orbital
C. 𝜋* orbital
D. 𝜎* orbital
Answer:::: C
8. O-O bond length is minimum in
A. O2–
B. O2
C. O2+
D. O22-
Answer:::: C
9. Which of the following is not paramagnetic?
A. CO
B. N2+
C. NO
D. O2–
Answer:::: A
10. Find the molecule having the highest bond order
A. O2+
B. O2–
C. O22-
D. O2
Answer:::: A
MCQs on VSEPR Theory
1. Which of the following species has 120° bond angles?
A. NCl3
B. PH3
C. ClF3
D. BCl3
Answer:::: D
2. Which of the following species has a trigonal planar shape?
A. NO3–
B. CO2
C. N3
D. NO2–
Answer:::: A
3. Which of the following has a linear shape?
A. NO2–
B. NO2+
C. O3
D. SO2
Answer:::: B
4. If MX6 is a regular octahedral molecule, then how many X-M-X bonds are 180°?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 6
Answer:::: C
5. Find the molecule in which the central atom is having one lone pair of electrons
A. NH3
B. PCl5
C. H2O
D. CH4
Answer:::: A
6. In BrF3, lone pairs are present at the equatorial positions. This is to minimise
A. bp-bp repulsion only
B. lp-lp repulsion only
C. lp-bp repulsion only
D. both B. and C.
Answer:::: B
7. Find the species with a maximum bond angle
A. NH4+
B. SCl2
C. NH3
D. PCl3
Answer:::: A
8. XeF6 is
A. Distorted octahedral
B. Tetrahedral
C. Octahedral
D. Planar
Answer:::: A
9. Number of bond pair and lone pair electrons present on N atom in NO3– are
A. 3, 1
B. 4, 0
C. 2, 2
D. 1, 3
Answer:::: B
10. Find the molecule with the least bond angle
A. BeF2
B. CH4
C. NH3
D. H2O
Answer:::: D
MCQs on Amines
1. In this reaction acetamide is converted to methanamine
A. Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
B. Carbylamine reaction
C. Stephen’s reaction
D. Hoffmann bromamide reaction
Answer:::: D
2. Which of the following is true for the basicity of amines?
A. Alkylamines are generally less basic than arylamines because N is sp hybridised
B. Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines due to aryl group
C. Arylamines are generally less basic than alkylamines due to delocalisation of lone pair of electrons in the benzene ring
D. Alkylamines are generally less basic than arylamines because lone pair of electrons on N in the arylamines are not delocalised in the benzene ring
Answer:::: C
3. How many structural isomers are possible for C3H9N?
A. 4
B. 2
C. 5
D. 3
Answer:::: A
4. Which of the following is incorrect for primary amines?
A. On reaction with nitrous acid alkylamines produce alcohol
B. On reaction with nitrous acid arylamines produce phenol
C. Alkylamines are more basic than ammonia
D. Alkylamines are more basic than arylamines
Answer:::: B
5. Aniline is less basic than
A. Benzylamine
B. Triphenylamine
C. p-Nitroaniline
D. Diphenylamine
Answer:::: A
6. Which of the following is formed when an alkyl primary amine reacts with nitrous acid?
A. Alkyl nitrite
B. Secondary amine
C. Nitroalkane
D. Alcohol
Answer:::: D
7. In which of the following reactions does amide get converted to amine?
A. Claisen
B. Hoffmann
C. Kekule
D. Perkin
Answer:::: B
8. This on reduction with LiAlH4 produces secondary amine
A. Methyl cyanide
B. Nitroethane
C. Methyl isocyanide
D. Acetamide
Answer:::: C
9. Which of the following compounds is formed on the electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in presence of strong acid?
