Latest NEET Exam MCQ's On Biology [TOP 1500+ SOLVED]

MCQ’S ON FILARIASIS

1. Filariform larvae are observed with

(a) Trichuris trichura

(b) Necator americanus

(d) Enterobius vermicularis

Answer: (c)

2. Except this, all others enter through the dermal route

(a) Ascaris

(b) Trichuris

(d) Strongyloides

Answer: (b)

3. The Filarial larva can be collected from the sample of

(a) biopsy of liver

(b) smears of intestinal contents

(d) peripheral blood at midnight

Answer: (d)

4. The sperm of nematodes are

(a) ciliated

(b) amoeboid

(d) haploid

Answer: (b)

5. The causative of Filariasis is

(a) Schistosome

(b) Trichinella

(d) Wuchereria

Answer: (d)

6. This accurately does not describe Lymphatic filariasis

(a) is caused by parasitic worms Brugia malayi and Wuchereria bancrofti

(b) one of the most common manifestations is Chyluria

(d) intermediate vector is the mollusc

Answer: (d)

7. Which of the following diseases is caused by a nematode?

(a) Poliomyelitis

(b) Filariasis

(d) Amoebiasis

Answer: (b)

8. Filariasis in India is transmitted by

(a) Musca domestica

(b) Anopheles culicifacies

(d) Aedes aegypti

Answer: (c)

9. Filariasis is a result of the infection of

(a) Fleas

(b) Bed bug

(d) Nematode worm

Answer: (d)

10. Ascaris lumbricoides, commonly is known as

(a) Filarial worm

(b) Hookworm

(d) Pinworm

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON PRIONS

1. Neurodegenerative diseases such as mad cow and Kuru diseases are caused by infectious particles known as

(a) coronavirus

(b) viroids

(d) prions

Answer: (d)

2. This is not a prion disease

(a) Scrapie

(b) Bovine spongiform encephalopathy

(d) Creutzfeldt Jakob disease

Answer: (c)

3. In human cells, this is the first virus to be cultured

(a) HIV

(b) Influenza virus

(d) Polio virus

Answer: (d)

4. What causes scrapie in sheep?

(a) Proteins

(b) Viroid

(d) Virion

Answer: (c)

5. ___________ is a protein having partial with no detachable nucleic acid

(a) Proteins

(b) Viroid

(d) Virion

Answer: (c)

6. _____________ are the naked RNA strands infecting plants

(a) prions

(b) RNA viruses

(d) retroviruses

Answer: (c)

7. What is the other name for Bovine spongiform encephalopathy?

(a) Kuru disease

(b) Mad cow disease

(d) Sheep’s disease

Answer: (b)

8. What is the latent viral DNA contained in the host DNA referred to as?

(a) invader

(b) prion

(d) viroid

Answer: (c)

9. In sheep, this disease characterizes pneumonia and demyelination

(a) Scrapie

(b) Measles

(d) Visna

Answer: (d)

10. Lack of coordination and muscle twitching in a disease takes place due to this prion

(a) Tetanus

(b) Cancer

(d) Marasmus

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON SERICULTURE

1. Pick the correct statement

(a) larval form of moth produces silk

(b) salivary glands of the moth produce silk

(d) both (a) and (c)

Answer: (d)

2. The silkworm larva ceases to eat and begins spinning silk all over its body

(a) from inside to outside

(b) from outside to inside

(d) all of the above

Answer: (b)

3. This species produces silk of the superior quality

(a) Attacus atlas

(b) Bombyx mori

(d) Antheraea assamensis

Answer: (b)

4. Silk is produced by

(a) cocoon

(b) adult moth

(d) larva and adult moth

Answer: (c)

5. This amongst the following produces silk

(a) butterflies

(b) Bombus mori

(d) Bombus indica

Answer: (b)

6. Insects not found in wild state is

(a) cochineal insect

(b) lac insect

(d) honey bee

Answer: (c)

7. Pick the set of beneficial insects to man

(a) sandfly, honey bee, butterfly

(b) honey bee, cockroach, silkworm

(d) honey bee, cochineal insect, lac insect

Answer: (d)

8. Honey, silk and lac are

(a) artificial elements

(b) secretory substance of plants

(d) all of these

Answer: (c)

9. What is the life span of an adult ‘Bombyx mori’ ?

(a) 2 days

(b) 3-4 days

(d) 8 days

Answer: (b)

10. Silk contains a protein known as

(a) casein

(b) fibroin

(d) both (b) and (c)

Answer: (d)
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MCQ’S ON VERMICULTURE

1. For vermicomposting, this species of earthworm is not apt

(a) Perionyx excavatus

(b) Pheretima posthuma

(d) Eisenia fetidae

Answer: (b)

2. The process in which earthworms are used to degrade organic wastes is

(a) Compost bedding

(b) Humus forming

(d) None

Answer: (c)

3. Kitchen wastes and animal excreta can be minimized most profitably via

(a) vermiculture

(b) biogas production

(d) storing in underground storage tanks

Answer: (b)

4. The process of covering spawned compost with a suitable material is known as

(a) cropping

(b) casing

(d) composting

Answer: (b)

5. While burrowing, the anterior ends of earthworms become turgid serving as a hydraulic skeleton though they do not possess a skeleton. This is as a result of

(a) setae

(b) gut peristalsis

(d) none of the above

Answer: (c)

6. This is apt for vermicomposting

(a) Algae

(b) Nitrifying bacteria

(d) Fungus

Answer: (c)

7. Vermicompost is a/an

(a) toxic material

(b) organic biofertilizer

(d) synthetic fertilizer

Answer: (b)

8. This can be the best worm for composting

(a) pink worms

(b) red wigglers

(d) does not matter

Answer: (b)

9. In earthworms, typhlosome is a

(a) excretory structure

(b) a circulatory system structure

(d) defence mechanism

Answer: (c)

10. Which of the following nutrients is abundantly found in worm castings?

(a) Phosphorus

(b) Nitrogen

(d) All of these

Answer: (d)

MCQ’S ON FUNARIA AND RICCIA

1. Sensor mechanism of spore dispersal is seen in

(a) Fern

(b) Selaginella

(d) Funaria

Answer: (d)

2. This is also referred to as bog moss

(a) Funaria

(b) Marchantia

(d) Riccia

Answer: (c)

3. In Funaria, the peristomial teeth are

(a) Xeric

(b) Hydric

(d) Hygroscopic

Answer: (d)

4. The reason why Funaria is a bryophyte is

(a) it is vascular

(b) absence of stems and roots

(d) all of these

Answer: (c)

5. In Funaria, the sporophytic phase is well-developed, comprising

(a) Foot and capsule

(b) Only capsule

(d) Seta, foot and capsule

Answer: (d)

6. Rupturing of _________ causes the dehiscence of moss capsule

(a) Calyptra

(b) Annulus

(d) Operculum

Answer: (b)

7. From protonema, leafy gametophyte is formed in

(a) Funaria

(b) Riccia

(d) Anthoceros

Answer: (a)

8. The least number of cells in a male gametophyte is found in

(a) Pinus

(b) Lilium

(d) Pteris

Answer: (b)

9. In Funaria, the antherozoids are

(a) aciliated

(b) bicilated

(d) monociliated

Answer: (b)

10. Peat formation can be ascribed to

(a) Sphagnum

(b) Funaria

(d) Marchantia

Answer: (a)
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MCQ’S ON RESPIRATORY QUOTIENT

1. The respiratory quotient or R.Q. is greater than one in which case?

(a) Glucose

(b) Fat

(d) Organic acid

Answer: (d)

2. RQ (Respiratory Quotient) can be defined as

(a) Volume of carbon dioxide evolved ÷ Volume of oxygen consumed

(b) Volume of carbon dioxide evolved = Volume of oxygen consumed

(d) Volume of oxygen consumed ÷ Volume of carbon dioxide evolved

Answer: (a)

3. The Respiratory quotient (R.Q.) of C39 H72 O6 is

(a) 0.72

(b) 2.71

(d) 3.250

Answer: (a)

4. In anaerobic respiration, the Respiratory quotient is

(a) greater than one

(b) one

(d) infinity

Answer: (d)

5. What will the respiratory quotient of the mixture be when equal quantities of groundnut seeds and germinating maize is taken

(a) infinity

(b) greater than one

(d) one

Answer: (c)

6. The respiratory quotient of a plant structure is dependent on the substrate’s nature that is

(a) metabolized

(b) catabolized

(d) reduced

Answer: (c)

7. The respiratory quotient in succulent plants is always less than one. The reason is

(a) complete reduction

(b) complete oxidation

(d) incomplete oxidation

Answer: (d)

8. The Respiratory quotient in germinating seeds is

(a) zero

(b) less than one

(d) one

Answer: (b)

9. The energy yield due to the outcome of total oxidation of 1 molecule of glucose during the cellular respiration is enough to convert

(a) 38 molecules of ADP to 38 molecules of ATP

(b) 36 molecules of ADP to 36 molecules of ATP

(d) 32 molecules of ADP to 32 molecules of ATP

Answer: (b)

10. Carbohydrate’s respiratory quotient is

(a) equal to five

(b) less than unit

(d) unity

Answer: (d)
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MCQ’S ON AVES

1. A common characteristic of kangaroo, parrot and platypus

(a) Oviparity

(b) Homeothermy

(d) Jaws without teeth

Answer: (b)

2. It is not a living fossil

(a) Sphenodon

(b) Peripatus

(d) King crab

Answer: (c)

3. Which of the following animals are uricotelic?

(a) Land reptiles, birds and insects

(b) Fish and protozoans

(d) Birds and mammals

Answer: (a)

4. The body part, which is absent in birds

(a) Forelimb

(b) Hindlimb

(d) Pelvic girdle

Answer: (a)

5. The long hollow bones and connected air sacs are the characteristic features of

(a) Reptilia

(b) Aves

(d) all the vertebrates

Answer: (b)

6. Which of the following bones form the wishbone of birds?

(a) Hindlimbs

(b) Clavicles

(d) Pelvic girdle

Answer: (b)

7. The soundbox of birds is also known as

(a) synsacrum

(b) pygostyle

(d) larynx

Answer: (c)

8. Ostrich, penguin and kiwi are

(a) Four-toed birds

(b) Migratory birds

(d) Flightless birds

Answer: (d)

9. Which of the following contains pneumatic bones?

(a) Whale

(b) Shark

(d) Rana

Answer: (c)

10. Birds and mammals do not share this property

(a) Respiration by lungs

(b) Ossified endoskeleton

(d) Viviparity

Answer: (d)

MCQ’S ON FAUNA

1. This is the most important human activity that causes the extinction of wildlife

(a) destruction and alteration of natural habitats

(b) introducing alien species

(d) wildlife pollution

Answer: (a)

2. In India, flamingos migrate in large numbers to nest in this region

(a) the Himalayas

(b) coastal areas

(d) Thar

Answer: (c)

3. The Pink Headed duck falls under the category of

(a) Rare species

(b) Endemic species

(d) Vulnerable species

Answer: (c)

4. This is an endangered species of the Manipur

(a) Asiatic Buffalo

(b) Blue Sheep

(d) Sangai (brow anter deer)

Answer: (d)

5. The Red Data Book gives data on

(a) endangered plants and animals

(b) red coloured fishes

(d) lists plants and animals

Answer: (a)

6. Preservation of viable material of endangered species can be done by

(a) Herbarium

(b) Gene pool

(d) Gene Bank

Answer: (d)

7. This is the animal symbol of World Wildlife Fund

(a) Giant Panda

(b) Kangaroo

(d) Tiger

Answer: (a)

8. The diversity of our flora and fauna is affected by the threat posed by

(a) increase in levels of pollution

(b) increasing insensitivity to our environment

(d) global warming

Answer: (b)

9. This crisis will be produced first and foremost if half of the forest coverage of the earth is uncovered

(a) the remaining half of the forest maintains the imbalance

(b) there will be an energy crisis

(d) few species will go extinct

Answer: (d)

10. India belongs to this category in the context of wildlife and natural vegetation

(a) a country lacking in biodiversity e cover

(b) the country with the largest forest cover

(d) one of the twelve Mega biodiversity countries of the world

Answer: (d)

MCQ’S ON SPECIATION

1. What stops a new chromosome variant appearing as a unique mutation from increasing in frequency?

(a) It is because polyploidy is a rare process

(b) it will interbreed with majority form causing heterozygotes to be inferior

(d) all of these

Answer: (b)

2. This is the key to speciation of populations

(a) reproductive health

(b) reproductive isolation

(d) extinction

Answer: (b)

3. This can cause a steeper cline

(a) Extensive migration

(b) Strong selection against heterozygotes

(d) All of these

Answer: (b)

4. The reproductive isolating factor occurring when a sperm and an egg are incompatible is

(a) temporal isolation

(b) ecological isolation

(d) behavioural isolation

Answer: (c)

5. Species, the biological concept is applicable only to the breeding populations

(a) that are adequately large to constitute a viable reproductive group

(b) that are adequately uniform to be recognized by observation

(d) in nature

Answer: (d)

6. Which of the following is included in the concept of genetic bottlenecks?

(a) a loss of genetic diversity in descendent populations

(b) sharing genetic material between two populations

(d) increased ability to resist new diseases

Answer: (a)

7. This type of speciation enables production of hybrids between two species

(a) allopatric speciation

(b) parapatric speciation

(d) sympatric

Answer: (b)

8. This is not a reproductive isolating mechanism

(a) ecological isolation

(b) individual isolation

(d) behavioural isolation

Answer: (b)

9. In this kind of speciation, evolution can be expected to be faster whilst the speciation between the speciating events

(a) Peripheral speciation

(b) Hybridization

(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer: (a)

10. A new species emerges from this geographic range of its ancestor as per this theory of speciation

(a) Sympatric speciation

(b) Parapatric speciation

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

MCQ’S ON CHEMIOSMOTIC HYPOTHESIS

1. Proton concentration is highest in which part of the chloroplast?

(a) Stroma

(b) Intermembrane space

(d) Antennae complex

Answer: (c)

2. Cyclic photophosphorylation is associated with the production of

(a) ATP

(b) NADPH

(d) All of the above

Answer: (a)

3. During cellular respiration, chemiosmosis occurs in

(a) Chloroplast

(b) Mitochondria

(d) Nucleoplasm

Answer: (b)

4. Which of the following is necessary for chemiosmosis?

(a) Proton gradient

(b) Membrane

(d) All of the above

Answer: (d)

5. Which of the following processes is responsible for generating a proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane?

(a) Proton carrier transport H+ from stroma to lumen

(b) Splitting of water on the inner side of the membrane

(d) All of the above

Answer: (d)

6. Proton concentration is highest in which part of the mitochondria?

(a) Matrix

(b) Inner membrane

(d) Intermembrane space

Answer: (d)

7. Which part of ATP synthase forms the transmembrane channel?

(a) CF0

(b) CF1

(d) None of the above

Answer: (a)

8. The ATP synthesised by ATP synthase present in the thylakoid membrane is released towards

(a) stroma

(b) lumen

(d) outer membrane

Answer: (a)

9. ATP synthesis by ATP synthase is driven by the movement of

(a) protons

(b) NADPH

(d) All of the above

Answer: (a)

10. Who proposed the chemiosmotic hypothesis of ATP synthesis?

(a) Francis Crick

(b) H G Khorana

(d) J D Watson

Answer: (c)
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MCQ’S ON FAUNA

1. This is the most important human activity that causes the extinction of wildlife

(a) destruction and alteration of natural habitats

(b) introducing alien species

(d) wildlife pollution

Answer: (a)

2. In India, flamingos migrate in large numbers to nest in this region

(a) the Himalayas

(b) coastal areas

(d) Thar

Answer: (c)

3. The Pink Headed duck falls under the category of

(a) Rare species

(b) Endemic species

(d) Vulnerable species

Answer: (c)

4. This is an endangered species of the Manipur

(a) Asiatic Buffalo

(b) Blue Sheep

(d) Sangai (brow anter deer)

Answer: (d)

5. The Red Data Book gives data on

(a) endangered plants and animals

(b) red coloured fishes

(d) lists plants and animals

Answer: (a)

6. Preservation of viable material of endangered species can be done by

(a) Herbarium

(b) Gene pool

(d) Gene Bank

Answer: (d)

7. This is the animal symbol of World Wildlife Fund

(a) Giant Panda

(b) Kangaroo

(d) Tiger

Answer: (a)

8. The diversity of our flora and fauna is affected by the threat posed by

(a) increase in levels of pollution

(b) increasing insensitivity to our environment

(d) global warming

Answer: (b)

9. This crisis will be produced first and foremost if half of the forest coverage of the earth is uncovered

(a) the remaining half of the forest maintains the imbalance

(b) there will be an energy crisis

(d) few species will go extinct

Answer: (d)

10. India belongs to this category in the context of wildlife and natural vegetation

(a) a country lacking in biodiversity e cover

(b) the country with the largest forest cover

(d) one of the twelve Mega biodiversity countries of the world

Answer: (d)
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MCQ’S ON SPECIATION

1. What stops a new chromosome variant appearing as a unique mutation from increasing in frequency?

(a) It is because polyploidy is a rare process

(b) it will interbreed with majority form causing heterozygotes to be inferior

(d) all of these

Answer: (b)

2. This is the key to speciation of populations

(a) reproductive health

(b) reproductive isolation

(d) extinction

Answer: (b)

3. This can cause a steeper cline

(a) Extensive migration

(b) Strong selection against heterozygotes

(d) All of these

Answer: (b)

4. The reproductive isolating factor occurring when a sperm and an egg are incompatible is

(a) temporal isolation

(b) ecological isolation

(d) behavioural isolation

Answer: (c)