A. Azoxybenzene
B. Aniline
C. Azobenzene
D. p-aminophenol
Answer:::: D
10. Which of the following is formed in the reaction of an aldehyde and primary amine?
A. Ketone
B. Aromatic acid
C. Schiff’s base
D. Carboxylic acid
Answer:::: C
MCQs on Benzene and its Derivatives
1. This can be a halide in the Friedel Crafts reaction
A. isopropyl chloride
B. chlorobenzene
C. bromobenzene
D. chloroethene
Answer:::: A
2. Which of the following will not easily undergo Friedel Crafts reaction?
A. Xylene
B. Nitrobenzene
C. Cumene
D. Toluene
Answer:::: B
3. When phenyl methyl ether reacts with HI it forms
A. benzene
B. ethyl chloride
C. iodobenzene
D. phenol
Answer:::: D
4. Which of the following is the most acidic?
A. p-nitrophenol
B. 2,4,6-trinitrophenol
C. p-cresol
D. Phenol
Answer:::: B
5. Phenol is converted to salicylaldehyde when treated with chloroform and aq. KOH, the reaction is known as
A. Friedel Crafts reaction
B. Rosenmund’s reaction
C. Sommelet reaction
D. Reimer-Tiemann reaction
Answer:::: D
6. Which of the following is formed when benzene is oxidised by V2O5 in presence of air?
A. Benzoic anhydride
B. Benzaldehyde
C. Maleic anhydride
D. Benzoic acid
Answer:::: C
7. Catalytic reduction of benzoyl chloride in presence of Pd-BaSO4 yields
A. C6H5OH
B. C6H5Cl
C. C6H5CHO
D. C6H5COCH3
Answer:::: C
8. This on reduction with LiAlH4 produces secondary amine
A. Methyl cyanide
B. Nitroethane
C. Methyl isocyanide
D. Acetamide
Answer:::: C
9. In which of the following reactions does toluene get converted to benzaldehyde by chromyl chloride?
A. Riemer-Tiemann reaction
B. Cannizzaro’s reaction
C. Etard reaction
D. Wurtz reaction
Answer:::: C
10. Which of the following reactions will yield phenyl isocyanide?
A. Carbylamine reaction
B. Wurtz reaction
C. Rosenmund’s reaction
D. Reimer-Tieman reaction
Answer:::: A
MCQs on Metals and Non-metals
1. Which of the following metals is the most abundant in the earth’s crust?
A. Al
B. Fe
C. Na
D. Ca
Answer:::: A.
2. Which of the following is a poor conductor of heat among the given metals?
A. Sodium
B. Calcium
C. Lead
D. Mercury
Answer:::: C.
3. Chlorides of non-metals are covalent because
A. of electrons sharing
B. they can donate electrons to chlorine
C. they cannot share electrons with chlorine
D. they donate electrons to chlorine forming chloride ions
Answer:::: A.
4. Which of the following non-metals is lustrous?
A. Oxygen
B. Sulphur
C. Iodine
D. Nitrogen
Answer:::: C.
5. Alloy of which of the following metals is called amalgam?
A. Hg
B. Zn and Cu
C. Cu and Sn
D. Pb and Sn
Answer:::: A.
6. Which of the following non-metals is liquid at room temperature?
A. Helium
B. Carbon
C. Mercury
D. Bromine
Answer:::: D.
7. Bauxite is an ore of
A. Hg
B. Al
C. Fe
D. Cu
Answer:::: B.
8. Which of the following is the suspension of slaked lime in the water?
A. Quick lime
B. Milk of lime
C. Lime water
D. None of the above
Answer:::: B.
9. Which of the following oxides is amphoteric?
A. MgO
B. Al2O3
C. K2O
D. Na2O
Answer:::: B.
10. Which of the following is not ionic?
A. KCl
B. NaCl
C. HCl
D. CCl4
Answer:::: D.
MCQs on Aromaticity
1. Which of the following is not a characteristic property of arenes?
A. Delocalisation of 𝞹-electrons
B. Resonance
C. Greater stability
D. Electrophilic additions
Answer:::: D
2. Which of the following statements is true for benzene?
A. Benzene easily undergoes addition due to unsaturation
B. 𝞹-electrons are delocalised in the benzene ring
C. Three isomeric forms are formed on monosubstitution of benzene
D. Two types of C-C bonds are present in benzene
Answer:::: B
3. Which of the following is the correct representation to relate the two resonating Kekule structures of benzene?
A. →
B. ≡
C. ↔
D. ⇌
Answer:::: C
4. The bond length of C-C bonds in benzene is
A. 110 pm
B. 156 pm
C. 121 pm
D. 139 pm
Answer:::: D
5. Which of the following is a characteristic of an aromatic compound?
A. Cyclic
B. Planar
C. (4n+2)𝞹 electrons
D. All of the above
Answer:::: D
6. Which of the following is incorrect for benzene?
A. Planar C6 ring
B. Localised 𝞹 bonding
C. sp2 hybridised C atoms
D. It shows reactions characteristics of C=C double bonds
Answer:::: D
7. Which of the following is incorrect for electrophilic substitution?
A. -NO2 is deactivating and m-directing
B. -Cl is activating and o, p-directing
C. -OH is activating and o, p-directing
D. -CH3 is activating and o, p-directing
Answer:::: B
8. The number of delocalised 𝞹 electrons in the benzene ring are
A. 6
B. 8
C. 2
D. 4
Answer:::: A
9. Which of the following is the reactive species in the nitration of benzene?
A. NO2+
B. NO2–
C. NO3
D. HNO3
Answer:::: B
MCQs on Catalyst and Catalysis
1. Which of the following is incorrect for a catalyst?
A. Bio-chemical reactions are mostly catalysed by enzymes
B. Catalyst does not start a reaction
C. Catalyst changes the equilibrium constant of a reaction
D. Co-enzymes increase the activity of an enzyme
Answer:::: C.
2. How does a catalyst increase the rate of a reaction?
A. By forming an intermediate complex
B. By increasing activation energy
C. By lowering the activation energy
D. By changing equilibrium constant
Answer:::: C.
3. Which of the following is used as a catalyst in the contact process?
A. V2O5
B. Fe2O3
C. Ag2O
D. SO3
Answer:::: A.
4. Which of the following is known as Lindlar’s catalyst?
A. Na in liquid NH3
B. Pt in ethanol
C. Pd with BaSO4
D. Ni in ethanol
Answer:::: C.
5. Which of the following enzymes catalyses the hydrolysis of triglycerides to fatty acids and glycerol?
A. Pepsin
B. Maltase
C. Zymase
D. Lipase
Answer:::: D.
6. Ziegler Natta catalyst is associated with
A. polymerisation of alkenes
B. hydrogenation of alkenes
C. hydroformylation of alkenes
D. none of the above
Answer:::: A.
7. What is the effect of enzymes on the rate of biochemical reactions?
A. The rate increases
B. It does not change
C. The rate decreases
D. either B. or C.
Answer:::: A.
8. Which of the following is used as a catalyst in the lead chamber process?
A. Nitrogen oxides
B. Pt
C. Ni
D. V2O5
Answer:::: A.
9. Which of the following is changed in a chemical reaction due to a catalyst?
A. Internal energy
B. Entropy
C. Enthalpy
D. Activation energy
Answer:::: D.
10. Which of the following is incorrect for enzymes?
A. Enzymes are specific
B. Most of the enzymes are protein
C. Reactivity of enzymes is least at optimum temperature
D. High temperature and UV rays can denature enzymes
Answer:::: C.
MCQs on Entropy
1. For spontaneous adsorption of gas
A. ΔS is negative so ΔH should be highly positive
B. ΔS is negative so ΔH should be highly negative
C. ΔS is positive so ΔH should also be highly positive
D. ΔS is positive so ΔH should be negative
Answer:::: B.
2. For which of the following conditions a reaction will be spontaneous at all the temperature?
A. ΔH < 0 and ΔS < 0
B. ΔH < 0 and ΔS = 0
C. ΔH < 0 and ΔS > 0
D. both B. and C.
Answer:::: D.
3. At which of the following temperatures the reaction C(graphite) + CO2 (g) → 2CO(g) will occur spontaneously if ΔH = 170 kJ and ΔS = 170 J K-1?
A. 710 K
B. 1110 K
C. 910 K
D. 510 K
Answer:::: B.
4. At which of the following temperatures the reaction Br2 (l) + Cl2 (g) → 2BrCl(g) will be at equilibrium if ΔH = 30 kJ mol-1 and ΔS = 170 J K-1 mol-1?
A. 450 K
B. 300 K
C. 273 K
D. 285.7 K
Answer:::: D.
5. Which of the following is the correct criteria for a spontaneous process?
A. ΔSsystem – ΔSsurroundings > 0
B. ΔSsurroundings > 0 only
C. ΔSsystem + ΔSsurroundings > 0
D. ΔSsystem > 0 only
Answer:::: C.
6. What is the unit of entropy?
A. J mol-1
B. J K mol-1
C. J-1 K-1 mol-1
D. J K-1 mol-1
Answer:::: D.
7. For a spontaneous reaction
A. ΔS must be negative
B. (ΔH – TΔS) must be negative
C. ΔH must be negative
D. (ΔH + TΔS) must be negative
Answer:::: B.
8. Which of the following is true for the entropy of an isolated system?
A. It can never increase
B. It can never decrease
C. It can never be zero
D. None of the above
Answer:::: B.
9. Which of the following is correct for the net entropy change in an irreversible process?
A. It is positive
B. It is negative
C. It is zero
D. All of the above
Answer:::: A.
10. Calculate ΔG for the reaction X2O4 (l) → 2XO2 (g) if ΔU = 2.1 kcal and ΔS = 20 cal K-1 at 300°K.
A. – 9.3 kcal
B. – 2.7 kcal
C. 2.7 kcal
D. 9.3 kcal
Answer:::: B.
MCQs on Colloidal Dispersion
1. Fog is an example of which type of colloidal system?
A. Gas in liquid
B. Solid in gasLiquid in gas
C. Gas in gas
D. Liquid in gas
Answer:::: B.
2. Which of the following properties of colloids does not depend on the charge on particles?
A. Coagulation
B. Electro-osmosis
C. Electrophoresis
D. Tyndall effect
Answer:::: D.
3. The term used to determine the protecting power of a lyophilic colloid is
A. oxidation number
B. coagulation value
C. gold number
D. critical micelle concentration
Answer:::: C.
4. This method is commonly used for destruction of colloid
A. Addition of electrolytes
B. Condensation
C. Dialysis
D. Filtration by animal membrane
Answer:::: A.
5. Which of the following compounds form micelles, if their concentration is increased in aqueous solution?
A. Urea
B. Glucose
C. Pyridinium chloride
D. Dodecyl trimethyl ammonium chloride
Answer:::: D.
6. If the concentration of surfactant molecules increases above the critical micelle concentration (CMC), then they
A. become soluble
B. dissociate
C. associate
D. decompose
Answer:::: C.
7. The ability of an ion to coagulate a given colloid is dependent on the
A. only charge
B. magnitude
C. both magnitude and charge
D. sign of the charge
Answer:::: C.
8. The diameter of particles in colloidal system is
A. 10-9 m to 10-6 m
B. 10-10 m to 10-4 m
C. 10-12 m to 10-9 m
D. 10-7 m to 10-5 m
Answer:::: A.
9. Which of the following is an associated colloid?
A. Soap
B. Sol of gold
C. Proteins
D. Starch
Answer:::: A.