5. Species, the biological concept is applicable only to the breeding populations

(a) that are adequately large to constitute a viable reproductive group

(b) that are adequately uniform to be recognized by observation

(d) in nature

Answer: (d)

6. Which of the following is included in the concept of genetic bottlenecks?

(a) a loss of genetic diversity in descendent populations

(b) sharing genetic material between two populations

(d) increased ability to resist new diseases

Answer: (a)

7. This type of speciation enables production of hybrids between two species

(a) allopatric speciation

(b) parapatric speciation

(d) sympatric

Answer: (b)

8. This is not a reproductive isolating mechanism

(a) ecological isolation

(b) individual isolation

(d) behavioural isolation

Answer: (b)

9. In this kind of speciation, evolution can be expected to be faster whilst the speciation between the speciating events

(a) Peripheral speciation

(b) Hybridization

(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer: (a)

10. A new species emerges from this geographic range of its ancestor as per this theory of speciation

(a) Sympatric speciation

(b) Parapatric speciation

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

MCQ’S ON LEG BONES

1. The intermediate cutaneous nerve of the thigh

(a) pierces sartorius

(b) projects independent of the medial cutaneous nerve of the thigh

(d) expands beneath the knee

Answer: (a)

2. This is not an action of the gracilis

(a) medial rotation of the flexed knee

(b) adduction of the thigh

(d) extension of the thigh

Answer: (b)

3. The anterior tibial artery

(a) found lateral to the deep peroneal nerve

(b) pierces interosseous membrane

(d) gives nutrient artery to the tibia

Answer: (c)

4. This muscle provides the most control of the hip joint movement while sitting

(a) gluteus maximus

(b) semimembranosus

(d) iliacus

Answer: (a)

5. Concerning the knee joint movements

(a) there is no active rotation of the extended knee

(b) major role of the menisci is in extension/flexion of the knee

(d) passive knee-extension will not result in “locking” of the joint

Answer: (a)

6. In the leg

(a) the inferior tibiofibular joint is a synovial joint

(b) the extensor compartment comprises 4 muscles, the anterior tibial vessels and the superficial peroneal nerve

(d) two intermuscular septa attach to the tibia

Answer: (c)

7. This is an incorrect statement regarding the innervation of the lower limb

(a) deep peroneal nerve supplies extensor digitorum brevis

(b) deep peroneal nerve supplies peroneus tertius

(d) common peroneal nerve supplies no muscles in the leg

Answer: (c)

8. The tibial nerve

(a) has one sensory and five motor branches in the popliteal fossa

(b) found deep to flexor digitorum longus in the calf

(d) found between the tendons of tibialis posterior and flexor digitorum longus passing behind the medial malleolus

Answer: (a)

9. The largest bone in the human body is

(a) Tibia

(b) Femur

(d) Skull

Answer: (b)

10. The thinnest bone of the human body is

(a) Incus

(b) Stapes

(d) Malleus

Answer: (c)
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MCQ’S ON LYMPHOCYTES

1. Lymphocytes are of two types, they are

(a) T-cells and erythrocytes

(b) Erythrocytes and Platelets

(d) T-cells and B-cells

Answer: (d)

2. Which of these immune cells are able to quickly respond post any subsequent encounter with the same antigen?

(a) helper T cells

(b) memory cells

(d) basophil

Answer: (b)

3. Basophils, eosinophils and Neutrophils are referred to as

(a) Platelets

(b) Astocytomas

(d) Buffers

Answer: (c)

4. Cytotoxic T cells destroy the target cells

(a) through injection of tumor necrosis factor

(b) by phagocytosis

(d) by releasing oxidizing agents

Answer: (c)

5. This is not a cardinal sign of inflammation

(a) redness

(b) heat

(d) opsonization

Answer: (d)

6. ___________ are released in the respiratory burst having the potent of cell-killing ability

(a) histamines

(b) neutrophils

(d) platelets-derived growth factors

Answer: (c)

7. The phenomena that initiates when a helper T cell binds with a class II MHC protein on a displaying cell is referred to as

(a) T cell proliferation

(b) costimulation

(d) antigen proliferation

Answer: (b)

8. The lymphocytes which can develop immunocompetence in the thymus is

(a) B lymphocytes

(b) T lymphocytes

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

9. An immune response when provoked by a nonself particle is known as

(a) immunoglobulin

(b) antibody

(d) interferon

Answer: (c)

10. The only blood cells which are not viewed as a part of the immune system are

(a) fat cells

(b) glial cells

(d) red blood cells

Answer: (d)

MCQ’S ON PHYLOGENY

1. This phenomena can be induced in those responsible for the horizontal elements of this phylogeny

(a) mitosis

(b) point mutations

(d) endosymbiosis

Answer: (d)

2. If cladistics were used to build a phylogenetic tree of cats, this would be the most appropriate outgroup

(a) tiger

(b) leopard

(d) domestic cat

Answer: (c)

3. To construct a phylogenetic tree in order to apply parsimony, choose

(a) tree with fewest branch points

(b) tree representing fewest evolutionary changes either in morphology or DNA sequences

(d) tree assuming all evolutionary changes with equal probability

Answer: (b)

4. This is used to know the phylogeny

(a) mRNA

(b) rRNA

(d) none of these

Answer: (b)

5. On the basis of cladistics, this eukaryotic kingdom is polyphyletic and hence unacceptable

(a) Monera

(b) Protista

(d) Fungi

Answer: (b)

6. Possessing four appendages when comparing mammals with birds is

(a) a character used to sort bird species

(b) example of analogy rather than homology

(d) a shared ancestral character

Answer: (d)

7. Pick the incorrect statement concerning the terminologies of phylogenetics

(a) branches are the lines in the tree

(b) tips of the branches have long lost sequences or species

(d) connecting point joining two adjacent branches is a node

Answer: (b)

8. This is not a vestigial organ in man

(a) coccyx

(b) nails

(d) homologous

Answer: (b)

9. Pick the incorrect option for the blank

Recent uses of phylogenetic analysis is to analyse ________ in addition to tracing the evolutionary history of specific genes

(a) physical separation methods

(b) proteomes

(d) gene families

Answer: (a)

10. This is incorrect about the merits of molecular data for Phylogenetics study

(a) sampling bias is involved

(b) with the help of molecular data more robust and clear-cut phylogenetic tree can be constructed

(d) more in number compared to fossil records

Answer: (a)

MCQ’S ON SATURATED FAT

1. Vegetable ghee is manufactured by the process of

(a) reduction polymerization

(b) oxidation polymerization

(d) saponification

Answer: (c)

2. This is an example of fat

(a) Groundnut oil

(b) Coconut oil

(d) Glyceryl trioleate

Answer: (c)

3. This is the function of dietary fat

(a) signals cells

(b) forms part of cellular membranes

(d) all of these

Answer: (d)

4. This lipoprotein is produced through the exogenous lipoprotein pathway

(a) low density lipoproteins

(b) Chylomicrons

(d) high density lipoproteins

Answer: (b)

5. Pick the incorrect statement

(a) Examples of oils are coconut oil, glyceryl trioleate, olive oil, etc

(b) at room temperature, oils are liquids

(d) oils are saturated triglycerides

Answer: (d)

6. De novo fatty acid synthesis indicates this

(a) occurs only with prolonged fasting

(b) excess intake of fat

(d) depletion of energy yielding substrates

Answer: (c)

7. Most animal fats are

(a) globular form

(b) linear

(d) unsaturated

Answer: (c)

8. Hydrogenation is the process of conversion of unsaturated acid groups into saturated ones by a catalyst ___________

(a) Sn

(b) Ni

(d) Ti

Answer: (b)

9. Saturated fats are a type of fat wherein the fatty acids possess

(a) coordinate covalent bonds

(b) triple bonds

(d) single bonds

Answer: (d)

10. Oleic acid is an example of

(a) inert fatty acids

(b) neutral fatty acids

(d) saturated fat

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON TRANSDUCTION

1. Through transduction when a recipient bacterial cell picks up bacterial DNA, then

(a) the new DNA replicates every time the recipient undergoes multiplication

(b) the DNA is destroyed

(d) the new DNA should enter a new bacteriophage or it is lost

Answer: (a)

2. A specialized transducing phage that attacks an infected cell with lysogenic stage of the same virus produces

(a) HFT

(b) HFR

(d) F`

Answer: (a)

3. This is the role undertaken by bacteriophage in transduction

(a) episome

(b) recipient

(d) vector

Answer: (d)

4. The ability of cells to uptake DNA fragments from the surroundings is known as

(a) HFR

(b) Competence

(d) Fitness

Answer: (b)

5. Who discovered Transduction

(a) Iwanowsky

(b) Hayes, Lederberg and Woolman

(d) Lederberg and Zinder

Answer: (d)

6. This process involves transferring naked DNA fragments between bacteria

(a) Vectoring

(b) Transformation

(d) Conjugation

Answer: (b)

7. This is the virulence of viruses producing bacterial cell after infection if a specialized transducing virus attacks a healthy bacterial cell

(a) Virulence depreciates

(b) Equal virulence seen as the original one

(d) No virulence

Answer: (d)

8. It is ___________ when the phage tranduces those bacterial genes only which are adjoining to the prophage in the bacterial chromosome

(a) conjugation

(b) restricted transduction

(d) generalized transduction

Answer: (b)

9. This is incorrect regarding specialized transduction

(a) observed in lambda phages such as K12

(b) viral genome is incorporated in the bacterial genome

(d) lysogenic viruses are capable of performing this

Answer: (c)

10. This virus is used for transduction

(a) Lambda phage

(b) T7 phage

(d) T2 phage

Answer: (a)

MCQ’S ON EMP PATHWAY

1. This enzyme catalyzes the transfer of a phosphoryl group from ATP to glucose

(a) Hexokinase

(b) Phosphoglucose isomerase

(d) Phosphoglucose mutase

Answer: (a)

2. Glycolysis is the conversion of

(a) Fructose into phosphoenolpyruvate

(b) Fructose into pyruvate

(d) Glucose into pyruvate

Answer: (d)

3. The EMP pathway in eukaryotes usually takes place in

(a) nucleus

(b) lysosome

(d) cytosol

Answer: (d)

4. In the last step of the EMP pathway or glycolysis, this substrate is used

(a) Phosphoenolpyruvate

(b) Pyruvate

(d) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate

Answer: (a)

5. When yeasts carry out alcoholic fermentation of glucose, the coenzyme – thiamine pyrophosphate is needed by

(a) transaldolase

(b) pyruvate decarboxylase

(d) hexokinase

Answer: (b)

6. The activity of this enzyme increases when the ATP supply of a cell depletes

(a) Glucokinase

(b) Phosphofructokinase-1

(d) Pyruvate kinase

Answer: (b)

7. This is not one of the steps between the glycolysis of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and 3-phosphoglycerate

(a) formation of 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate

(b) oxidation of NADH to NAD+

(d) catalysis by phosphoglycerate kinase

Answer: (b)

8. In EMP pathway, the process by which ATP is formed from ADP is

(a) reduction

(b) oxidative phosphorylation

(d) photo phosphorylation

Answer: (c)

9. In erythrocytes, the EMP pathway or glycolysis produces pyruvate which is metabolized further to

(a) haemoglobin

(b) ethanol

(d) CO2

Answer: (c)

10. This enzyme catalyzes the first step of glycolysis or the EMP pathway

(a) Glucokinase

(b) Pyruvate kinase

(d) Hexokinase

Answer: (d)

MCQ’S ON PINUS

1. “Chilgoza” a popular dry fruit is a production of

(a) Pinus gerardiana

(b) Pinus sylvestris

(d) Pinus monophylla

Answer: (a)

2. Mesophyll tissue of Pinus needle is composed of

(a) Spongy parenchyma

(b) Armed parenchyma

(d) Transfusion tissue

Answer: (a)

3. Male gametophytes of Pinus is

(a) 2 celled

(b) 4 celled

(d) 10 celled

Answer: (b)

4. This is how we can characterize the secondary wood of Pinus

(a) vessels are present

(b) resin ducts are absent

(d) resin cells are present

Answer: (c)

5. This is a correct statement about Pinus

(a) forms deciduous trees in temperate areas

(b) exhibits xerophytic character and grows in deserts

(d) is of economic value

Answer: (d)

6. Formation of non-motile male gametes is observed in

(a) Fern

(b) Pinus

(d) Selaginella

Answer: (b)

7. Winged seeds are present in

(a) Pinus

(b) Cycas

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

8. Meroblastic kind of embryo development occurs in

(a) Pinus

(b) Ferns

(d) All of these

Answer: (a)

9. This is the best explanation for the pyramidal shape (excurrent) of Pinus (branches producing the appearance of a tall cone)

(a) influence of auxins on the development of stem tips

(b) water efficiently transported from ground to leaves

(d) competition for sunlight amongst adjoining trees

Answer: (c)

10. These possess needle-like foliage leaves

(a) Pinus

(b) Fern

(d) Mosses

Answer: (a)

MCQ’S ON PERISTALSIS

1. This structure is absent in frogs and present in man

(a) thyroid gland

(b) adrenal gland

(d) pancreas

Answer: (c)

2. This hormone facilitates the secretion of HCl from the stomach

(a) somatomedin

(b) secretin

(d) renin

Answer: (c)

3. Pick the incorrect statement

(a) cephalic phase of gastric secretion does not involve the release of gastrin

(b) contraction of pyloric sphincter is caused due to large doses of gastrin

(d) gastric peristalsis includes propulsive grinding and mixing movements

Answer: (a)

4. In humans, this pair of food constituents arrive at the stomach in a state of complete indigestion

(a) Starch and protein

(b) Fat and starch

(d) Cellulose and fat

Answer: (d)

5. This is most likely to happen if parietal cells of the gut epithelium turn partially non-functional

(a) Steapsin turns all the more effective

(b) pH of the stomach will sharply decline

(d) Inadequate hydrolysis of pepsin into peptones and proteoses

Answer: (d)

6. This regulates the peristalsis of the intestine

(a) Brachial plexus

(b) Sacral plexus

(d) Discoidal plexus

Answer: (c)

7. This is incorrect about vitamins

(a) tocopherol is anti-sterility vitamin

(b) vitamins are indispensable for life

(d) vitamins are organic catalysts

Answer: (c)

8. Minimum peristalsis takes place in

(a) Oesophagus

(b) Duodenum

(d) Stomach

Answer: (c)

9. This prevents keratinization of the skin

(a) Vitamin D

(b) Vitamin C

(d) Vitamin A

Answer: (d)

10. This macromineral is essential for the synthesis of insulin

(a) magnesium

(b) chlorine

(d) sulphur

Answer: (d)

MCQ’S ON MACRONUTRIENTS

1. The possible supplies of nitrogen and phosphorous ions in the soil is exhausted as they are found as

(a) particles having no charge

(b) ions that are negatively charged

(d) a disproportionate mixture of negatively charged ions

Answer: (b)

2. Plant of cabbage consumes phosphorous from

(a) phosphate rocks

(b) water irrigated soil

(d) none of the above

Answer: (b)

3. This is not absorbed through soil

(a) Potassium

(b) Nitrogen

(d) All of these

Answer: (c)

4. This is a major macronutrient, component of vitamins and enzymes

(a) sea salt

(b) sulphur

(d) calcium phosphate

Answer: (b)

5. This macronutrients is a structural component of a cell wall activating the enzymes

(a) nitrogen dioxide

(b) boron dioxide

(d) calcium

Answer: (d)

6. This macronutrient checks the opening and closing of the stomata and decreases the water loss from leaves

(a) nitrogen

(b) methane

(d) potassium

Answer: (d)

7. Deficiency of this causes the death of root tips and stem

(a) carbon

(b) calcium

(d) phosphorous

Answer: (b)

8. Mustard’s sinigrin pungent principle can be attributed to

(a) tannins containing nitrogen

(b) glycoside containing amino group

(d) alkyloids containing cyanide radicle

Answer: (c)

9. This essential element is not a constituent of any enzyme however triggers the activity of many enzymes

(a) K

(b) Mn

(d) Zn

Answer: (a)

10. Carbon is made available to crop plants in this form

(a) element carbon

(b) carbonates

(d) carbon dioxide

Answer: (d)
——————————————————————————————————————————————
MCQ’S ON SEX DETERMINATION

1. In an entity with genetic composition AA+XXY such as Drosophila will be a normal female. In the case of mammals, it will be?