10. The position occupied by non-polar hydrophobic and polar hydrophilic group in a micelle is
A. non-polar towards the outside and polar towards inside
B. polar towards the outside and non-polar towards inside
C. both present only at the surface
D. both distributed throughout
Answer:::: B.
MCQs on Quantum Numbers
1. Which of the following quantum numbers can distinguish between two electrons present in the same orbital?
A. Azimuthal quantum number
B. Principal quantum number
C. Magnetic quantum number
D. Spin quantum number
Answer:::: D.
2. How many orbitals can have the following quantum numbers, n = 3, l = 1, ml = 0?
A. 4
B. 2
C. 1
D. 3
Answer:::: C.
3. What is the maximum number of electrons, which can have following quantum numbers, n = 3, l = 1, m = -1?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 10
D. 4
Answer:::: A.
4. The maximum number of electrons that can fit in an orbital with n = 3 and l = 1?
A. 14
B. 6
C. 10
D. 2
Answer:::: D.
5. The maximum number of electrons which can be present in a subshell can be represented by
A. 2l + 1
B. 2n2
C. 4l + 2
D. 4l – 2
Answer:::: C.
6. Which of the following quantum numbers governs the spatial orientation of an atomic orbital?
A. Magnetic quantum number
B. Spin quantum number
C. Azimuthal quantum number
D. Principal quantum number
Answer:::: A.
7. Which of the following quantum numbers tells the three-dimensional shape of an atomic orbital?
A. Azimuthal quantum number
B. Principal quantum number
C. Spin quantum number
D. Magnetic quantum number
Answer:::: A.
8. The maximum number of orbitals present in a subshell can be represented by
A. 2l + 1
B. 2n2
C. 4l + 2
D. 4l – 2
Answer:::: A.
9. The maximum number of electrons that can fit in all the orbitals with n = 2 and l = 1?
A. 8
B. 2
C. 6
D. 4
Answer:::: C.
10. The maximum number of electrons with l = 3 is
A. 14
B. 2
C. 10
D. 6
Answer:::: A.
MCQs on Fatty Acid Catabolism
1. The free fatty acids are transported by blood associated with
A. β -lipoprotein
B. a fatty acid-binding protein
C. albumin
D. none of the above
Answer:::: C.
2. Where are the enzymes for β-oxidation present?
A. Nucleus
B. Cytosol
C. Mitochondria
D. Golgi apparatus
Answer:::: C.
3. Fats after absorption, present in the circulation as
A. VLDL
B. HDL
C. LDL
D. Chylomicron
Answer:::: D.
4. Which one of the following is an essential fatty acid?
A. Linolenic acid
B. Palmitic acid
C. Linoleic acid
D. both A. and C.
Answer:::: D.
5. Which of the following is a saturated fatty acid?
A. Linoleic acid
B. Erucic acid
C. Palmitic acid
D. Oleic acid
Answer:::: C.
6. Which of the following undergoes β-oxidation?
A. Polyunsaturated fatty acids
B. Saturated fatty acids
C. Monounsaturated fatty acids
D. All of the above
Answer:::: D.
7. Where are ketone bodies synthesized?
A. Brain
B. Muscles
C. Liver
D. Adipose tissues
Answer:::: C.
8. 𝜶- oxidation of fatty acids mostly occurs in
A. brain
B. adipose tissues
C. liver
D. muscles
Answer:::: A.
9. The long-chain fatty acids get transported through the inner mitochondrial membrane
A. as acyl-CoA derivative
B. freely
C. as carnitine derivative
D. require sodium-dependent carrier
Answer:::: C.
10. Where do the long-chain fatty acids get first activated?
A. Microsomes
B. Mitochondria
C. Cytosol
D. Nucleus
Answer:::: C.
MCQs on Chlorine Gas
1. Which among the following is the strongest oxidising agent?
A. F2
B. I2
C. Br2
D. Cl2
Answer:::: A.
2. Calcium chlorite has the molecular formula
A. Ca(ClO4)2
B. Ca(ClO3)2
C. CaClO2
D. Ca(ClO2)2
Answer:::: D.
3. Four lone pairs of electrons are present in
A. O
B. He
C. Cl–
D. HI
Answer:::: C.
4. Which of the following will most readily form an anion?
A. Alkali metals
B. Halogens
C. Nitrogen family
D. Oxygen family
Answer:::: B.
5. Chlorine is used as a bleaching agent. The bleaching action is due to
A. oxidation
B. chlorination
C. hydrogenation
D. reduction
Answer:::: A.
6. Which of the following is produced on the reaction of bleaching powder with a few drops of conc. HCl?
A. Hypochlorous acid
B. Oxygen
C. Chlorine
D. Calcium oxide
Answer:::: C.
7. Who suggested the name chlorine for the first time?
A. Davy
B. Scheele
C. Priestley
D. Rutherford
Answer:::: A.
8. Chlorine reacts with cold and dil. Alkali to form
A. chloride
B. hypochlorite
C. chlorate
D. both A. and B.
Answer:::: D.
9. Deacon’s process is used to manufacture
A. nitric acid
B. sulphuric acid
C. chlorine
D. bleaching powder
Answer:::: C.