(a) Turner

(b) Klinefelter

(d) Normal male

Answer: (b)

2. ______________ discovered XY sex chromosomes

(a) M J D White

(b) Nettil Stevans

(d) Mendel

Answer: (b)

3. In this plant, sex determination was first studied

(a) Mirabilis

(b) Melandrium

(d) Rumex

Answer: (b)

4. This technique can be used to detect the chromosomal abnormality of an unborn baby

(a) Tissue culture

(b) Ultrasound

(d) Amniocentesis

Answer: (d)

5. A foetus’ determination of gender is dependent on

(a) mother’s age

(b) father’s health

(d) sperm’s nature

Answer: (d)

6. This number of Barr bodies are found in a female with XXXX chromosomes

(a) Four

(b) Three

(d) One

Answer: (b)

7. If a boy has sexual characters of that of a girl, its genotype would be

(a) XYY

(b) XO

(d) XXX

Answer: (c)

8. Theory of linkage was put forward by

(a) De Vries

(b) Sutton

(d) Morgan

Answer: (d)

9. The chromosomes accounted for sex determination are referred to as

(a) Heterosis

(b) Multiple alleles

(d) Autosomes

Answer: (c)

10. The condition of Free martin is observed in

(a) Frog

(b) Rabbit

(d) Man

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON NEW CROPS

1. Source of liquid wax is

(a) Blue whale oil

(b) Simmondsia chinensis (Jojoba)

(d) both (b) and (c)

Answer: (d)

2. Olericulture is

(a) Cultivation of cash crops

(b) cultivation of oil seeds

(d) cultivation of fruits

Answer: (c)

3. Pusa hybrid 4 is a variant of

(a) Brinjal

(b) Banana

(d) Potato

Answer: (c)

4. This is Jojoba

(a) Leucaena

(b) Simmondsia chinensis

(d) Crotalaria

Answer: (b)

5. A common beverage, Cola is obtained from

(a) stems

(b) leaves

(d) seeds

Answer: (d)

6. Identify this good green manure leguminous tree that is small and fast-growing, leaves enriched with nitrogenous compounds

(a) Jojoba

(b) Guayule

(d) Dalbergia

Answer: (c)

7. Hybridization of this pair led to the development of a man-made cereal, Triticale

(a) Rice and wheat

(b) Oat and wheat

(d) Gram and wheat

Answer: (c)

8. This is a beverage plant

(a) Poullinia cupana

(b) Ilex paraguariensis

(d) None of the above

Answer: (c)

9. Pick the incorrect pair

(a) Nutritive seeds – Psophocarpus tetragonolobus

(b) Liquid wax obtained – Simmondsia chinensis

(d) Source of furniture Wood – Parthenium argentatum

Answer: (d)

10. This is an underutilized oil crop

(a) Cocos nucifera

(b) Azadirachta indica

(d) None of the above

Answer: (b)

MCQ’S ON ALCOHOLISM

1. Consumption of this causes increase in the fat synthesis, dilation of blood vessels, low blood sugar and stomach-inflammation

(a) drug addiction and tobacco

(b) alcohol

(d) drug addiction

Answer: (a)

2. This causes tunnel vision

(a) Smoking

(b) Alcohol

(d) Vitamin A deficiency

Answer: (b)

3. After drinking alcohol, consumption of this leads to death

(a) Morphine

(b) Opium

(d) All of these

Answer: (c)

4. This drug along with alcohol generates marked drowsiness otherwise does not produce sedative effect

(a) Marijuana

(b) Valium

(d) Barbiturate

Answer: (c)

5. Constituent of alcoholic beverage is

(a) Propyl alcohol

(b) Methyl alcohol

(d) Mix of all of these

Answer: (c)

6. This is a result of the appearance of the fatty liver syndrome

(a) synthesis of fatty acids, fat and glycerols

(b) synthesis of fat from alcohol

(d) excessive synthesis of fat from fatty acids

Answer: (b)

7. Alcoholism causing fatty acid syndrome is called

(a) Cirrhosis

(b) Neuritis

(d) Nephritis

Answer: (a)

8. This is a withdrawal symptom of alcohol consumption

(a) Delirium

(b) Nausea and vomiting

(d) all of these

Answer: (b)

9. This causes the maximum accumulation of fat in the liver

(a) meat and egg

(b) alcohol

(d) starch

Answer: (b)

10. This is a consequence of alcohol addiction

(a) psychosis, hypertension and fatty liver syndrome

(b) cardiovascular diseases, hypertension and fatty liver syndrome

(d) all of these

Answer: (b)

MCQ’S ON PTERIDIUM PTERIS DRYOPTERIS

1. In Dryopteris the dehiscence of sporangium is controlled by

(a) Indusium

(b) Sorus

(d) Annulus

Answer: (d)

2. Pick the incorrect statement

(a) Antheridia develop on ventral surface of prothallus

(b) Archegonia has one binucleate neck canal cell

(d) Mature archegonia secretes maleic acid

Answer: (c)

3. In this portion of the Dryopteris (fern plant), the stele is arranged in the form of a ‘C’

(a) Old Rachis

(b) Rhizome

(d) Young Rachis

Answer: (d)

4. The differentiating factor between Pteris and Funaria is in having

(a) swimming antherozoids

(b) an independent gametophyte

(d) dominant sporophytic phase

Answer: (d)

5. The opening mechanism in Dryopteris of sporangium is functional by

(a) Annulus

(b) Stalk

(d) None of the above

Answer: (c)

6. The sori in Pteris are

(a) reniform and discontinuous

(b) vermiform and discontinuous

(d) linear and continuous

Answer: (d)

7. The common aspect of two distinct generations in a single life history is observed in

(a) Spirogyra

(b) Mango

(d) Bacillus

Answer: (c)

8. Meiosis in Dryopteris/Pteridophytes occurs at this time

(a) formation of sex organs

(b) formation of spores

(d) formation of gamete

Answer: (b)

9. Alternation of generation is distinctly found in

(a) Viruses

(b) Bacteria

(d) Pteris (Fern)

Answer: (d)

10. The condition of monoecious is found in

(a) Pteridium

(b) Pinus

(d) Cycas

Answer: (a)

MCQ’S ON SELAGINELLA

1. Division to which Selaginella belongs is

(a) Psilopsida

(b) Pteropsida

(d) Spenopsida

Answer: (c)

2. The character that Selaginella possesses which is of evolutionary significance is

(a) Strobilus

(b) Heterospory

(d) Ligule

Answer: (b)

3. This statement regarding Selaginella is incorrect

(a) Endodermis is trabeculated

(b) Vascular cylinder is protostelic

(d) Selaginella is commonly distributed on plains and hills

Answer: (d)

4. In this species of Selaginella, the apex continues its vegetative growth beyond the formation of strobilus

(a) S.cuspidata

(b) S.helvetica

(d) None of the above

Answer: (a)

5. This is uncommon in Selaginella and Funaria

(a) Embryo

(b) Roots

(d) Motile sperms

Answer: (b)

6. The presence of ________ anatomically characterizes the stem of Selaginella

(a) Protostele

(b) Amphiphloic siphonostele

(d) Ectophloic siphonostele

Answer: (a)

7. This characterizes the presence of Selaginella

(a) Ligule

(b) Homospory

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

8. Male gametes in Selaginella are

(a) Multiflagellated

(b) Biflagellated

(d) Aflagellated

Answer: (b)

9. Stele of Selaginella stem is

(a) Eustelic

(b) Solenostelic

(d) Dictyostelic

Answer: (c)

10. This is the innermost layer of sporangium of Selaginella

(a) Tapetum

(b) Synangium

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

MCQ’S ON CLASS AMPHIBIA

1. Dicondylic skull along with ten pairs of cranial nerves is found in

(a) Mammalia

(b) Amphibia

(d) Pisces

Answer: (b)

2. This about Class Amphibia is correct

(i) fertilization is internal

(ii) respiration is through gills only

(iii) body is divisible into head and trunk

(iv) heart is two chambered – one ventricle and one auricle

(a) only (i)

(b) only (iii)

(d) all are correct

Answer: (b)

3. A frog has

(a) jaws but no teeth

(b) eyes but no lids

(d) hands but no fingers

Answer: (c)

4. Even after attaining sexual maturity, larval characters are retained. It is known as

(a) Phylogenesis

(b) Neoteny

(d) Ontogenesis

Answer: (b)

5. Frogs dwell in water or in the vicinity of water as

(a) it respires through the skin

(b) it can see through its transparent eyelids whilst swimming

(d) water is a good source for food

Answer: (a)

6. In amphibians, Organ of Jacobson is for

(a) temperature

(b) pressure

(d) sound

Answer: (c)

7. The differentiating factor of the venous system of frog and rabbit is in the presence of this

(a) hepatic vein

(b) three vena cavae

(d) hepatic portal system

Answer: (c)

8. Neck is not found in a frog. This absence helps the frog to

(a) swim in water

(b) respire

(d) jump on ground

Answer: (d)

9. The body temperature of a frog is 20 degrees celsius in an environment having a temperature of 30 degrees celsius. The temperature of the frog in the new environment is

(a) 25 degrees celsius

(b) 20 degrees celsius

(d) between 20-30 degrees celsius

Answer: (c)

10. This is not a true amphibian animal

(a) Toad

(b) Salamander

(d) Frog

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON CLASS PISCES

1. A common trait between tadpole and fish is

(a) scales

(b) lateral line

(d) legs

Answer: (b)

2. This has a cartilaginous endoskeleton

(a) Bony fishes

(b) Mollusca

(d) Elasmobranch

Answer: (d)

3. True fishes have fins and gills. This is not a true fish

(a) Hippocampus – SeaHorse

(b) Hythalamictyes – Silver carp

(d) Lepisma – Silverfish

Answer: (d)

4. This fish shows dorsal fin modified into suckers

(a) Neoceratodus

(b) Hippocampus

(d) Torpedo

Answer: (c)

5. This is a living fossil

(a) Lepidosiren

(b) Latimeria

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

6. This is a migratory fish

(a) Ribbon fish

(b) Carp

(d) Shark

Answer: (c)

7. The distinguishing factor between rays and sharks are

(a) type of tail fin

(b) position of gill slits

(d) nature of their scales

Answer: (b)

8. Type of association between shark and suckerfish is

(a) Predation

(b) Parasitism

(d) Symbiosis

Answer: (c)

9. Placoid scales are found in

(a) paleontological fishes

(b) lung fishes

(d) cartilaginous fishes

Answer: (d)

10. This is a characteristic feature of fishes

(a) gills and epidermal scales

(b) tail and epidermal scales

(d) venous heart and tail

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON EMBRYOLOGY

1. This phase in the development of sperm has no counterpart in ovum-development

(a) spermiogenesis

(b) phase of multiplication

(d) polar body formation

Answer: (a)

2. During this phase, the nuclear envelope begins to disappear

(a) cytokinesis

(b) S phase

(d) Prometaphase

Answer: (d)

3. In humans, the number of ova and sperms that would be produced from 100 secondary oocytes and 100 secondary spermatocytes during gametogenesis is

(a) 50 ova, 100 sperms

(b) 100 ova, 100 sperms

(d) 200 ova, 200 sperms

Answer: (c)

4. The undifferentiated primordial germ cells are larger in size and their chromatin rich nuclei are distinct in

(a) growth phase

(b) multiplication phase

(d) all of these

Answer: (b)

5. Spermatogenesis and oogenesis describe the process of meiosis in males and females, respectively. This statement about both processes is true

(a) both are halted in an intermediate step until puberty

(b) both produce the same number of viable gametes

(d) oogenesis forms two polar bodies, spermatogenesis forms only one

Answer: (c)

6. Typically, in humans, gametes are disease-free or even in other animals as

(a) gametes are immune to diseases

(b) germs cannot attack gametes

(d) none of these

Answer: (c)

7. Phenomena that creates female gametes, oogenesis is ceased at prophase I up till puberty. This describes the DNA content of a female’s gametes during her childhood.

(a) 23 chromosomes, 23 chromatids

(b) 23 chromosomes, 46 chromatids

(d) 46 chromosomes, 46 chromatids

Answer: (c)

8. The amount of yolk and its distribution are changed in the egg. This is affected

(a) ferrilization

(b) cleavage pattern

(d) number of blastomeres

Answer: (b)

9. Haemoendothelial placenta takes place in

(a) rat and rabbit

(b) camel and deer

(d) ape and man

Answer: (a)

10. Atretic follicles occur in

(a) Liver

(b) Testis

(d) Ovary

Answer: (d)

MCQ’S ON TISSUE CULTURE

1. Which of the following statement is incorrect about agar?

(a) Remains stable at incubation temperature

(b) Does not react with media constituents

(d) Not digested by plant enzymes

Answer: (c)

2. In tissue culture system, this is the main effect of cytokines

(a) shoot elongation

(b) adventitious root formation

(d) adventitious shoot formation

Answer: (d)

3. This is not a basic component of culture media for plant cultivation

(a) amino acids

(b) sucrose/sugar

(d) serum albumin

Answer: (d)

4. Which of the following plant propagation method uses girdling?

(a) cuttings

(b) grafting

(d) both (a) and (b)

Answer: (c)

5. The ability of single cells to divide and produce all differentiated cells in the entity.

(a) Totipotency

(b) Multipotent

(d) Unipotent

Answer: (a)

6. Which of the following is the first transgenic crop?

(a) flax

(b) tobacco

(d) cotton

Answer: (b)

7. Which of the following is not a feature of plant cells?

(a) Consists of plastids

(b) Cell wall outside the cell membrane

(d) Cell-cell communication through plasmodesmata

Answer: (c)

8. Which of the following is a superbug?

(a) virus

(b) bacteria

(d) worms

Answer: (b)

9. This is a cellular totipotency property.

(a) plants

(b) animals

(d) none of the above

Answer: (a)

10. Growth of plant tissues in artificial media is called _______.

(a) cell hybridization

(b) plant tissue culture

(d) gene expression

Answer: (b)

MCQ’S ON CYTOSKELETON

1. This statement is true

(a) microtubules are composed of tubulin

(b) microfilaments are composed of actin

(d) all the above

Answer: (d)

2. What are flagella and cilia of eukaryotic cells made of?

(a) tubulin

(b) desmin

(d) keratin

Answer: (a)

3. Cell lining of the lumen of the fallopian tube is involved in ciliary action to transport the egg from the ovary to the uterus. The cytoskeleton structure responsible for this movement is

(a) flagella

(b) microfilaments

(d) intermediate filaments

Answer: (c)

4. The intermediate filaments found in hairs and nails are a type 1 IF protein, composed of

(a) tubulin

(b) keratin

(d) lamin

Answer: (b)

5. Malformation of these cytoskeleton structures can be linked to an inability to contract a muscle

(a) microfilaments

(b) microtubules

(d) intermediate filaments

Answer: (a)

6. This is a microfilament inhibitor

(a) cytochalasin-B

(b) colchicine

(d) aspirin

Answer: (a)

7. This is the most heterogeneous type of cytoskeleton filament

(a) intermediate filaments

(b) microfilaments

(d) none of the above

Answer: (a)

8. This cell lacks cytoskeleton

(a) prokaryotic bacterial cells

(b) eukaryotic plant cells

(d) None of the above

Answer: (d)

9. Microfilaments are composed of

(a) mosaic protein

(b) tubulin protein

(d) actin protein

Answer: (d)

10. A network of microfilaments and microtubules is classified as

(a) cytoskeleton

(b) active skeleton

(d) endoplasmic skeleton

Answer: (a)

MCQ’S ON ABA AND OTHER GROWTH REGULATORS

1. Abscission zone can be induced for formation by

(a) abscisic acid

(b) cytokinins

(d) auxins

Answer: (a)

2. Presence of this in the seed is linked with dormancy

(a) abscisic acid

(b) gibberellic acid

(d) ethylene

Answer: (a)

3. Abscisic acid treatment results in

(a) root elongation

(b) stomatal closure

(d) leaf expansion

Answer: (b)

4. ABA contains

(a) one asymmetric and two symmetric carbon atoms

(b) one symmetric and two asymmetric carbon atoms

(d) one symmetric carbon atom

Answer: (c)

5. Morphactins are

(a) synthetic auxins

(b) synthetic gibberellins

(d) none of these

Answer: (c)

6. Dormin is a

(a) abscisic acid

(b) growth promoter

(d) none of these

Answer: (a)

7. This is wound hormone

(a) phyllocaline

(b) auxin

(d) necrohormone

Answer: (d)

8. This is a plant hormone

(a) acetylene

(b) dormin

(d) all of these

Answer: (b)

9. This is a naturally occurring growth inhibitor

(a) NAA

(b) IAA

(d) ABA

Answer: (d)

10. Abscisic acid regulates

(a) leaf fall and dormancy

(b) cell division

(d) shoot elongation

Answer: (a)

MCQ’S ON LINKAGE AND CROSSING OVER

1. Crossing over takes place in the

(a) Diakinesis stage

(b) Anaphase stage

(d) Leptotene stage

Answer: (c)

2. There are 4 pairs of chromosomes in a Drosophila. The linkage groups present in it are

(a) one more than the pair of chromosomes

(b) one less than the pair of chromosomes

(d) eight

Answer: (c)

3. Percentage of crossing over is more when

(a) genes are located in a different cell

(b) genes are not linked

(d) linked genes are located far apart from each other

Answer: (d)

4. If the percentage of crossing over between two genes is 10, then the distance between two genes will be

(a) 5 morganoid

(b) 10 centimorgans

(d) 40 map units

Answer: (b)

5. Alleles of different genes that are on the same chromosome can occasionally be separated by a phenomenon called

(a) crossing over

(b) continuous variation

(d) pleiotropy

Answer: (a)

6. Repulsion and coupling are two faces of

(a) mutation

(b) chiasmata

(d) crossing over

Answer: (c)

7. If gene frequency between genes a and c is 2%; b and c is 13%; b and d 4%; a and b 15%; c and d 17 and a and d 19%. The sequence of genes in a chromosome is

(a) a,d,b,c

(b) d,b,a,c

(d) a,c,b,d

Answer: (d)

8. This is the reason why Mendel did not recognize linkage phenomenon in his experiments

(a) he studied only pure plants

(b) he did not have a powerful microscope

(d) many chromosomes to handle

Answer: (c)

9. In a linear chromosome map distance between 4 loci is as follows a-b is 10%, a-d is 3%, b-c is 4% and a-c is 6%. The crossover frequency between c and d is

(a) 4-12%

(b) 3-6%

(d) 3%

Answer: (d)

10. Where does this evidence come from? – crossing over takes place at a four-stranded stage and not at two stranded stages of chromosomes.