10. Chlorine gas reacts with _______ to form bleaching powder.
A. dry slaked lime
B. dil. solution of Ca(OH)2
C. conc. solution of Ca(OH)2
D. dry CaO
Answer:::: A.
MCQs on Crystal Field Theory
1. Which of the following complexes shows zero crystal field stabilization energy?
A. [Co(H2O)6]3+
B. [Fe(H2O)6]3+
C. [Co(H2O)6]2+
D. [Mn(H2O)6]3+
Answer:::: B.
2. Which of the following is paramagnetic?
A. [CoBr]42-
B. Mo(Co)6
C. [Pt(en)Cl2]
D. [Co(NH3)6]3+
Answer:::: A.
3. For a high spin d4 octahedral complex the crystal field splitting energy will be
A. -1.6 Δo
B. -0.8 Δo
C. -0.6 Δo
D. -1.2 Δo
Answer:::: C.
4. Which of the following is a bidentate ligand?
A. Br
B. CH3NH2
C. C2O42-
D. CH3CN
Answer:::: C.
5. How many unpaired electrons are present in [CoF6]3- complex?
A. 4
B. zero
C. 2
D. 3
Answer:::: A.
6. Which of the following d orbitals take part in the octahedral complex with d2sp3 hybridisation?
A. dxy, dyz
B. dxz, dx2−y2
C. dx2−y2, dz2
D. dz2, dxz
Answer:::: C.
7. The compound, which does not contain a metal-carbon bond is
A. K[Pt(C2H4)Cl3]
B. C2H5MgBr
C. Ni(CO)4
D. Al(OC2H5)3
Answer:::: D.
8. The correct increasing order of splitting power of ligands according to spectrochemical series is
A. Cl– < OH– < CN–
B. Cl– < CN– < OH–
C. OH– < Cl– < CN–
D. OH– < CN– < Cl–
Answer:::: A.
9. Which of the following complexes has a magnetic moment of 1.73 BM?
A. [Ni(CN)4]2-
B. TiCl4
C. [Cu(NH3)4]2+
D. [CoCl6]4-
Answer:::: C.
10. Tetraamminecopper(II) sulphate is _______ in colour.
A. violet
B. blue
C. green
D. red
Answer:::: B.
MCQs on Fuel Cell
1. Which of the following converts energy from the combustion of fuel directly to the electrical energy?
A. Ni-Cd cell
B. Dynamo
C. Fuel cell
D. Electrolytic cell
Answer:::: C.
2. Which of the following is continuously replaced in a fuel cell?
A. Oxidiser
B. Fuel
C. Both fuel and oxidiser
D. None of the above
Answer:::: C.
3. Which of the following does not affect the reactions in a fuel cell?
A. Electrolyte composition
B. Electrode composition
C. A combination of fuel and oxidiser
D. Catalytic effect of the reaction container
Answer:::: D.
4. Chemical energy is converted to ________ energy by a fuel cell.
A. solar
B. electrical
C. potential
D. mechanical
Answer:::: B.
5. Who invented the fuel cell?
A. Mathew Maury
B. Gideon Sundback
C. Robert Bunsen
D. William Grove
Answer:::: D.
6. Which of the following is incorrect for fuel cells?
A. They are modular
B. They are highly efficient
C. The noise level is very high
D. The emission level is much below the permissible level
Answer:::: C.
7. Which of the following is not a fuel cell?
A. Hexanone-oxygen cell
B. Methyl-oxygen-alcohol cell
C. Hydrogen-oxygen cell
D. Propane-oxygen cell
Answer:::: A.
8. The reaction occurring at the cathode of hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell is
A. 2H2 + 4OH– → 4H2O + 4e–
B. 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O (l )
C. H+ + OH– → H2O
D. O2 + 2H2O + 4e– → 4OH–
Answer:::: D.
9. The standard emf is ________ for hydrogen-oxygen fuel cells.
A. 3.96 V
B. 1.23 V
C. 0.58 V
D. 2.54 V
Answer:::: B.
10. Fuel cell was invented in the year
A. 1838
B. 1874
C. 1903
D. 1958
Answer:::: A.
MCQs on Sucrose
1. The phenomenon of mutarotation is not exhibited by
A. (–) Fructose
B. (+) Lactose
C. (+) Maltose
D. (+) Sucrose
Answer:::: D.
2. Invert sugar is produced on hydrolysis of
A. fructose
B. dextrose
C. sucrose
D. glucose
Answer:::: C.
3. The sweetest sugar is
A. sucrose
B. fructose
C. maltose
D. glucose
Answer:::: B.
4. Which of the following is used as table sugar?
A. Disaccharide of D-glucose
B. D-glucose
C. Monosaccharide
D. Disaccharide of D-glucose and D-fructose
Answer:::: D.
5. Sucrose is non-reducing sugar due to
A. presence of α-hydroxy keto group
B. its conversion to invert sugar
C. the linkage between both the anomeric carbon atoms
D. equal amount of D(+) glucose and D(–) fructose
Answer:::: C.
6. Sucrose on hydrolysis yields
A. two glucose molecules
B. glucose and fructose
C. glucose and lactose
D. glucose and galactose
Answer:::: B.