(a) studies on linkage maps of chromosomes in Drosophila

(b) studies of meiosis in maize

(d) 2:2:2:2 organization of ascospores in Neurospora

Answer: (d)

11. Crossing over occurs between

(a) Non-sister chromatids of non-homologous chromosome at zygotene stage of prophase-I

(b) Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosome at pachytene stage of prophase-I

(d) Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosome at zygotene stage of prophase I

Answer: (b)

MCQ’S ON MULTIPLE ALLELISM

1. A person with antigens A and B and no antibodies belongs to blood group or in which blood group antibodies are absent

(a) O

(b) AB

(d) A

Answer: (b)

2. Inheritance of ABO blood group system is an example of

(a) dominance

(b) epistasis

(d) multiple allelism

Answer: (d)

3. During the serological test in which anti-human serum is mixed with the blood of another animal, the blood of this animal gives the thickest precipitate

(a) mule

(b) dog

(d) gibbon

Answer: (c)

4. In disputed parentage, blood group analysis of mother, alleged father and child can

(a) not be of any use

(b) only prove that he cannot be the father

(d) none of these

Answer: (b)

5. This is the genotype of blood group A

(a) IA IA|

(b) IA IO|

(d) IA IA| or IA IO|

Answer: (d)

6. If a patient with blood group B requires an immediate blood transfusion, this type can be given

(a) AB and B

(b) AB and A

(d) B and O

Answer: (d)

7. In men, this is genetically dominant

(a) Albinism

(b) Haemophilia

(d) color blindness

Answer: (c)

8. Color of the skin in humans is regulated by

(a) polygenic effect

(b) lethal genes

(d) none of the above

Answer: (c)

9. The recessive character typically is expressed only when present in a double recessive condition. But, a single recessive gene can express itself in humans when genes are found on

(a) either on autosome or X chromosome

(b) X chromosome of male

(d) any autosome

Answer: (b)

10. Two allelic genes are situated on

(a) any two chromosomes

(b) two non-homologous chromosomes

(d) same chromosomes

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON MYCOPLASMA

1. Mycoplasma is

(a) eukaryotic and unicellular

(b) prokaryotic and unicellular

(d) eukaryotic and multicellular

Answer: (b)

2. The “witches broom” of legumes is caused by a

(a) fungus

(b) bacterium

(d) virus

Answer: (c)

3. This species of mycoplasma causes human sterility

(a) T.mycoplasma

(b) M.fermentans

(d) all of the above

Answer: (d)

4. In mycoplasma, the elementary cell body performs the function of

(a) respiration

(b) reproduction

(d) metabolism

Answer: (b)

5. This is called “Jockers of microbiological park”

(a) nostoc

(b) mycoplasma

(d) none of these

Answer: (b)

6. These are osmotically inactive

(a) nostoc

(b) mycoplasma

(d) all of these

Answer: (b)

7. Vancomycin and Penicillin do not affect the mycoplasma as

(a) there is no Golgi body

(b) there are no mitochondria

(d) there is no cell wall

Answer: (d)

8. This is a bacteria without cell wall

(a) cyanobacteria

(b) mycoplasma

(d) virus

Answer: (b)

9. Little leaf of brinjal is caused by

(a) algae

(b) fungus

(d) virus

Answer: (c)

10. This is the smallest organism capable of autonomous growth and reproduction

(a) mycoplasma

(b) viroid

(d) none of these

Answer: (a)

MCQ’S ON FLORAL FORMULA

1. Tricarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium is found in the flowers of

(a) Liliaceae

(b) Poaceae

(d) Solanaceae

Answer: (a)

2. Perigynous flowers are found in________.

(a) Rose

(b) China rose

(d) Guava

Answer: (a)

3. Tulip, onion, cucumber, guava, potato, brinjal, mustard, china rose – amongst these, how many have superior ovary?

(a) Six

(b) Five

(d) Three

Answer: (a)

4. Standard petal of a papilionaceous corolla is known as_______.

(a) Carina

(b) Corona

(d) Pappus

Answer: (c)

5. Free-central placentation is found in_______.

(a) Citrus

(b) Brassica

(d) Dianthus

Answer: (d)

6. _________ is the large shield-shaped cotyledon, the wheat grain possesses in its embryo

(a) coleoptile

(b) scutellum

(d) epiblast

Answer: (b)

7. These flowers show radial symmetry______.

(a) Cassia

(b) Pisum

(d) Brassica

Answer: (d)

8. Keel is the characteristics feature of the flower of_______.

(a) tomato

(b) aloe

(d) tulip

Answer: (c)

9. These many plants among Salvia, Sesbania, Mustard, Indigofera, Aloe, Allium, groundnut, turnip, and radish gram possess stamens with diverse lengths in their flowers

(a) six

(b) five

(d) three

Answer: (c)

10. floral formula is the floral formula of:

(a) Brassica

(b) Petunia

(d) Allium

Answer: (b)

MCQ’S ON REGULATIONS OF GENE EXPRESSION IN EUKARYOTES

1. Eukaryotic entities

(a) in the presence of a cAMP molecule, it carries out protein synthesis

(b) have only operons assisting in gene expression

(d) transcription occurs in the cytoplasm and translation in nucleus

Answer: (c)

2. A genomic DNA possesses functioning units, a group of genes under the influence of promoters known as

(a) genes

(b) operons

(d) codon

Answer: (b)

3. All regulatory proteins possess a common DNA binding motif that is specific flexes in their protein chains permitting them to interlock with

(a) the outside groove of DNA helix

(b) the major groove of DNA helix

(d) the inner groove of DNA helix

Answer: (b)

4. Regulatory proteins turn transcription off through binding to a site rapidly at the front of the promoter and many times even overlaps the promoter, this site is the

(a) regulatory site

(b) operator site

(d) transcriptional control site

Answer: (b)

5. Seemingly, the vertebrate cells contain a protein which binds to clusters of 5-methylcytosine ensuring that the bound gene stays in the “off” position. This regulation on the role of gene regulation is an outcome of

(a) Methylation

(b) Translation

(d) operator suppression

Answer: (a)

6. The transcriptional gene control in eukaryotes is mediated by

(a) metabolites that bind to the cis-acting elements

(b) trans-acting factors failing to bind to cis-acting elements

(d) repressor proteins that bind to operator sites

Answer: (c)

7. Basic tools of genetic regulation are the ability of some proteins to bind to specific

(a) regulatory DNA sequences

(b) regulatory RNA sequences

(d) promoter portions of genes

Answer: (a)

8. In the regulation of gene expression, this is an incorrect statement

(a) in the bacteria, it permits to replicate with no control

(b) in the bacteria, it permits to adapt to changing environments

(d) permits the functioning of multicellular entities on the whole

Answer: (a)

9. There are these many histones in the core of a nucleosome

(a) 8

(b) 6

(d) 2

Answer: (a)

10. In eukaryotes and bacteria, the most common form of regulation is

(a) promoter control

(b) translation control

(d) transcriptional control

Answer: (d)

MCQ’S ON HARDY WEINBERG LAW

1. In the Caucasian population of the US, 1 in 2500 babies is affected by a recessive condition – cystic fibrosis. In this population, the frequency of the dominant allele is

(a) 0.02

(b) 0.36

(d) 0.98

Answer: (d)

2. A sampled “a” population has 36% of homozygous recessive genotype (aa). Then the frequency of allele “a” is

(a) 0%

(b) 20%

(d) 70%

Answer: (c)

3. 360 out of 1000 individuals in a population have a genotype of AA while 480 have Aa genotype. The rest 160 belong to aa. Frequency of allele A in this population is

(a) 0.7

(b) 0.6

(d) 0.4

Answer: (b)

4. A gene locus has two alleles A and a. If the frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then the frequency of homozygous dominant, heterozygous and homozygous recessive individuals in the population is

(a) 0.16(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.36(aa)

(b) 0.16(AA); 0.24(Aa); 0.36(aa)

(d) 0.36(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.16(aa)

Answer: (a)

5. What does p2 in the below mentioned Hardy-Weinberg equation indicate?

(p+q)2 = p2 + 2pq + q2

(a) individuals that are heterozygous dominant

(b) individuals having a lethal allele

(d) individuals that are homozygous recessive

Answer: (c)

6. 25 individuals in a population are homozygous dominant, then the individuals that are expected to be homozygous recessive are

(a) 100

(b) 75

(d) 25

Answer: (d)

7. Consider a population of sheep to be in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. The allele for black wool(w) has an allele frequency of 0.81 while the allele for white wool(W) has an allele frequency of 0.19. Then the percentage of heterozygous individuals in the population is

(a) 4%

(b) 15%

(d) 66%

Answer: (c)

8. This condition is essential for a population to be in the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium

(a) random mating

(b) no mutations

(d) all of these

Answer: (d)

9. This statement describes the Hardy-Weinberg law the best

(a) it is impossible to predict expected allele frequencies mathematically

(b) in large populations, dominant alleles become more prevalent

(d) mechanism of inheritance in a large population does not change allele frequency

Answer: (d)

10. This is true of the population which are included in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium

(a) entities migrate constantly

(b) populations should be limited and small

(d) process of natural selection is occurring

Answer: (c)

11. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium operates in the absence of

(a) Gene flow

(b) Mutation

(d) All of these

Answer: (d)

MCQ’S ON GYMNOSPERMS

1. ‘Saccus’ term is used for

(a) exine of pollen grains of Pinus

(b) intine of pollen grains of Pinus

(d) Wings of seeds of Pinus

Answer: (c)

2. Flowers and cones are similar because

(a) both assist seed dispersal

(b) both are responsible for attracting insects to pollinate

(d) both are reproductive structures

Answer: (d)

3. An autotrophic, prokaryotic and nitrogen-fixing symbiont is present in

(a) Cicer

(b) Cycas

(d) Pinus

Answer: (b)

4. Pick the pair that is incorrectly matched

(a) Cycas – coralloid roots

(b) Abies – wood tar, wood gas

(d) Sequoia – Redwood tree

Answer: (b)

5. This serves as a connecting link between the angiosperms and gymnosperms

(a) Gnetales

(b) Coniferales

(d) Cycadales

Answer: (a)

6. Though Cycas has an embryo with two cotyledons, it is not grouped under dicotyledonous plants as

(a) ovules are naked

(b) possesses compound leaves

(d) resembles a palm tree

Answer: (a)

7. In gymnosperms, the ovules typically are

(a) bitegmic and anatropous

(b) bitegmic and orthotropous

(d) unitegmic and anatropous

Answer: (c)

8. Tallest known gymnosperm is

(a) Pinus

(b) Ginkgo

(d) Ephedra

Answer: (c)

9. Inverted omega-shaped organization of vascular bundles is seen in

(a) cycas root

(b) cycas stem

(d) cycas rachis

Answer: (d)

10. Phanerogams without the ovaries are

(a) angiosperms

(b) pteridophytes

(d) all the above

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON PHYLUM ASCHELMINTHES

1. Ascaris has ____________________ cells in the excretory system

(a) Green gland

(b) Flame

(d) Renette

Answer: (d)

2. Syncytial epidermis is found in_______.

(a) Ascaris

(b) Metaphire

(d) Periplaneta

Answer: (a)

3. ______________ is known as a coelom derived from blastocoel

(a) Enterocoel

(b) Haemocoel

(d) Schizocoel

Answer: (c)

4. This is the basis on which female Ascaris can be identified.

(a) Two spicules found at the posterior end

(b) Presence of postanal and preanal papillae

(d) Common cloacal aperture

Answer: (c)

5. In Ascaris, the period of incubation outside the human body is

(a) More than 30 days

(b) 15-30 days

(d) 4-8 days

Answer: (b)

6. In the life cycle of Ascaris, the infective stage is

(a) Third lava

(b) Second larva

(d) Fertilized egg

Answer: (b)

7. The body cavity of Ascaris is pseudocoel as

(a) it is filled with pseudocoelomic fluid

(b) has very little parenchyma

(d) bound extremely by muscle layer and internally by intestines

Answer: (d)

8. Ascaris lumbricoides is found living in the intestine of

(a) Pig

(b) Homo sapiens

(d) Goat and sheep

Answer: (b)

9. The process of morphological differentiating male and female sexes is known as

(a) sexual dimorphism

(b) polymorphism

(d) none of the above

Answer: (a)

10. This has no alternate host

(a) Plasmodium vivax

(b) Tapeworm

(d) Ascaris lumbricoides

Answer: (d)

MCQ’S OF LAMARCKISM

1. This is an example of industrial melanism is

(a) Mutation

(b) Neo Darwinism

(d) Natural selection

Answer: (d)

2. Most likely, people who perform tough manual work can develop

(a) thick epidermis on their palms

(b) thick subcutaneous fat in their palms

(d) greater number of sweat pores in their hands

Answer: (a)

3. In Lamarck’s view, the key of organic evolution is that each progeny

(a) shows struggle for existence

(b) characters acquired by parental generation are inherited

(d) phylogeny is repeated in its ontogeny

Answer: (b)

4. 72 generations of Drosophila were kept in darkness by a scientist. Despite that, the first flies possessed eyes that were normal. This disapproves the theory of

(a) Acquired characters

(b) Synthetic theory

(d) use and disuse

Answer: (a)

5. This is a most popular example of Lamarck

(a) Primrose

(b) Snakes

(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer: (d)

6. The idea of use and disuse of organs was given by

(a) Lamarck

(b) Morgan

(d) Hugo de Vries

Answer: (a)

7. Acquired characteristics of Lamarck are not inherited and have an evolutionary value. Who gave this statement?

(a) Weismann

(b) Hugo de Vries

(d) Charles Darwin

Answer: (a)

8. Who stated this theory – organ in use will develop and if not used will weaken to turn vestigial

(a) Mendel

(b) De Vries

(d) Lamarck

Answer: (d)

9. Scientists regarded as Neo Lamarckists are

(a) Correns, Hugo de Vries and Tschermak

(b) August Weismann and T.H Morgan

(d) Kammerer and Mc Dougall

Answer: (d)

10. Germplasm theory against Lamarck’s principle was put forward by

(a) Darwin

(b) Lamarck

(d) Hugo de Vries

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON APOPTOSIS

1. This is an extracellular messenger of apoptosis

(a) tumor necrosis factor

(b) serine

(d) ribozyme

Answer: (a)

2. This is concerned with the intrinsic pathway of apoptosis

(a) cytochrome d

(b) cytochrome c

(d) cytochrome a

Answer: (b)

3. Apoptotic bodies can be recognized with the presence of these on the surface

(a) phosphatidyl tyrosine

(b) phosphatidylinositol

(d) phosphatidylserine

Answer: (d)

4. Apoptotic cells detach due to the inactivation of this

(a) PKC

(b) PKB

(d) FAK

Answer: (d)

5. Shrinking of the nucleus is caused when this inactivates

(a) gelsolin

(b) tubulin

(d) lamin

Answer: (d)

6. This cell organelle participates actively in animal apoptosis

(a) nucleus

(b) vacuoles

(d) chloroplast

Answer: (c)

7. This can stimulate cytochrome release from mitochondria

(a) Akt

(b) Bid

(d) Smac

Answer: (b)

8. This cannot be killed by apoptosis

(a) immune cells

(b) cells with DNA damage

(d) a cell infected with viruses

Answer: (c)

9. This is an anti-apoptotic protein

(a) Bim

(b) Bcl-Xs

(d) NOXA

Answer: (c)

10. This is an active cell death process

(a) necrosis

(b) lysis

(d) senescence

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON MANURES AND FERTILIZERS

1. Green manure plants are

(a) Poaceae

(b) Solanaceae

(d) Compositae

Answer: (c)

2. This chemical fertilizer is essential for better rhizobial nitrogen fixation

(a) calcium

(b) potassium

(d) phosphorus

Answer: (d)

3. Azolla is used as a biofertilizer as it possesses

(a) humus in large quantities

(b) rhizobium

(d) cyanobacteria

Answer: (d)

4. Pyrethrin is obtained from

(a) Chrysanthemum cinerariifolium

(b) Azadirachta indica

(d) Tagetes erecta

Answer: (a)

5. This is not included in organic farming

(a) crop rotation

(b) chemical fertilizer

(d) compost and farmyard manures

Answer: (b)

6. Appropriate use of cow dung is made in

(a) medicine

(b) fuel

(d) building/construction material

Answer: (c)

7. In children, this disease is caused due to excess nitrate fertilizers usage

(a) mumps

(b) jaundice

(d) methaemoglobinaemia

Answer: (d)

8. For paddy, the best fertilizer is

(a) Bacillus polymyxa

(b) Bacillus megaterium

(d) Rhizobium meliloti

Answer: (c)

9. Composted manure is formed from

(a) farm and household refuse

(b) animal refuse and rotten vegetables

(d) green and farmyard manure

Answer: (b)

10. Green manure is

(a) Maize

(b) Rice

(d) Sesbania

Answer: (d)

MCQ’S ON MITOCHONDRIA

1. Cristae in mitochondria serves as sites for

(a) oxidation reduction reaction

(b) protein synthesis

(d) flavoproteins are phosphorylated

Answer: (a)

2. Pick the incorrect statement

(a) mitochondrial DNA is known as mtDNA

(b) mitochondria is the powerhouse of the cell

(d) mitochondria is the site for krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation

Answer: (c)

3. Inner membrane of mitochondria is rich in phospholipid _______

(a) phosphatidylserine

(b) phosphatidylinositol

(d) cardiolipin

Answer: (d)

4. Mt DNA is

(a) simple single stranded circular DNA molecule

(b) simple double stranded circular DNA molecule

(d) simple single stranded linear DNA molecule

Answer: (b)

5. Inner mitochondrial membrane has

(a) cytochrome oxidase complex

(b) b-c 1 complex

(d) all of the above

Answer: (d)

6. This is not a function of mitochondria

(a) fatty acid breakdown

(b) non-shivering thermogenesis

(d) glycolysis and associated ATP production

Answer: (d)

7. This statement is incorrect about mitochondrial membrane

(a) outer membrane is permeable to all molecule types

(b) outer membrane is resembles a sieve

(d) none of these

Answer: (c)

8. Oxysomes of F0-F1 particles take place on

(a) Chloroplast surface

(b) Thylakoid

(d) Mitochondrial surface

Answer: (c)

9. Pick the incorrect statement

(a) generally, chloroplasts are larger than mitochondria

(b) mitochondria and chloroplasts both have DNA

(d) mitochondria and chloroplasts both have an internal compartment, the thylakoid space bound by thylakoid membrane