7. The general formula of carbohydrates is
A. Cx(H2O)y
B. Cx(H2)yO
C. Cx(H2O)y + 2
D. Cx – 1 (H2O)y
Answer:::: A.
8. This is not a disaccharide
A. maltose
B. galactose
C. sucrose
D. lactose
Answer:::: B.
9. Which of the following sugars does not give positive Seliwanoff’s test?
A. Inulin
B. Sucrose
C. Fructose
D. Maltose
Answer:::: D.
10. Which of the following is a non-reducing sugar?
A. Sucrose
B. Maltose
C. Lactose
D. Glucose
Answer:::: A.
11. Which of the following is invert sugar?
A. Starch
B. Glucose
C. Fructose
D. None of these
Answer:::: D.
MCQs on Glucose
1. 𝝱-D(+)-Glucose has how many asymmetric carbons?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 6
D. 5
Answer:::: A.
2. In the process of glycolysis
A. glucose is converted to haem
B. glucose is oxidised to pyruvate
C. pyruvate is converted to citrate
D. glucose is oxidised to glutamate
Answer:::: B.
3. The two hemiacetal isomers of glucose, 𝛼-D-glucose and 𝛽-D-glucose are
A. diastereomers
B. epimers
C. enantiomers
D. anomers
Answer:::: D.
4. How many molecules of phenyl hydrazine react with glucose to produce glucosazone?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
Answer:::: A.
5. 𝜶-D(+)-Glucopyranose and 𝝱-D(+)-Glucopyranose differ in
A. the size of the hemiacetal ring
B. the number of OH group present
C. configuration
D. conformation
Answer:::: C.
6. Hydrolysis of starch yields
A. sucrose
B. glucose
C. fructose
D. both B. and C.
Answer:::: B.
7. The acetylation of glucose with acetic anhydride yields
A. monoacetate
B. triacetate
C. hexaacetate
D. pentaacetate
Answer:::: D.
8. Which of the following enzymes converts maltose to glucose?
A. Diastase
B. Zymase
C. Lactase
D. Maltase
Answer:::: D.
9. Which of the following enzymes converts glucose to ethanol?
A. Zymase
B. Invertase
C. Diesterase
D. Both A. and B.
Answer:::: A.
10. 𝛼-D-glucose and 𝛽-D-glucose differ in the configuration of the OH group at which carbon?
A. C3
B. C2
C. C4
D. C1
Answer:::: D.
11. Which of the following is formed on reduction of glucose?
A. Sorbitol
B. Mannitol
C. Menthol
D. Both A. and B.
Answer:::: A.
12. Which of the following is the monomer of cellulose?
A. Ribose
B. Fructose
C. Glucose
D. Sucrose
Answer:::: C.
13. Glucose gives positive silver mirror test with Tollen’s reagent due to the presence of
A. acetal group
B. aldehydic group
C. keto group
D. anomeric hydroxyl group
Answer:::: B.
14. Which of the following pairs will give a positive test with Tollen’s reagent?
A. Glucose and sucrose
B. Glucose and fructose
C. Sucrose and fructose
D. Acetophenone and hexanal
Answer:::: B.
15. When glucose reacts with bromine water it forms
A. Glutaric acid
B. Glyceraldehyde
C. Saccharic acid
D. Gluconic acid
Answer:::: D.
16. The pyranose structure of glucose is due to the formation of hemiacetal and ring between
A. C2 and C5
B. C1 and C5
C. C1 and C4
D. C1 and C3
Answer:::: B.
17. D-Glucose and D-Galactose are
A. anomers
B. epimers
C. optical isomers
D. none of the above
Answer:::: B.
18. Cellulose is a polymer of
A. D-glucose monomers joined by β-glycosidic linkages
B. D-glucose monomers joined by α-glycosidic linkages
C. D-galactose monomers joined by α-glycosidic linkages
D. D-galactose monomers joined by β-glycosidic linkages
Answer:::: A.
19. Fructose can be distinguished from glucose as
A. it gives a positive Seliwanoff’s test
B. it does not undergo hydrolysis
C. it is a monosaccharide
D. none of the above
Answer:::: A.
20. Glucose is converted to mannose by
A. racemisation
B. anomerisation
C. epimerisation
D. none of the above
Answer:::: C.
MCQs on Distillation
1. A mixture of o-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol can be separated by
A. crystallisation
B. chromatography
C. sublimation
D. steam distillation
Answer:::: D.
2. The commonly used method to separate naphthalene from benzoic acid is
A. sublimation
B. crystallisation
C. distillation
D. chromatography
Answer:::: A.
3. This is not separated by distillation
A. chloroform and aniline
B. milk and water
C. impurities in seawater
D. acetone and water
Answer:::: B.
4. Porcelain chips are used in the distillation flask to prevent
A. bumping
B. overheating
C. uniform boiling
D. none of the above
Answer:::: A.
5. The residue left in the round bottom flask in the process of distillation is
A. volatile
B. non-volatile
C. both
D. none of the above
Answer:::: B.