Answer: (d)

10. Typically, the inner membrane of mitochondria is highly convoluted to form a series of infolding known as

(a) grana

(b) thylakoids

(d) lamellae

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON GREENHOUSE EFFECT

1. These are features of higher energy level and shorter wavelengths

(a) infrared radiation

(b) alpha radiation

(d) ultraviolet radiation

Answer: (d)

2. The normal greenhouse effect is essential for sustenance of life on Earth as it helps in maintaining the average temperature of the earth to

(a) 15 ℃

(b) 33 ℃

(d) 50 ℃

Answer: (a)

3. The wavelength of infrared radiations is

(a) shorter

(b) longer

(d) zero

Answer: (b)

4. Greenhouse gases present in a very high quantity is

(a) ethane

(b) carbon dioxide

(d) methane

Answer: (b)

5. Gas molecules absorbing thermal infrared radiation and present in large quantity to change the climate system is known as

(a) ozone gases

(b) beta radiations

(d) greenhouse gases

Answer: (d)

6. Burning of fossil fuels

(a) increased oxygen level

(b) increases greenhouse gases

(d) increased ethane level

Answer: (b)

7. This is the most potent greenhouse gas in terms of efficiency

(a) N2O

(b) CFC

(d) CH4

Answer: (b)

8. This statement is false about the greenhouse effect

(a) life on the earth is possible due to the greenhouse effect

(b) the greenhouse effect is a natural process that maintains the earth’s temperature

(d) increased emission of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere increases earth’s temperature

Answer: (c)

9. The one which is not considered as naturally occurring greenhouse gas is

(a) CFCs

(b) methane

(d) nitrous oxide

Answer: (a)

10. The relative contribution of various greenhouse gases to total global warming will not be

(a) CFCs – 14%

(b) N2O – 12%

(d) Methane – 20%

Answer: (b)

MCQ’S ON PANCREAS

1. Inhibition of gastric secretions is brought about by

(a) GIP

(b) Cholecystokinin

(d) Pancreozymin

Answer: (a)

2. One of the constituents of the pancreatic juice while poured into the duodenum in humans is

(a) trypsin

(b) enterokinase

(d) chymotrypsin

Answer: (c)

3. Pancreatitis can be produced by the following drug

(a) Ciprofloxacin

(b) Nalidixic acid

(d) L-Asparaginase

Answer: (d)

4. Gasless abdomen in X-ray is a sign of

(a) Ulcerative colitis

(b) Acute pancreatitis

(d) Necrotizing enterocolitis

Answer: (b)

5. This is a major product of chief cells

(a) Mucus

(b) Vitamin B12

(d) HCl

Answer: (c)

6. The islets of Langerhans are found in

(a) Stomach

(b) Alimentary canal

(d) Liver

Answer: (c)

7. Secretion of pancreatic juice is triggered by

(a) secretin

(b) enterogastrone

(d) enterokinase

Answer: (a)

8. This is a common passage for bile and pancreatic juice

(a) stomach

(b) ampulla

(d) duct of wirsung

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Also referred to as the Ampulla of Vater, the Hepato-pancreatic duct is formed by the coming together of the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct. Consequently, this serves as the common passage for the pancreatic juice and bile.

9. Pancreas is not

(a) Elongated organ

(b) Compound

(d) Located above duodenum

Answer: (d)

10. This is most diagnostic investigation for acute pancreatitis

(a) Serum LDH

(b) Serum amylase

(d) Serum P-isoamylase

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON GLOBAL WARMING

1. This process is functional in removing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere

(a) lightning

(b) deforestation

(d) photosynthesis

Answer: (d)

2. Mainly, Ozonosphere is depleted by

(a) CFCs

(b) excess CO2

(d) excess CO

Answer: (a)

3. This is not a possible adverse effect of global warming

(a) sea level rise

(b) an increase of UVB radiation

(d) extraordinary weather patterns

Answer: (b)

4. Correct descending order of relative contribution of various greenhouse gases to total global warming is

(a) carbon dioxide; methane; CFCs; nitrous oxide

(b) carbon dioxide; methane; nitrous oxide; CFCs

(d) carbon dioxide; CFCs; methane; nitrous oxide

Answer: (a)

5. CFCs have a continuing effect on the ozone layer as

(a) they are efficiently absorbed by atmospheric water vapours

(b) they are being produced in increasing amounts all over the world

(d) Cl atoms formed by them only act as catalysts in reactions causing degradation of the ozone

Answer: (d)

6. CFCs are crucial in global warming along with their role in ozone depletion as it

(a) is known for destroying ozone, which cools the earth

(b) blocks ultraviolet-B radiation

(d) absorbs earthshine in 10 micron region

Answer: (d)

7. Which of the following is not a major greenhouse gas?

(a) ozone

(b) water vapour

(d) carbon dioxide

Answer: (a)

8. Ultraviolet radiations from sunlight cause a reaction producing

(a) carbon monoxide

(b) ozone

(d) sulphur dioxide

Answer: (b)

9. Surplus of atmospheric carbon dioxide causes an increase in the greenhouse effect as carbon dioxide

(a) is opaque to infrared rays

(b) is not opaque to infrared rays

(d) reduce atmospheric pressure

Answer: (a)

10. Checking of re radiating heat by atmospheric carbon dioxide, dust, methane, ozone is known as

(a) solar effect

(b) radioactive effect

(d) greenhouse effect

Answer: (d)

MCQ’S ON ECOLOGICAL SUCCESSION

1. In ecological succession, the intermediate developmental phase is known as

(a) ecesis

(b) climax

(d) sere

Answer: (d)

2. This is true about secondary succession

(a) follows primary succession

(b) takes place on a deforested site

(d) begins on a bare rock

Answer: (b)

3. Lithosphere serves as a reservoir for

(a) nitrogen cycles

(b) carbon cycles

(d) phosphorus cycles

Answer: (d)

4. This is not a climax vegetation

(a) grasses

(b) savannah

(d) hydrophytes

Answer: (d)

5. This about ecological succession is incorrect

(a) food chain relationships become more complex

(b) species diversity increases as succession proceeds

(d) is a random process

Answer: (d)

6. An example of plants occupying the second stage of hydrosere is

(a) Salix

(b) Vallisneria

(d) Typha

Answer: (b)

7. On the sand, ecological succession is

(a) halosere

(b) xerosere

(d) psammosere

Answer: (d)

8. Order of basic processes involved in succession is

(a) invasion -> stabilization -> completion and coaction -> reaction -> nudation

(b) nudation -> stabilization -> completion and coaction -> invasion -> reaction

(d) nudation -> invasion -> completion and coaction -> reaction -> stabilization

Answer: (d)

9. Process of the successful establishment of species in a new area is known as

(a) climax

(b) sere

(d) invasion

Answer: (c)

10. In ecological succession, the final stable community is known as

(a) climax community

(b) ultimate community

(d) seral community

Answer: (a)

MCQ’S ON SKELETAL TISSUE

1. Tendons and ligaments are ________.

(a) Muscular tissue

(b) Connective tissue

(d) Fibrous connective tissue

Answer: (d)

2. Skeletal muscle bundles are held together by a common connective tissue layer known as _______.

(a) Fascia

(b) Perimysium

(d) Endomysium

Answer: (a)

3. Composition of bone marrow is_______.

(a) Adipose tissue

(b) Adipose, areolar tissue and blood

(d) Adipose tissue and fibroblasts

Answer: (b)

4. The formation of erythrocytes in foetus takes place in_________.

(a) Redbone marrow

(b) Sarcoplasm

(d) Blood

Answer: (c)

5. Nasal septum gets damaged. Its recovery requires cartilage known as_______.

(a) Elastic cartilage

(b) Fibrous cartilage

(d) Hyaline cartilage

Answer: (d)

6. The membrane that surrounds the bone is known as as________.

(a) Pericardium

(b) Periosteum

(d) Endosteum

Answer: (b)

7. Mammalian pinna is supported by ________.

(a) Elastic cartilage

(b) Hyaline cartilage

(d) Calcified cartilage

Answer: (a)

8. Hyaline cartilage does not have__________.

(a) Blood capillaries

(b) Cells

(d) Fibres

Answer: (d)

9. Major inorganic components of vertebrate bone are______.

(a) Potassium hydroxide

(b) Calcium phosphate

(d) None of the above

Answer: (b)

10. Haversian canals occur in_______.

(a) Humerus

(b) Scapula

(d) Clavicle

Answer: (a)

MCQ’S ON INFERTILITY

1. This is a major reason for infertility in women

(a) Anovulation

(b) Weight

(d) All of these

Answer: (d)

2. Boosting the intake of _________ can help women trying to conceive

(a) Potassium

(b) Folic acid

(d) Nickel

Answer: (b)

3. Nerve supply of ovary is through

(a) Sacral fibers

(b) Pudendal nerve

(d) none of the above

Answer: (c)

4. Menstrual phase bleeding is due to

(a) necrosin

(b) fibrinolysis

(d) vasoconstriction and ischaemia

Answer: (d)

5. Fertility in women is impaired by

(a) Hernia

(b) High blood pressure

(d) Gallstones

Answer: (c)

6. Infertility is when a couple fails to conceive after

(a) 4 years of unprotected sex

(b) 3years of unprotected sex

(d) 1 year of unprotected sex

Answer: (d)

7. Procedures used to treat infertility are

(a) ICSI – Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection

(b) IVF – In Vitro Fertilization

(d) All of these

Answer: (d)

8. Right ovarian artery arises from

(a) Uterine artery

(b) Aorta

(d) Common iliac artery

Answer: (b)

9. This condition impairs infertility

(a) PCOD

(b) Fibroids

(d) All of these

Answer: (d)

10. In women, this sexually transmitted disease can result in infertility

(a) Human papillomavirus (HPV)

(b) Pelvic inflammatory disease

(d) None of the above

Answer: (b)

MCQ’S OF MORPHOLOGY OF RAT

1. Which of the following is the scientific name for the brown rat?

(a) Rattus rattus

(b) Rattus meltada

(d) Bandicota bengalensis

Answer: (c)

2. Which of the following are the parts of the limb of a rat from the centre to the distal end?

(a) Autopodium, zeugopodium and stylopodium

(b) Zeugopodium, autopodium and stylopodium

(d) Stylopodium, autopodium and zeugopodium

Answer: (c)

3. Scales in rats are present on______.

(a) Tail

(b) Head

(d) Hindlimbs

Answer: (a)

4. These teeth are not found in rats_______.

(a) Incisors and molars

(b) Canines and molars

(d) Incisors and premolars

Answer: (c)

5. Diastema is found in

(a) Man

(b) Rat

(d) None of the above

Answer: (b)

6. Which of the following statement is true about the function of Vibrissae?

(a) Tactile

(b) Auditory

(d) Olfactory

Answer: (a)

7. Which of the following organ is present in a rat and not in a frog?

(a) Ileum

(b) Stomach

(d) Duodenum

Answer: (b)

8. Which of the following is the largest gland in the body of a mammal?

(a) Pituitary

(b) Pancreas

(d) Thyroid

Answer: (c)

9. Which of the following is the important mammalian character of a rat?

(a) Hair

(b) Pinna

(d) Mammary glands

Answer: (d)

10. Which of the following is a close-set hair covering a rat’s body?

(a) Pili tactiles

(b) Muzzle

(d) Vibrissae

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON VASCULAR TISSUE

1. Lymph differs from blood in having ________.

(a) Much more of water content

(b) No WBC

(d) No protein

Answer: (c)

2. What happens to the red blood cells when it is kept in 0.8% NaCl?

(a) Burst

(b) Shrink

(d) None of the above

Answer: (c)

3. Division of White Blood Cells takes place by_______.

(a) Meiosis

(b) Amitosis

(d) None of the above

Answer: (d)

4. Least constancy of shape is exhibited by_______.

(a) Blood platelets

(b) Epithelial Cells

(d) Red blood Cells

Answer: (c)

5. Which of the following statement is true about the Camel’s erythrocytes?

(a) Oval and nucleated

(b) Oval and non-nucleated

(d) Circular, non-nucleated and biconcave

Answer: (a)

6. In adults, Red blood Cells is formed in ________.

(a) The liver

(b) The thymus

(d) The bone marrow of long bones

Answer: (d)

7. What is the average life span of human Red blood Cells?

(a) 90 days

(b) 100 days

(d) None of the above

Answer: (c)

8. When the count of white blood cells drops below the optimum level of blood it is known as ________?

(a) Anaemia

(b) Leukopenia

(d) All of the above

Answer: (b)

9. The protein content is the highest in the lymphatics of ________.

(a) Liver

(b) Kidney

(d) All the above

Answer: (a)

10. An abnormal rise in the number of RBC count is known as________.

(a) Polycythemia

(b) Anaemia

(d) All the above

Answer: (a)

MCQ’S ON CONSERVATION OF NATURAL RESOURCES

1. Soil conservation is the process where

(a) soil is aerated

(b) soil is protected against loss

(d) soil erosion is allowed

Answer: (b)

2. Which of the following is an anti-forest conservation activity?

(a) preservation of wild animals

(b) preservation of fires

(d) economy in lumbering

Answer: (c)

3. Soil erosion can be prevented by

(a) Afforestation

(b) overgrazing

(d) removal of vegetation

Answer: (a)

4. The energy produced by the hydel-power plant is

(a) Non-polluting and non-renewable

(b) Polluting and non-renewable

(d) Polluting and renewable

Answer: (c)

5. This is an example of non-polluting renewable type of energy

(a) tidal

(b) wind

(d) all of these

Answer: (d)

6. This group consists of non-renewable organic resources

(a) Water, air and minerals

(b) natural gas, oil and coal

(d) sand, air and clay

Answer: (b)

7. Which one represents the regulative function of forests?

(a) storage and release of gases

(b) production of essential oils

(d) conservation of water and soil

Answer: (a)

8. In many industries, tin, steel and copper are being substituted by

(a) ceramics

(b) high-strength glass fibres

(d) all of these

Answer: (d)

9. Demersal fish is obtained from

(a) open sea

(b) sea bottom

(d) lakes

Answer: (b)

10. Deforestation may reduce the chances of

(a) frequent landslides

(b) erosion of surface soil

(d) frequent cyclones

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON IMPLANTATION AND GASTRULATION

1. Implantation is the process of__________.

(a) Attachment of blastocyst to the uterine wall

(b) Egg movement

(d) Egg fertilization

Answer: (a)

2. Which of the following embryo has a parasitic mode of nutrition?

(a) Mammalian embryo

(b) Bird’s embryo

(d) Reptilian embryo

Answer: (a)

3. which of the following events is likely to take place, if the nuclei from an 8-celled stage of an embryo are transplanted into enucleated eggs?

(a) Recipient egg dies

(b) Donor nuclei die in the new environment

(d) Formation of the viable embryo in the recipient eggs

Answer: (d)

4. Egg implantation is followed by______.

(a) Parturition

(b) Copulation

(d) Gestation

Answer: (d)

5. Pseudopregnancy is a physiological condition, comparable to normal pregnancy except that there is no__________.

(a) endometrial changes

(b) developing foetus

(d) developing ovum

Answer: (b)
6. Which of the following organ is formed during gastrulation?

(a) Gill

(b) Vitelline membrane

(d) Archenteron

Answer: (d)

7. Mesoderm gives rise to all the structures except ______.

(a) Gonads

(b) Circulatory system

(d) Muscular system

Answer: (c)

8. In human females, the fertilized eggs get implanted in the uterus after ________.

(a) One month of fertilization

(b) Two months of fertilization

(d) Three weeks of fertilization

Answer: (c)

9. Brain, nerve cells and spinal cord or the central nervous system develops from embryonic ______.

(a) Mesoderm

(b) Endoderm

(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer: (c)

10. Which of the following options contains only the mesodermal structures?

(a) Heart, blood, bones, notochord

(b) Heart, blood, muscles, liver

(d) Liver, heart, bones, blood

Answer: (a)

MCQ’S ON MALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM

1. There is a connective tissue cord extending between the testis and abdominal wall known as

(a) mesenteric cord

(b) gubernaculum

(d) spermatic cord

Answer: (d)

2. Which of these is an accessory reproductive gland in male mammals

(a) Inguinal gland

(b) Prostate gland

(d) Gastric gland

Answer: (b)

3. There are some special types of cells present in the seminiferous tubules known as Sertoli cells which are

(a) somatic cells

(b) germinal cells

(d) reproductive cells

Answer: (c)

4. Seminiferous tubules develop central lumen after

(a) Old age

(b) Prepuberal time

(d) Puberty

Answer: (d)

5. Another name for Bulbourethral gland is

(a) Meibomian gland

(b) Prostate gland

(d) Cowper’s gland

Answer: (d)

6. In man, Cryptorchidism is the condition when

(a) testes do not descent into the scrotum

(b) there are two testes in each scrotum

(d) testis enlarges in the scrotum

Answer: (a)
7. The elastic tissue which connects the cauda epididymis to the scrotal sac is

(a) Caput epididymis

(b) Scrotal ligament

(d) Tendinous cord

Answer: (c)

8. By the contraction of the spermatic cord, the testis of man are not taken to the abdominal cavity due to this structure

(a) fat bodies and gubernaculum present over the testis

(b) attachment of testis by gubernaculum to the scrotal sac only

(d) both (b) and (c)

Answer: (b)

9. The seminiferous tubules of the testis are lined by the germinal epithelium consisting of

(a) spermatids

(b) cells of Sertoli

(d) spermatocytes

Answer: (b)

10. These cells of the testes secrete testosterone

(a) Sertoli cells

(b) cells of germinal epithelium

(d) secondary spermatocytes

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON CLEAVAGE BIOLOGY

1. The fertilized egg divides by the process of

(a) Oogenesis

(b) Cleavage

(d) Invagination

Answer: (b)

2. If an unfertilized egg is pricked with a microneedle, it will

(a) transform into a tadpole at a faster rate

(b) die immediately

(d) start dividing

Answer: (d)

3. A freshly unfertilized egg of hen contains

(a) 10,000 cells

(b) 1,000 cells

(d) one cell

Answer: (d)

4. How many cleavages are completed in the 16-celled stage of an egg?

(a) 12

(b) 8

(d) 3

Answer: (c)

5. The spindle in the determinate cleavage is

(a) Horizontal

(b) Oblique

(d) Sub-equatorial

Answer: (b)
6. This is also known as meroblastic cleavage

(a) Partial

(b) Unequal holoblastic

(d) Superficial

Answer: (a)

7. The type of cleavage found in insects

(a) Holoblastic

(b) Discoidal

(d) Meroblastic

Answer: (c)

8. Discoidal and superficial are which types of cleavage?

(a) Unequal holoblastic

(b) equal holoblastic

(d) Meroblastic

Answer: (d)

9. If the first cleavage furrow divides zygote completely into two, the cleavage type is

(a) meroblastic

(b) holoblastic

(d) radial

Answer: (b)

10. The only human system that is derived from all the three germ layers is

(a) Nervous system

(b) Digestive system

(d) Excretory system

Answer: (b)

MCQ’S ON FEMALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM

1. Graafian follicle are characteristically found in the

(a) ovary of frog

(b) testis of mammal

(d) ovary of mammal

Answer: (d)

2. In female mammals, Bartholin’s glands open into the

(a) fallopian tubes and release a secretion which makes sperms motile

(b) uterus and release a lubricating fluid during the birth of young ones

(d) vestibule and release a lubricating fluid in the vagina

Answer: (d)

3. After ovulation, the Graafian follicle becomes an endocrine organ called

(a) fibrin

(b) ovarian tube

(d) corpus luteum

Answer: (d)

4. The nutritive medium for the ejaculated sperms is given by

(a) fallopian tube

(b) vaginal fluid

(d) uterine lining

Answer: (c)

5. The stroma of the ovary consists of blood vessels, nerves, muscle fibres and a type of protein called

(a) Fibrin

(b) Collagen

(d) Globulin

Answer: (b)
6. Layer of cells immediately surrounding the ovum but outside the zona pellucida is called as

(a) germinal epithelium

(b) corona radiata

(d) membrana granulosa

Answer: (b)

7. Corpus luteum is the source of secretion of

(a) LH

(b) Estradiol

(d) Progesterone

Answer: (d)

8. The membrane investing the ovum just outside the membrana granulosa is

(a) theca interna

(b) discus proligerus

(d) vitelline membrane

Answer: (a)

9. In the female rabbit, the expanded proximal part of the oviduct is known as

(a) fimbriated funnel

(b) uterus

(d) vestibule

Answer: (b)

10. If after ovulation, pregnancy does not take place, then the corpus luteum

(a) produces lot of relaxin and oxytocin

(b) degenerates in a short time

(d) becomes active and secretes a lot of LH and FSH

Answer: (b)

MCQ’S ON FERTILIZATION

1. In female mammals, Bartholin’s glands open into the

(a) Fallopian tubes and release a secretion which makes sperms motile

(b) uterus and release a lubricating fluid during the birth of young ones

(d) urinary bladder and assist in release of urine

Answer: (c)

2. This is a minute cell which separates from the animal egg during maturation is known as

(a) Primary oogonia

(b) secondary oogonia

(d) polar bodies

Answer: (d)

3. The nutritive medium for the ejaculated sperms is given by

(a) fallopian tube

(b) uterine lining

(d) vaginal fluid

Answer: (c)

4. This helps in the penetration of the egg by the sperm

(a) fertilization membrane

(b) antifertilizin

(d) fertilizin

Answer: (c)
5. In a man, sperms move after ejaculation at a rate of nearly

(a) 2 to 4 inches/minute

(b) 2 to 4 mm/minute

(d) 2 to 4 feet/minute

Answer: (b)
6. Sperm lysin, the enzymatic substance produced by sperms in mammals is known as

(a) cryanogamone

(b) hyaluronic acid

(d) hyaluronidase

Answer: (d)

7. Egg development without fertilization is known as

(a) Parthenogenesis

(b) Metagenesis

(d) Oogenesis

Answer: (a)

8. After a sperm has penetrated an ovum in the process of fertilization, entry of further sperms is prevented by

(a) condensation of yolk

(b) development of the vitelline membrane

(d) development of the pigment coat

Answer: (c)

9. In the process of fertilization, this is true

(a) the entry of sperm activates the egg for completing meiosis

(b) only one sperm reaches the egg and enters it

(d) two haploid nuclei fuse and immediately divide to produce two nuclei, which are again haploid

Answer: (a)

10. In rabbits, humans and other placental mammals, fertilization occurs in

(a) vagina

(b) ovary

(d) uterus

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON ENERGY REQUIREMENT

1. The energy balance in nutrition refers to the

(a) equilibrium between energy intake and energy expenditure

(b) equilibrium of rate of reduction

(d) amount of starch in take

Answer: (a)

2. This provides the greatest energy value per gram of nutrient

(a) protein

(b) fat

(d) water

Answer: (b)

3. The following cooking processes does not rely on coagulation taking place

(a) making yoghurt

(b) boiling an egg

(d) frying chips

Answer: (d)

4. The everyday dietary requirement of an average adult active moderately is approximately

(a) 1000 kcal

(b) 2500 kcal

(d) 8000 kcal

Answer: (b)

5. Caloric values for proteins, carbohydrates and fats are

(a) 80 cal, 40 cal, and 100 cal respectively

(b) 5.65 cal, 4.1 cal, and 9.45 cal respectively

(d) 4.68 cal, 50 cal and 80 cal respectively

Answer: (b)

6. Among the energy values of nutrients, 9.3 calories is that of

(a) Carbohydrate

(b) Proteins

(d) Fats

Answer: (d)

7. What is the sequence in which organic compounds are used by the body during prolonged fasting

(a) Carbohydrates first, proteins and then lipids

(b) Carbohydrates first, lipids and then proteins

(d) Fats first, carbohydrates and then proteins

Answer: (b)

8. An approximate of how much protein does an average adult male require each day?

(a) 240g

(b) 24g

(d) 72g

Answer: (d)

9. Mammals can drink water and also derive it from

(a) conversion of oxyhaemoglobin to haemoglobin

(b) breakdown of glycogen into glucose

(d) saliva secretion

Answer: (c)

10. Cooking starch in moist conditions may

(a) oxidize it

(b) caramelize it

(d) coagulate it

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON INTERNAL STRUCTURE OF ROOT STEM AND LEAF

1. Well-developed pith is found in

(a) Monocot root and Dicot stem

(b) Dicot root and Dicot stem

(d) Dicot and Monocot stems

Answer: (a)

2. In monocot leaf

(a) Veins form a network

(b) Mesophyll is not differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma

(d) Bulliform cells are absent from epidermis

Answer: (b)

3. In orchids, Velamen tissues is found in

(a) Leaves

(b) Root

(d) Shoot

Answer: (b)

4. Polyarch and exarch vascular bundles occur in

(a) Dicot stem

(b) Monocot stem

(d) Monocot root

Answer: (d)
5. Collenchymatous hypodermis is characteristics of

(a) Hydrophytes

(b) Monocot and dicot stem

(d) Dicot stem

Answer: (d)

6. The lacunae in the vascular bundles of monocot stem is

(a) Metaxylem

(b) A mucilage canal

(d) A large sized protoxylem

Answer: (c)

7. The protoxylem in its midrid bundle in a vertical section of a dorsiventral leaf

(a) is not distinct

(b) faces the ventral epidermis of the leaf

(d) is surrounded by metaxylem

Answer: (c)

8. This is not a characteristic feature of anatomy of dicotyledonous root

(a) Pith little or absent

(b) Secondary growth

(d) Vascular bundles 15-20

Answer: (d)

9. Vascular bundles are scattered in

(a) Dicot stem

(b) Dicot root

(d) Monocot stem

Answer: (d)

10. The correct situation of mesophyll in isobilateral grass leaf is shown by

(a) Palisade along both the surface

(b) Undifferentiated mesophyll

(d) Palisade towards adaxial surface

Answer: (b)

MCQ’S ON SALIVARY GLANDS

1. Animals eating own faecal matter are

(a) Detritivorous

(b) Coprophagous

(d) Sanguivorous

Answer: (b)

2. Microphagial nutrition takes place in

(a) Hydra

(b) Paramecium

(d) Euglena

Answer: (b)

3. Osmotrophy is found in

(a) Taenia

(b) Pila

(d) Asterias

Answer: (a)

4. The alimentary canal is typically longer in

(a) herbivores

(b) carnivores

(d) omnivores

Answer: (a)

5. The duct of Bartholin is linked with

(a) sublingual glands

(b) maxillary glands

(d) infraorbital glands

Answer: (a)

6. Largest salivary gland is

(a) submaxillary

(b) parotid

(d) infraorbital

Answer: (b)

7. In rabbits, the number of salivary glands present are

(a) 5 pairs

(b) 4 pairs

(d) 2 pairs

Answer: (b)

8. Tongue is attached to the floor of buccal cavity by

(a) falciform ligament

(b) frenulum

(d) mesentery

Answer: (b)

9. Salivary glands are absent in

(a) Musca domestica

(b) Blatta orientalis

(d) Rana hexadactyla

Answer: (d)

10. Nuhn’s glands are present on

(a) stomach

(b) tongue

(d) intestine

Answer: (b)

MCQ’S ON HORMONAL CONTROL DIGESTION

1. _________regulates the enzymatic quantity in pancreatic juice.

(a) Cholecystokinin

(b) Gastrin

(d) Secretin

Answer: (c)

2. In a mammal, the release of pancreatic juice from the pancreas is triggered by ______.

(a) Cholecystokinin

(b) Trypsinogen

(d) Enterokinase

Answer: (c)

3. Which of the following secretes secretin hormone?

(a) Oesophagus

(b) Ileum

(d) Stomach

Answer: (c)

4. The hormone gastrin is secreted by_______.

(a) Pancreas

(b) Liver

(d) Intestine

Answer: (c)

5. Secretion of gastric juice is controlled by ______.

(a) Cholecystokinin

(b) Gastrin

(d) None of the above

Answer: (b)

6. Which of the following statement about Enterogastrone?

(a) The hormone secreted by the intestinal mucosa

(b) The hormone secreted by mucosa

(d) The hormone secreted by the gastric mucosa

Answer: (a)

7. Juice containing sodium glycocholate is secreted under the influence of _______.

(a) Enterogastrone

(b) Cholecystokinin

(d) Secretin

Answer: (b)

8. Gall bladder contractions and Pancreatic secretion are triggered by_______

(a) Enterogastrone

(b) Enterocrinin

(d) Cholecystokinin

Answer: (d)

9. Cholecystokinin hormone which is released from the intestinal epithelium triggers___.

(a) Release of bile from the gallbladder

(b) Conversion of protein to peptones

(d) Secretion of pancreatic juice

Answer: (a)

10. The hormone secretin triggers ______.
(a) Gallbladder

(b) Pancreas

(d) Stomach

Answer: (b)

MCQ’S ON DISEASES CAUSED BY BACTERIA

1. Diseases caused due to the inflammation of the vermiform appendix of the digestive system is known as ________.

(a) Appendectomy

(b) Appendicitis

(d) Amoebic dysentery

Answer: (b)

2. Which of the following is a set of bacterial diseases?

(a) Malaria, poliomyelitis, mumps

(b) Mumps, cholera, typhoid

(d) Measles, Tuberculosis, Tetanus

Answer: (c)

3. In Ayurveda, the __________disease is called as Vishuchika ?

(a) Chickenpox

(b) Smallpox

(d) Diphtheria

Answer: (c)

4. Vibrio cholerae is a motile bacteria, which belong to the group of _______.

(a) Lophotrichous

(b) Peritrichous

(d) Amphitrichous

Answer: (c)

5. ‘Syphilis’, a sexually transmitted disease is caused by ________.

(a) Vibrio

(b) Leptospira

(d) Pasteurella

Answer: (c)

6. Which of the following is the symptom of Diphtheria?

(a) Bleeding gum

(b) Hydrophobia

(d) Excessive watering

Answer: (c)

7. Widal test is used for the susceptibility of ________.

(a) Typhoid

(b) Cholera

(d) Cholera

Answer: (a)

8. Which of the following pathogens causes Tuberculosis _________.

(a) Virus

(b) Bacterium

(d) Malnutrition

Answer: (b)

9. Which of the following pathogens causes cholera in humans?

(a) Fungi

(b) Bacteria

(d) Protozoan

Answer: (b)

10. Which of the following pathogens causes Leprosy in humans?

(a) Salmonella

(b) Mycobacterium

(d) Monocystis

Answer: (b)

MCQ’S ON DISEASES CAUSED BY VIRUSES

1. The non-living characteristic of viruses is

(a) ability to multiply only inside the host

(b) ability to undergo mutation

(d) ability to cause diseases in the host

Answer: (c)

2. This virus contains both DNA and RNA

(a) Polio virus

(b) Herpes virus

(d) Leukovirus

Answer: (d)

3. The region in the body where polio virus multiplies is

(a) Muscle cells

(b) Nerve cells

(d) None of the above

Answer: (c)

4. Interferons curb infection of

(a) Fungi

(b) Bacteria

(d) None of these

Answer: (d)

5. This virus, for the first time, was synthesized in the form of non-living crystals

(a) Pox virus

(b) Flu virus

(d) Bacteriophage

Answer: (c)

6. Causative of Chickenpox is

(a) Bacteriophage T-2

(b) Varicella virus

(d) Adenovirus

Answer: (b)

7. Tetanus germs produce a toxin. It affects

(a) jaw bones

(b) involuntary muscles

(d) both voluntary and involuntary muscles

Answer: (c)

8. This is a viral disease

(a) Rickets

(b) Measles

(d) Syphilis

Answer: (b)

9. This is a communicable disease

(a) Rabies

(b) Cancer

(d) Phenylketonuria

Answer: (a)

10. Hydrophobia or rabies is a disease caused by

(a) Protozoan

(b) Nematode

(d) Helminth

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON DIABETES MELLITUS AND CARDIOVASCULAR DISEASES

Q. This statement regarding Angina is true

(a) blood flow is unaffected

(b) most common in children

(d) heart stops beating

Answer: (c)

Q. Pick the wrongly matched pair

(a) heart failure – not enough blood supply to the body

(b) angina pectoris – acute chest pain

(d) heart attack – not enough blood supply to cardiac muscles

Answer: (c)

Q. This disease is not related to the circulatory system

(a) Diabetes mellitus

(b) Hypertension

(d) Coronary thrombosis

Answer: (c)

Q. The probable cause of Erythroblastosis fetalis can be

(a) Bleeding

(b) Haemophilia

(d) Diapedesis

Answer: (c)

Q. This can help on the diagnosis of the genetic basis of a disorder

(a) PCR

(b) ELISA

(d) NMR

Answer: (a)

Q. This measure does not help to prevent diabetes complications

(a) controlling blood lipids and blood pressure

(b) Prompt detection of diabetic eye and kidney disease

(d) controlling blood glucose

Answer: (c)

Q. The disease as a result of prolonged clotting is due to lack of plasma thromboplastin component (PTC) necessary to the formation of thromboplastin, is

(a) Haemophilia

(b) Hypoprothrombinemia

(d) Stuart disease

Answer: (c)

Q. This diabetes drug acts by decreasing the amount of glucose produced by the liver

(a) Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

(b) Sulfonylureas

(d) Meglitinides

Answer: (c)

Q. Presence of RBC in urine is known as

(a) Proteinuria

(b) Hematuria

(d) Nephritis

Answer: (b)

Q. The disease characterized by extreme muscle weakness and brownish pigmentation of the buccal cavity and skin is

(a) Grave’s disease

(b) Myxoedema

(d) Cushing’s disease

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON DISEASES CAUSED BY PROTOZOA

Q. An important drug used for the treatment of malaria – Quinine is extracted from

(a) Red ants

(b) Calyx of cinnamon

(d) Bark of Cinchona

Answer: (d)

Q. Entamoeba gingivalis found in the buccal cavity of man causes

(a) No disease

(b) Pyorrhoea

(d) Amoebic dysentery

Answer: (a)

Q. “Trypanosomiasis” is transmitted by or carrier of Trypanosoma in man is

(a) Fruit fly

(b) Tse-tse fly

(d) Mayfly

Answer: (b)

Q. The malignant tertian malaria is caused by

(a) Plasmodium malariae

(b) Plasmodium ovale

(d) Plasmodium vivax

Answer: (c)
Q. Which of the following parasites is responsible for the cause of African sleeping sickness or Gambiense fever?