6. By using which of the following methods, can glycerine be purified?
A. simple distillation
B. steam distillation
C. vacuum distillation
D. none of the above
Answer:::: C.
7. Aniline is generally purified by
A. fractional crystallization
B. chromatography
C. by adding oxalic acid
D. steam distillation
Answer:::: D.
8. A method to prepare absolute alcohol is
A. vacuum distillation
B. fractional distillation
C. azeotropic distillation
D. none of the above
Answer:::: C.
9. Distillation is the best method to separate liquids having sufficient difference in their
A. solubility
B. melting point
C. boiling point
D. none of the above
Answer:::: C.
10. Chloroform and aniline can be separated by distillation. The boiling points of chloroform and aniline are _____ and _______ respectively.
A. 457 K and 334 K
B. 334 K and 457 K
C. 350 K and 438 K
D. 438 K and 350 K
Answer:::: B.
MCQs on Atmosphere
1. The term biosphere refers to
A. Rocks and minerals
B. Plants and animals
C. Water sources
D. Atmosphere and lithosphere
Answer:::: B.
2. The boundary between troposphere and stratosphere is known as
A. tropopause
B. ionopause
C. stratopause
D. mesopause
Answer:::: A.
3. Ozone hole is
A. increase in the concentration of ozone
B. hole in the ozone layer
C. depletion of the ozone layer in the troposphere
D. depletion of the ozone layer in the stratosphere
Answer:::: D.
4. If an object is present at a distance of 5 km from the surface of the earth, it is present in
A. Troposphere
B. Thermosphere
C. Mesosphere
D. Stratosphere
Answer:::: A.
5. The uppermost layer of atmosphere is known as
A. Ionosphere
B. Troposphere
C. Stratosphere
D. Exosphere
Answer:::: D.
6. Which among the following does not cause pollution?
A. Automobiles
B. Thermal power plant
C. Hydro-electric plant
D. Nuclear power plant
Answer:::: C.
7. The equipment to measure atmospheric humidity is
A. Anemometer
B. Psychrometer
C. Hydrometer
D. Lysimeter
Answer:::: B.
8. The mass of water vapour in a unit mass of air is referred to as
A. relative humidity
B. specific humidity
C. approximate humidity
D. absolute humidity
Answer:::: B.
9. The ozone layer is present in
A. Thermosphere
B. Stratosphere
C. Troposphere
D. Mesosphere
Answer:::: B.
10. The main constituents of atmosphere are
A. N2 and O2
B. CO2 and N2
C. CO and CO2
D. O3 and SO2
Answer:::: A.
MCQs on Acid Rain
1. The main contributors of acid rain are
A. sulphur oxides and carbon oxides
B. nitrogen oxides and sulphur oxides
C. carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide
D. nitrogen oxides and carbon oxides
Answer:::: B.
2. Who coined the term acid rain?
A. Christ Ralph
B. Elmer Joseph Clark
C. Ernest Flower
D. Robert Angus Smith
Answer:::: D.
3. The main cause of acid rain is
A. soil pollution
B. water pollution
C. air pollution
D. all of the above
Answer:::: C.
4. Sulphur dioxide is produced by
A. nuclear power plant
B. coal power plants
C. hydroelectric power plants
D. all of the above
Answer:::: B.
5. Acid rain reacts with marble and limestone to form
A. calcium carbonate
B. calcium hydroxide
C. calcium sulphate
D. none of the above
Answer:::: C.
6. Acid rain causes damage to
A. big sculptures and marble constructions
B. flora and fauna
C. growth of trees
D. all of the above
Answer:::: D.
7. The pH of normal rainwater is
A. basic
B. acidic
C. alkaline
D. neutral
Answer:::: B.
8. The main cause of damage to Taj Mahal is
A. water pollution
B. soil pollution
C. acid rain
D. fog
Answer:::: C.
9. The damage caused by acid rain is due to_________ nature of acid rain.
A. balancing
B. protecting
C. withstanding
D. corrosive
Answer:::: D.
10. The pH below which the precipitation is regarded as acid rain is
A. 6
B. 7
C. 5.6
D. 7.3
Answer:::: C.
MCQs on Titration
1. Which of the following is used as an indicator in the titration of iodine with hypo?
A. Methyl red
B. Methyl orange
C. Starch
D. Potassium ferricyanide
Answer:::: C.
2. What will be the pH at the equivalence point in the titration of a weak acid and a strong base?
A. 0
B. >7
C. 7
D. <7
Answer:::: B.
3. On adding a large amount of titrant, an asymptote is obtained in the titration curve, this asymptote represents
A. Ka of the initial solution
B. pH of the initial solution
C. pH of the titrant
D. none of the above
Answer:::: C.
4. The buffer region is represented by
A. the concave curve after adding titrant
B. the flat curve before the equivalence point
C. the flat curve after the equivalence point
D. the steep curve after the equivalence point
Answer:::: B.
5. How many mmols of NaOH will be used in the titration with 33ml of 3 M HCl to form NaCl and water?
A. 10 mmol
B. 100 mmol
C. 3 mmol
D. 33 mmol
Answer:::: B.