(a) Leishmania

(b) Trypanosoma

(d) Trichomonas

Answer: (b)

Q. Tse-tse fly is a vector for sleeping sickness. Which of the following parasite transmits the infective stage?

(a) Wuchereria bancrofti

(b) Leishmania donovani

(d) Trypanosoma gambiense

Answer: (d)

Q. Schaffner’s dots are related to _______________.

(a) Entamoeba histolytica

(b) Leucocytes of frog

(d) Epithelium of the stomach of the mosquito

Answer: (c)

Q. “Amoebiasis” or amoebic dysentery is caused by___________.

(a) Trypanosoma histolytica

(b) Entamoeba histolytica

(d) Plasmodium vivax

Answer: (b)

Q. Which of the following statement is true about the Malarial parasites?

(a) Malarial parasites can be best obtained from a patient when the temperature comes to normal

(b) Malarial parasites can be best obtained from a patient, an hour before the rise of temperature

(d) Malarial parasites can be best obtained from a patient when the temperature rises with rigour

Answer: (c)

Q. Which of the following “Glossina palpalis” is a vector for

(a) Filariasis

(b) Plague

(d) Gambian fever

Answer: (d)

MCQ’S ON HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASE

Q. Parkinson’s disease is caused due to deficiency of ________.

(a) Dopamine

(b) GABA

(d) Endorphins

Answer: (a)

Q. Gaucher’s disease is linked with________.

(a) Malnutrition

(b) Abnormal fat metabolism

(d) Abnormal carbohydrate metabolism

Answer: (b)

Q. LSD is obtained from _______.

(a) Cannabis Sativa

(b) Claviceps purpurea

(d) Erythroxylon coca

Answer: (b)

Q. Infectious proteins are present in ________.

(a) Prions

(b) Viroids

(d) Satellite viruses

Answer: (a)
Q. The low RBC count is seen in anaemia and ________.

(a) Myxoedema

(b) Influenza

(d) Leukaemia

Answer: (d)

Q. A child is suffering from Kwashiorkor and if this child is compared with other marasmus children then what additional symptoms are present in Kwashiorkor child?

(a) Oedema

(b) Wasted muscles

(d) Impaired physical growth

Answer: (c)

Q. Chronic anaemia and multiple sclerosis are

(a) Allergic diseases

(b) Hormonal diseases

(d) Hereditary diseases

Answer: (c)

Q. Which one of the following statements is correct about T-lymphocytes in mammals?

(a) These are produced in the thyroid

(b) These are originated in lymphoid tissues

(d) There are three main types – cytotoxic T-cells, helper T-cells and suppressor T-cells

Answer: (b)

Q. The antibody-dependent cytotoxicity is seen in ________.

(a) Local anaphylaxis

(b) Generalise anaphylaxis

(d) Non-compatible-blood transfusion

Answer: (d)

Q. Which of the following protein causes the dilation of blood vessels?

(a) Histamine

(b) Pyrogens

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

MCQ’S ON ARTHRITIS AND CANCER

Q. A painful disorder of the joints, Gouts is due to

(a) inflammation of synovial membrane

(b) deposition of uric acid at joints

(d) damage caused to ligaments

Answer: (b)

Q. Cancerous cells are more easily damaged by radiation than normal cells as they

(a) differ in structure

(b) undergo rapid division

(d) none of these

Answer: (b)

Q. Cancer is related to

(a) Non-malignant tumor

(b) uncontrolled growth of tissues

(d) none of the above

Answer: (b)

Q. The nucleus of cancerous cells becomes

(a) Unchanged

(b) Degenerated

(d) Hypertrophied

Answer: (c)

Q. This is cancerous state of blood

(a) Uremia

(b) Chloremia

(d) Proteinemia

Answer: (c)

Q. Benign tumour is the one which

(a) differentiated and capsulated

(b) shows metastasis

(d) undifferentiated and non capsulated

Answer: (a)

Q. If a muscle fails to give stimulation action and there is much ingestion of lactic acid, the conduction is termed as

(a) Fatigue

(b) Tonus

(d) Tetanus

Answer: (a)

Q. A patient is suspicious of having breast cancer. What type of test will a physician conduct to diagnose the cancer

(a) blood test

(b) mammography

(d) pap test

Answer: (b)

Q. Rheumatoid arthritis is different from some other forms of arthritis as it

(a) occurs below the waist

(b) is more painful than other forms

(d) is symmetrical, affecting the right and the left sides of the body

Answer: (d)

Q. Chemicals, that can induce cancer are called

(a) Carcinogens and produce malignant tumour

(b) carcinogens and produce non-malignant tumour

(d) mutagenic agents and produce benign tumour

Answer: (a)

MCQ’S ON METHOD OF BIRTH CONTROL

Q. Cancerous cells are more easily damaged by radiation than normal cells as they

(a) differ in structure

(b) undergo rapid division

(d) none of these

Answer: (b)

Q. Cancer is related to

(a) Non-malignant tumor

(b) uncontrolled growth of tissues

(d) none of the above

Answer: (b)

Q. The nucleus of cancerous cells becomes

(a) Unchanged

(b) Degenerated

(d) Hypertrophied

Answer: (c)
Q. This is cancerous state of blood

(a) Uremia

(b) Chloremia

(d) Proteinemia

Answer: (c)

Q. Benign tumour is the one which

(a) differentiated and capsulated

(b) shows metastasis

(d) undifferentiated and non capsulated

Answer: (a)

Q. If a muscle fails to give stimulation action and there is much ingestion of lactic acid, the conduction is termed as

(a) Fatigue

(b) Tonus

(d) Tetanus

Answer: (a)

Q. A patient is suspicious of having breast cancer. What type of test will a physician conduct to diagnose the cancer

(a) blood test

(b) mammography

(d) pap test

Answer: (b)

Q. Rheumatoid arthritis is different from some other forms of arthritis as it

(a) occurs below the waist

(b) is more painful than other forms

(d) is symmetrical, affecting the right and the left sides of the body

Answer: (d)

Q. Chemicals, that can induce cancer are called

(a) Carcinogens and produce malignant tumour

(b) carcinogens and produce non-malignant tumour

(d) mutagenic agents and produce benign tumour

Answer: (a)

Q. A painful disorder of the joints, Gouts is due to

(a) inflammation of synovial membrane

(b) deposition of uric acid at joints

(d) damage caused to ligaments

Answer: (b)

MCQ’S ON YEAST AND ALBUGO

Q. The species causing white rust of cruciferae has a botanical name, it is

(a) Pythium debaryanum

(b) Peronospora parasitica

(d) Puccinia graminis

Answer: (c)

Q. Yeast is not included in protozoans but in fungi because

(a) it has eukaryotic organization

(b) cell wall is made up of cellulose and reserve food material as starch

(d) it has no chlorophyll

Answer: (a)

Q. This is used in the preparation of alcohol

(a) Saccharomyces

(b) Acetobacter

(d) Penicillium

Answer: (a)

Q. Fungus without mycelium is

(a) Agaricus

(b) Albugo

(d) Saccharomyces

Answer: (d)

Q. Yeast produces an enzyme complex, which is responsible for fermentation. Which is the enzyme complex?

(a) Zymase

(b) Dehydrogenase

(d) Invertase

Answer: (a)

Q. In yeast, the sexual reproduction is by conjugation. After fusion, the zygotic nucleus divides meiotically and forms haploid spores. The unicellular structure with haploid spores is

(a) Gametangium

(b) Zoosporangium

(d) Ascus

Answer: (d)

Q. The rising of dough is due to

(a) sulphur dioxide

(b) hydrogen

(d) oxygen

Answer: (c)

Q. In manufacture of bread, it becomes porous due to the liberation of CO2 by the action of

(a) Yeast

(b) Virus

(d) Bacteria

Answer: (a)

Q. The food reserve in Albugo usually is

(a) Fat

(b) Protein granules

(d) Volutin granules

Answer: (c)

Q. This statement on Albugo is incorrect

(a) Non-flagellated female gametes

(b) Biflagellated zoospores

(d) All of these

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON PLANT MOVEMENT

Q. Factors that modify geotropic responses are

(a) root and shoot apices, humidity and temperature

(b) root and shoot apices, phytochrome, humidity and temperature

(d) none of these

Answer: (b)

Q. In Drosera, movement of tentacles are

(a) Thermonastic

(b) Photonastic

(d) Thigmonastic

Answer: (d)

Q. Nastic movements differ from tropic movements in being

(a) Nondirectional

(b) Movements of variation

(d) Directional

Answer: (a)

Q. Movements of leaves of the sensitive plant, Mimosa pudica are due to

(a) seismonasty

(b) chemonasty

(d) hydrotropism

Answer: (a)
Q. If the stem grows towards sunlight and root grows just opposite to it, the stem movement is known as

(a) phototropic movement

(b) negative phototropic movement

(d) none of these

Answer: (c)

Q. An apparatus commonly used to demonstrate phototropism is

(a) clinostat

(b) heliotropic chamber

(d) arc auxanometer

Answer: (b)

Q. Protoplasmic streaming movements are referred to as

(a) photonasty

(b) thigmonasty

(d) movements of curvature

Answer: (c)

Q. Tertiary roots are

(a) negatively geotropic

(b) ageotropic

(d) plagiogeotropic

Answer: (b)

Q. The best material for demonstrating streaming movements of protoplasm within living cells is

(a) pith cells

(b) onion peelings

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

Q. Pneumatophores show

(a) thigmotropism

(b) negative phototropism

(d) positive geotropism

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON ARCHAEBACTERIA

Q. Most abundant prokaryotes helpful to humans in making curd from milk and in the production of antibiotics are the ones categorized as _______.

(a) Archaebacteria

(b) Cyanobacteria

(d) Chemosynthetic autotrophs

Answer: (c)

Q. Methanogens belong to_______.

(a) Eubacteria

(b) Dinoflagellates

(d) Archaebacteria

Answer: (d)

Q. Which of the following features differs archaebacteria from eubacteria?

(a) Cell shape

(b) Mode of nutrition

(d) Cell membrane structure

Answer: (d)

Q. Methanococcus, Thermococcus and Methanobacterium exemplify

(a) bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and ribosomes

(b) bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively supercoiled but which have a

cytoskeleton as well as mitochondria

whose DNA is negatively supercoiled

(d) archaebacteria that contain protein homologous to eukaryotic core histones

Answer: (c)

Q. After the new classification of living organisms into three domains of life (bacteria, archaea and eukarya) which one of the following is true about archaea?

(a) Resembles eukarya in all respects

(b) Completely differ from prokaryotes

(d) Have some novel features that are absent in other eukaryotes and prokaryotes

Answer: (d)

Q. Which of the following are likely to be present into the deep seawater?

(a) Eubacteria

(b) Archaebacteria

(d) Blue-green algae

Answer: (b)

Q. Methanogens belong to _____.

(a) Eukarya

(b) Archaea

(d) None of the above

Answer: (b)

Q. Which of the following are found in extreme saline conditions?

(a) Halophiles

(b) Thermophiles

(d) None of the above

Answer: (a)
Q. Which of the following bacteria thrive in extreme environmental conditions, such as high temperature and acidic pH, the absence of oxygen and high salt concentration?

(a) Eubacteria

(b) Cyanobacteria

(d) All of the above

Answer: (c)

Q. Which of the following statement is true for archaebacteria?

(a) Archaebacteria are fossils

(b) Archaebacteria are halophiles

(d) Archaebacteria are old living entities

Answer: (d)

Q. Some hyperthermophilic organisms that grow in highly acidic (pH2) habitats belong to the two groups called _______.

(a) Cyanobacteria and Diatoms

(b) Liverworts and Yeasts

(d) Eubacteria and Archaea

Answer: (d)

Q. Which of the following bacterium is found in extreme saline conditions?

(a) Eubacteria

(b) Mycobacteria

(d) Cyanobacteria

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON HETEROTROPHIC NUTRITION

Q. Assertion: mode of nutrition in higher animals is heterotrophic

Reason: Animals can use different trophic levels for heterotrophic nutrition

(a) if the assertion is true but the reason is false

(b) if both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion

(d) if both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion

Answer: (d)

Q. The mutualistic association between certain fungi and roots of vascular plants are known as

(a) haustoria

(b) mycelium

(d) mycorrhizae

Answer: (d)

Q. What is the mode of nutrition in bacteria?

(a) heterotrophic

(b) autotrophic

(d) none of the above

Answer: (c)

Q. Digestion of food in amoeba occurs in

(a) cytoplasm

(b) nucleus

(d) none of the above

Answer: (c)

Q. The mode of nutrition found in fungi is

(a) saprotrophic or parasitic

(b) only parasitic

(d) none of the above

Answer: (a)

Q. A stable ecosystem is maintained with the interaction of

(a) predators

(b) prey

(d) predator-prey

Answer: (d)
Q. Absorptive heterotrophic nutrition is exhibited by

(a) fungi

(b) algae

(d) bryophytes

Answer: (a)

Q. The mode of nutrition in which one organism obtains nutrition from other organisms is known as

(a) symbiosis

(b) autotrophic nutrition

(d) heterotrophic nutrition

Answer: (d)

Q. Heterotrophic nutrition is

(a) oxidation of glucose

(b) breakdown of glucose into energy

(d) all the above

Answer: (d)

Q. The parasitic fungus which destroys wheat plant is

(a) lice

(b) leech

(d) Puccinia

Answer: (d)

MCQ’S ON BLOOD GROUPS

Q. Under this circumstance, an antigen-antibody reaction will occur. A person with

(a) Type A blood is given type O blood

(b) Type AB blood is given type O blood

(d) Type AB blood is given type B blood

Answer: (c)

Q. When typing blood, a positive reaction

(a) shows which antigens are present

(b) shows clumping

(d) all of the above

Answer: (d)

Q. If a blood type ends in + (positive) that means

(a) your attitude is positive

(b) you are positive for an Rh protein

(d) + sign at the end is insignificant

Answer: (b)

Q. In the context of the ABO blood group, a transfusion of AB blood may be given to a person who has blood type

(a) A

(b) O

(d) AB

Answer: (d)

Q. Human blood types in the ABO blood group are identified by

(a) clotting factors in plasma

(b) microscopic examination of white blood cells

(d) series of enzyme controlled reactions

Answer: (c)

Q. Red blood cells that do not contain either A or B antigens on their surface are normally found in the person with blood type

(a) A

(b) O

(d) AB

Answer: (b)
Q. In the ABO system, blood group ‘O’ is characterized by the:

(a) presence of antigen O

(b) presence of both antigen A and antigen B

(d) presence of antigen A and absence of antigen B

Answer: (c)

Q. Antiserum is

(a) blood serum containing specific antibodies

(b) blood serum containing specific antigens

(d) blood serum in which antigens and antibodies are both absent

Answer: (a)

Q. A false positive result is best described as one that is given

(a) by a substance other than that being tested for

(b) when the substance being tested for is present in large amounts

(d) when substance being tested for is absent

Answer: (a)

Q. Which antibodies are found in the plasma of a person with type A blood?

(a) anti-A, but not anti B

(b) neither anti-A nor anti B

(d) anti-B, but not anti-A

Answer: (d)

MCQ’S ON OSMOREGULATION

1. What is the function of osmoregulation in Paramoecium?

(a) Cytostome

(b) Contractile vacuole

(d) Trichocysts

Answer: (b)

2. Osmoregulators carry out excretion of salt through_________.

(a) gills

(b) fins

(d) bladder

Answer: (a)

3. What happens to the cell, when the excess amount of water passes out from the tissues of the kidney without restoration?

(a) The cell is not affected

(b) The cell shrivel and die

(d) The cell takes water from plasma

Answer: (a)

4. Which of the following is used as an osmolyte in humans to increase medullary interstitial osmolality during concentration of urine?

(a) Urea

(b) TMAO

(d) Uric acid

Answer: (a)

5. A person on a long hunger strike, surviving only on the water will have ______.

(a) Less amino acids in his urine

(b) More sodium in hir urine

(d) More glucose in his blood

Answer: (c)

6. Mechanism of regulation, typically between entities and its environment of solutes and the loss and gain of water is known as _______.

(a) Homeostasis

(b) Hemostasis

(d) Osmoregulation

Answer: (d)

7. Most of the marine invertebrates are _______.

(a) Osmoregulation

(b) Osmoconformers

(d) None of the above

Answer: (b)

8. Kidney matrix retains some quantity of urea to maintain_________.

(a) Metabolism

(b) Micturition

(d) Balance of the body

Answer: (c)

9. Which of the following is not a primary function of protonephridia?

(a) Excretion

(b) Osmoregulation

(d) Ionic volume regulation

Answer: (a)

10.Which of the following is the product of both osmoregulator and a nitrogenous?

(a) Urea

(b) NH3

(d) All of the above

Answer: (a)

MCQ’S ON plastids

Q. Plastids are present in ______

(a) Euglenoides

(b) Plants

(d) All protists

Answer: (c)

Q. Which of the following cell organelle are found only in a plant cell?

(a) Plastids

(b) Mitochondria

(d) Ribosomes

Answer: (a)

Q. Plastids are absent in ________.

(a) Fungi

(b) Bacteria

(d) All of the above

Answer: (d)

Q. Plant cells and animal cells differ from each other in having ________.

(a) Vacuole

(b) Centrosome

(d) Golgi body

Answer: (c)

Q. Which of the following type of plastids helps in pollination?

(a) Leucoplasts

(b) Chloroplasts

(d) All of the above

Answer: (c)

Q. Fret channels are associated with _________

(a) Two lamellae of a granum

(b) Two grana of a chloroplast

(d) Two plastids of a cell

Answer: (b)
Q. All three types of plastids have evolved from _________.

(a) Leucoplast

(b) Chloroplast

(d) Chromoplast

Answer: (c)

Q. Which of the following species lack plastids?

(a) Fungi and animals

(b) Plants and animals

(d) None of the above

Answer: (c)

Q. Which of the following is a common feature of plastids and mitochondria?

(a) Both have Double-stranded DNA

(b) Both contain 70s ribosomes

(d) All of the above.