6. The pH range of methyl orange as an indicator is
A. 3-5
B. 8-9
C. 2-4
D. 6-8
Answer:::: A.
7. The amount of NaOH used in the titration of 100 ml 0.1 N HCl is
A. 4 g
B. 0.04 g
C. 2 g
D. 0.4 g
Answer:::: D.
8. The equivalent weight of an acid can be calculated by
A. Molecular weight × basicity
B. Molecular weight/basicity
C. Molecular weight × acidity
D. Molecular weight/acidity
Answer:::: B.
9. The normal rain water is acidic due to
A. SO2
B. NO2
C. NH3
D. CO2
Answer:::: D.
10. Which of the following represents the equivalence point in the graph of pH Vs volume of titrant?
A. Point at the highest pH
B. Point at the greatest magnitude of the slope of the curve
C. Point at the lowest pH
D. Point at the least magnitude of the slope of the curve
Answer:::: B.
MCQs on Acid-Base Titration
1. What is the molarity of the solution of barium hydroxide, if 35 ml of 0.1 M HCl is used in the titration of 25 ml of the barium hydroxide solution?
A. 0.35
B. 0.07
C. 0.28
D. 0.14
Answer:::: B.
2. Which of the following titrations will have the equivalence point at a pH more than 8?
A. HCl and NH3
B. CH3COOH and NH3
C. HCl and NaOH
D. CH3COOH and NaOH
Answer:::: D.
3. Which of the following is used as an indicator in the titration of a strong acid and a weak base?
A. Phenolphthalein
B. Thymol blue
C. Fluorescein
D. Methyl orange
Answer:::: D.
4. Which of the following is used as an indicator in the titration of a weak acid and a strong base?
A. Bromothymol blue (6 to 7.5)
B. Methyl orange (3 to 4)
C. Methyl red (5 to 6)
D. Phenolphthalein (8 to 9.6)
Answer:::: D.
5. The ideal indicator for the titration of strong acid and weak base should have pH range between
A. 5-8
B. 4-6
C. 8-10
D. 7-8
Answer:::: B.
6. A difference between strong and weak acid is
A. presence and absence of halogen ions
B. negative and positive pH
C. complete and partial ionisation
D. proton donation and electron acceptance
Answer:::: C.
7. Find the concentration of HCl, if 10 ml of 0.5 M Ca(OH)2 is required to titrate 50 ml of HCl.
A. 5 M
B. 1/10 M
C. 10 M
D. 1/5 M
Answer:::: D.
8. Which of the following is a buffer solution?
A. H2SO4 + CuSO4
B. CH3COOH + CH3COONH4
C. NaCl + NaOH
D. CH3COONa + CH3COOH
Answer:::: D.
9. If 30 ml of acid is neutralised by 15 ml of 0.2 N alkali, then the concentration of acid is
A. 0.4 N
B. 0.1 N
C. 0.3 N
D. 0.15 N
Answer:::: B.
10. What is the concentration of the sulphuric acid solution, if 100 ml of the solution is neutralised by 50 ml of 0.5 M Ba(OH)2 solution?
A. 0.25 M
B. 50 M
C. 0.5 M
D. 100 M
Answer:::: A.
MCQs on Decomposition Reaction
1. CO2 obtained by the complete decomposition of 20 g CaCO3 at STP is
A. 4.48 l
B. 2.24 l
C. 44.8 l
D. 48.4 l
Answer:::: A.
2. Decomposition of hydrogen peroxide to give H2O + O2 is an example of
A. reduction
B. oxidation
C. both A. and B.
D. none of the above
Answer:::: C.
3. The reaction 2Pb(NO3)2 → 2PbO + 4NO2 + O2 is a type of _______reaction.
A. displacement
B. double decomposition
C. decomposition
D. none of the above
Answer:::: C.
4. On passing current to an acidified water we get hydrogen and oxygen. This is a type of
A. oxidation reaction
B. thermal decomposition
C. electrolysis
D. none of the above
Answer:::: C.
5. The correct expression for decomposition of silver chloride to silver and chlorine is
A. AgCl2(s) → Ag(s) + 2Cl(g)
B. 2AgCl(s)→ 2Ag(s) + Cl2(g)
C. AgCl2(s) → Ag(s) + Cl2(g)
D. AgCl(s) → Ag(s) + Cl(g)
Answer:::: B.
6. A reaction where two compounds exchange their atoms to form new compounds
A. decomposition
B. double displacement
C. displacement
D. synthesis
Answer:::: B.
7. The decomposition of silver chloride occurs by
A. heat
B. sunlight
C. water
D. electricity
Answer:::: B.
8. How many moles of sodium carbonate is formed on decomposition of 0.2 moles of sodium bicarbonate?
A. 0.1
B. 0.2
C. 0.05
D. 0.025
Answer:::: A.
9. Find out the volume of CO2 liberated after heating 9.85 g of BaCO3 at STP.
A. 2.06 l
B. 2.12 l
C. 1.12 l
D. 4.84 l
Answer:::: C.
10. Ferrous sulphate on heating gives reddish-brown residue of ferric oxide. This is due to
A. decomposition
B. displacement
C. combination
D. none of the above
Answer:::: A.
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