Answer: (d)

Q. Which of the following is not a colourless plastid?

(a) Amyloplast

(b) Elaioplast

(d) Proteinoplast

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON LICHENS

1. This is a crustose lichen

(a) Peltigera

(b) Usnea

(d) None of the above

Answer: (c)

2. Most of the scientists deem the algal-fungal relationship in lichens as helotism. Helotism is a

(a) master-master relationship

(b) master-slave relationship

(d) a kind of symbiotic association

Answer: (b)

3. Majorly, lichens are the pollution indicators of

(a) CO

(b) Mercury

(d) SO2

Answer: (d)

4. The symbiotic association of algae and fungi is known as

(a) Mycorrhiza

(b) lichen

(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (b)

5. Vegetative reproduction in lichens takes place by

(a) isidia

(b) soredia

(d) all of the above

Answer: (d)

6. In the studies on the atmospheric pollution, lichens are important as they

(a) can readily multiply in polluted atmosphere

(b) are very sensitive to pollutants

(d) can also be grown in greatly polluted atmosphere

Answer: (b)

7. This lichen is pioneer in xerosere

(a) fruticose lichen

(b) foliose lichen

(d) leprose lichen

Answer: (c)

8. A common phycobiont in lichens are

(a) Cetraria

(b) Microcystis

(d) Oedogonium

Answer: (c)

9. Reindeer moss is a lichen known as

(a) Usnea

(b) Rocella

(d) Parmelia

Answer: (c)

10. This about lichens is incorrect

(a) Lichens are indicators of pollution

(b) They grow rapidly about 2cm every day

(d) They have symbiotic relationship between alga and fungus

Answer: (b)

MCQ’S ON LAC OPERON

Q. Lac Operon will be turned on when

(a) Lactose is less than glucose

(b) Lactose is less in the medium

(d) Glucose is enough in the medium

Answer: (c)

Q. In a cell as per the Operon Concept, the regulator gene governs the chemical reactions by

(a) Inhibiting the substrate in the reaction

(b) Inhibiting migration of mRNA into cytoplasm

(d) Enzyme-reaction inactivation

Answer: (d)

Q. In Lac-operon, the gene product of LacA gene is

(a) Beta-galactoside permease

(b) Beta-galactoside transacetylase

(d) Beta-galactoside isomerase

Answer: (b)

Q. This condition in lac operon facilitates the condition of lac genes being transcribed at high levels

(a) low glucose, high lactose

(b) low glucose, low lactose

(d) high glucose, low lactose

Answer: (a)

Q. The correct option regarding the lac operon in E.coli from the following is

(a) Lac operon is switched on in the absence of lactose

(b) Lac repressor binds to the lac promoter

(d) lac operon messenger RNA is a polycistronic mRNA

Answer: (d)
Q. Lac operon is an example of

(a) only positive regulation

(b) only negative regulation

(d) sometimes positive sometimes negative

Answer: (c)

Q. In the presence of lactose, how long does it take for the lac operon to be expressed?

(a) when lactose equals glucose concentration

(b) when glucose is more than lactose concentration

(d) as long as lactose is more than galactose concentration

Answer: (c)

Q. Which of these acts as an inducer of the lac operon?

(a) Allolactose

(b) Lactose

(d) Glucose

Answer: (a)

Q. The sequence of the structural genes in the lac operon is

(a) lacA-lacZ-lacY

(b) lacZ-lacY-lacA

(d) lacA-lacY-lacZ

Answer: (b)

Q. Regulation of the lac operon can be envisioned as regulation of enzyme synthesis by its

(a) lactose

(b) substrate

(d) all of the above

Answer: (d)

MCQ’S ON PENICILLIUM

1. Filaments of fungi, which have thread-like appearance are called

(a) Hyphae

(b) Sporangium

(d) Mycorrhiza

2. Penicillium belongs to

(a) Deuteromycetes

(b) Phycomycetes

(d) Basidiomycetes

3. Formation of dikaryon is characteristic of

(a) Phycomycetes

(b) Basidiomycetes

(d) Both (b) and (c)

4. Penicillium camemberti and Penicillium roqueforti are known for

(a) causing disease to animals

(b) causing disease to plants

(d) none of the above

5. Penicillium is used in the production of

(a) antibiotics

(b) cheese fermentation

(d) none of the above

6. Number of ascospores formed in each ascus of Penicillium is

(a) 4

(b) 8

(d) 16

7. The fruiting body (ascocarp) of Penicillium is

(a) Apothecium

(b) Cleistothecium

(d) Acrostroma

8. Which of the following is true about conidiophores of Penicillium?

(a) binucleate and colourless

(b) binucleate and pigmented

(d) Uninucleate and colourless

9. Which one of the following is known as blue mould?

(a) Penicillium

(b) Rhizopus

(d) Aspergillus

10. Asexual spores produced terminally on hyphae are called

(a) Meiospores

(b) Anthospores

(d) Conidia

Answer

1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (c)
6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (d)

MCQ’S ON VOLVOX

1. Coenobium refers to

(a) a group of filaments

(b) Palmelloid form

(d) None of these

2. Algae with motile colony is

(a) Nostoc

(b) Spirogyra

(d) Volvox

3. In Chlorophyta, structure for protein and starch reserve is

(a) Pyrenoid

(b) Eye spot

(d) Paramylum

4. Volvox and Chlamydomonas are similar because they

(a) belong to Chlorophyta

(b) both are motile

(d) none of the above

5. Volvox belongs to which of the following classes of algae?

(a) Chlorophyceae

(b) Phaeophyceae

(d) Chrysophyceae

6. The chloroplast present in Volvox is

(a) cup-shaped

(b) ribbon-shaped

(d) star-shaped

7. Sexual reproduction in Volvox is

(a) Isogamous

(b) Anisogamous

(d) None of the above

8. Find the incorrect match

(a) Laminaria – Flattened leaf like thallus

(b) Volvox – Colonial, non flagellated

(d) Chlamydomonas – Unicellular flagellated

9. The chlorophyll pigment present in Volvox are

(a) Chlorophyll a

(b) Chlorophyll b

(d) both (a) and (b)

10. Find the incorrect statement about Volvox

(a) Sexual reproduction is oogamous

(b) true coelom and no metamerism

(d) phototaxis movement is present

Answer

1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (a)
6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c)

MCQ’S ON PARTURITION

Q. The sex of the unborn takes shape during

(a) start of the cleavage

(b) implantation

(d) fertilization by female gamete

Answer: (c)

Q. When does lactation start?

(a) During pregnancy

(b) at the end of first trimester

(d) at the end of pregnancy

Answer: (d)

Q. After how many days of fertilization does implantation occur?

(a) 8 days

(b) 7 days

(d) 5 days

Answer: (b)

Q. This structure ruptures when “water breaks” in pregnancy

(a) placenta

(b) amniotic fluid

(d) amniochorionic membrane

Answer: (b)

Q. Scientifically, the delivery of the developed fetus is termed as

(a) ovulation

(b) abortion

(d) parturition

Answer: (d)

Q. Which of these events is unlikely to happen if the mammalian ovum does not get fertilized?

(a) primary follicle starts to develop

(b) secretion of the estrogen increases

(d) disintegration of corpus luteum

Answer: (b)

Q. Colostrum is

(a) milk of lactation period

(b) milk of initial few days

(d) milk on day one

Answer: (b)

Q. In humans, the location of the Bartholin’s glands are

(a) either side of the fallopian tube

(b) either side of the penis

(d) either side of the vagina

Answer: (d)

Q. What does colostrum contain?

(a) four antibodies

(b) two antibodies

(d) one antibody only

Answer: (c)

Q. The Graafian follicle regresses to this after ovulation

(a) corpus albicans

(b) corpus atresia

(d) corpus luteum

Answer: (d)

MCQ’S ON CLIMATE

Q. Identify the phenomena taking place in this statement – Climate system is affected due to an increasingly large quantity of gas molecules absorbing thermal infrared radiations.

(a) alpha radiations

(b) ozone gases

(d) greenhouse gases

Answer: (d)

Q. The reason why presence of ample carbon dioxide causes an increase in the greenhouse effect is because carbon dioxide

(a) reduces atmospheric pressure

(b) precipitates atmospheric dust

(d) is opaque to infrared rays

Answer: (d)

Q. Identify the incorrect statement

(a) Eutrophication is a natural process seen in fresh water bodies

(b) Greenhouse effect occurs naturally

(d) In tropical areas, most of the forests have been lost

Answer: (c)

Q. The phenomena instrumental in eliminating atmospheric carbon dioxide is

(a) burning of fossil fuels

(b) deforestation

(d) lightning

Answer: (c)
Q. In terms of efficiency, the most potent greenhouse gas is

(a) N2O

(b) CH4

(d) CFC

Answer: (d)

Q. This ecological factor is the strongest determinant of different biomes

(a) wind and soil

(b) precipitation and temperature

(d) humidity and pH

Answer: (b)

Q. On the ozone layer, the CFC has continuing effect as

(a) Reactions use up by the Cl atoms formed by them leading to the degradation of ozone

(b) their efficient absorption by water vapours of the atmosphere

(d) they are constantly produced in increasing quantities, globally

Answer: (c)

Q. Regions having severe and long winters and growing season consists of a few months of summers represent

(a) Tundra ecosystem

(b) Taiga ecosystem

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

Q. This is the wavelength of infrared radiations

(a) zero

(b) infinite

(d) shorter

Answer: (c)

Q. This is not one of the possible adverse effects of the phenomena of global warming

(a) extraordinary weather patterns

(b) retreat of glaciers

(d) rise in the sea levels

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON POLIO

Q. The causative of the disease, Polio is

(a) Fungus

(b) Virus

(d) Toxin

Answer: : (b)

Q. Interferons curb infection of

(a) cancer

(b) bacteria

(d) none of the above

Answer: : (d)

Q. The region where the polio virus multiplies in the body is

(a) intestinal cells

(b) nerve cells

(d) none of the above

Answer: : (a)

Q. This can eradicate Polio

(a) live polio vaccine

(b) killed polio vaccine

(d) attention to sewage control and hygiene

Answer: : (c)
Q. In 1955, the person who invented the Polio vaccine was

(a) Hiram Maxim

(b) Theodore Roosevelt

(d) Joseph Stalin

Answer: : (c)

Q. Pick the correct statement regarding vaccines of Polio

(a) Salk is an inactivated polio vaccine

(b) Sabin is live attenuated polio vaccine

(d) All the above are correct

Answer: : (c)

Q. This virus has RNA and DNA both

(a) Herpes Virus

(b) Leuko Virus

(d) Cyanophage

Answer: : (b)

Q. Which serious ailment does the Poliovirus cause all over the world?

(a) mental retarded ness

(b) brain haemorrhage

(d) poliomyelitis

Answer: : (d)

Q. For the very first time, this virus was synthesized in the form of non-living crystals

(a) Bacteriophage

(b) Tobacco mosaic virus

(d) Pox virus

Answer: : (b)

Q. This technique is commonly used for most viral vaccines

(a) Molecular biology

(b) Animal tissues in vitro

(d) traditional cell culture

Answer: : (d)

MCQ’S ON PEM (Protein–energy malnutrition)

Q. A newborn infant, as part of routine is immediately assessed with this procedure after delivery

(a) infant functionality scale

(b) Apgar scoring system

(d) Dubowitz-Ballard scale

Answer: : (b)

Q. Phenylketonuria is a genetic disorder impairing the metabolism of

(a) amino acid phenylalanine

(b) Polyunsaturated fatty acids

(d) none of these

Answer: : (a)

Q. This can be the first indication that PEM has led to the permanent damage to the brain

(a) low birth weight

(b) premature birth

(d) slowed reflexes during birth

Answer: : (c)

Q. The type of nutrition in which more nutrients are consumed than the required quantity for normal growth of the body

(a) pepsin-enzyme malnutrition

(b) mineral deficiency diseases

(d) protein energy malnutrition

Answer: : (c)
Q. Protein-energy malnutrition (PEM) corresponds to a state where the infant’s dietary intake is deficient in

(a) Carbohydrates

(b) overall calories

(d) both (b) and (c)

Answer: : (d)

Q. The availability of proteins and energy and inadequate absorption in the body is known as

(a) pepsin energy malnutrition

(b) pepsin enzyme malnutrition

(d) protein excess malnutrition

Answer: : (c)

Q. PEM is mostly seen and has the most destructing consequences in

(a) adulthood and adolescence

(b) adolescence and early childhood

(d) only infancy

Answer: : (c)

Q. Up to the age of six months, this is the ideal food for newborns and young infants

(a) soy milk

(b) rice cereal

(d) iron-fortified formula

Answer: : (c)

Q. Disorders related to nutritions is known as

(a) balancing of nutrition

(b) insolubility of nutrition

(d) malnutrition

Answer: : (d)

Q. Which of the following diseases is caused by protein-energy malnutrition?

(a) angina

(b) goiter

(d) tuberculosis

Answer: : (c)

MCQ’S ON Marasmus

Q. This is a common feature of Kwashiorkor and Marasmus

(a) thinning of limbs

(b) failure of development of brain and growth

(d) all the above

Answer: : (d)

Q. Which is not a vitamin deficiency disease

(a) Cheilosis

(b) Scurvy

(d) Marasmus

Answer: : (d)

Q. If protein deficiency is seen in a child more than a year old, it may lead to

(a) Deficiency disorder

(b) Protemia

(d) Marasmus

Answer: : (c)

Q. Pick the incorrect statement about Marasmus

(a) pregnancy in lactation period

(b) protein rich diet replaces mother’s milk

(d) simultaneously deficiency of calories and proteins

Answer: : (b)

Q. Extensive oedema, fat underneath skin, swelling of parts of body are all associated with

(a) Kwashiorkor

(b) Marasmus

(d) Protemia

Answer: : (a)
Q. Which disorder are kids of age below one year more likely to suffer from if breastfeeding is replaced by foods low in calories and proteins?

(a) Rickets

(b) Kwashiorkor

(d) Pellagra

Answer: : (c)

Q. The deficiency of protein alone is a symptom of

(a) Protemia

(b) Indigestion

(d) Marasmus

Answer: : (c)

Q. This is a feature of marasmus and not Kwashiorkor

(a) Edema

(b) Voracious appetite

(d) Fatty change in liver

Answer: : (b)

Q. Marasmus is not characterized by

(a) swelling of limbs

(b) replacing tissue proteins

(d) protein deficiency

Answer: : (a)

Q. There is a considerable decline in the weight of the body and growth rate along with the mental faculties getting impaired. Which of these diseases are associated with the mentioned symptoms?

(a) Epilepsy

(b) Indigestion

(d) Marasmus

Answer: : (d)

MCQs on Micropropagation

Q. An excised piece of stem tissue or leaf used in micropropagation is

(a) scion

(b) explant

(d) microshoot

Answer: : (b)

Q. Protoplasts are devoid of

(a) cell wall

(b) cell membrane

(d) none of these

Answer: : (a)

Q. This plant propagation technique uses girdling

(a) cuttings

(b) grafting

(d) layering

Answer: : (d)

Q. __________ is used to develop virus free plants

(a) cell suspension culture

(b) protoplast culture

(d) organ culture

Answer: : (c)
Q. Micro propagation involves

(a) small explants used for vegetative multiplication of plants

(b) microbes used for vegetative multiplication of plants

(d) megaspores and microspores used for non-vegetative multiplication of plants

Answer: : (a)

Q. Pick the incorrect statement – Agar is a gelling agent in plant tissue culture medium

(a) it is not digested by the enzymes of plants

(b) it is not used in micropropagation work

(d) remains stable at incubation temperature

Answer: : (b)

Q. Solidifying agent that is used in plant tissue culture is

(a) Agar

(b) EDTA

(d) Nicotinic acid

Answer: : (a)

Q. Benefit of clonal propagation or micropropagation is

(a) multiplication of sexually derived sterile hybrids

(b) multiplication of disease free plants

(d) all of these

Answer: : (d)

Q. Protoplasts can be synthesized from suspension cultures, intact tissues or callus tissues by the enzymatic treatment with

(a) proteolytic enzymes

(b) both pectolytic and cellulolytic enzymes

(d) cellulolytic enzymes

Answer: : (b)

Q. In artificial media, the growth of plant tissues is

(a) gene expression

(b) transgenesis

(d) cell hybridization

Answer: : (c)

MCQs on Cytokinins

Q. This is capable of delaying yellowing of leaves

(a) auxins

(b) ABA

(d) gibberellins

Answer: : (c)

Q. In a culture medium, the use of an old sample of DNA is associated with the discovery of which of these?

(a) ABA

(b) Cytokinins

(d) Vitamin K

Answer: : (b)

Q. The hormone Cytokinin has the main function of

(a) causing dormancy

(b) cell movement

(d) induction of cell division and delay in senescence

Answer: : (d)

Q. This plant hormone is responsible for the ripening of fruits

(a) Cytokinins

(b) Auxin

(d) None of the above

Answer: : (c)
Q. This causes delay in senescence

(a) ascorbic acid

(b) gibberellins

(d) cytokinins

Answer: : (d)

Q. ___________ is a coconut milk factor

(a) cytokinin

(b) morphactin

(d) none of these

Answer: : (a)

Q. Which of these can prevent the falling of leaves

(a) abscisic acid

(b) cytokinins

(d) florigen

Answer: : (b)

Q. The first one to synthesize cytokinin was

(a) Thimman and Went

(b) Calvin and Bensan

(d) Skoog and Miller

Answer: : (d)

Q. This hormone prevents the crop from falling

(a) ethylene

(b) auxin

(d) cytokinin

Answer: : (b)

Q. The cambial tissue of Pinus radiata has

(a) cytokinin

(b) gibberellins

(d) none of these

Answer: : (a)

MCQs on Saprophytes

Q. Parasitic and saprobiotic mode of nutrition are found in

(a) Fungi

(b) Bacteria

(d) Viruses

Answer: : (c)

Q. This one is saprophytic in nutrition

(a) virus

(b) cyanobacteria

(d) all of these

Answer: : (c)

Q. When one organism obtains nutrition from the other, the mode of nutrition is

(a) heterotrophic

(b) symbiosis

(d) none of these

Answer: : (a)

Q. This has a saprophytic mode of nutrition

(a) Mushroom

(b) Leech

(d) roundworm

Answer: : (a)

Q. This can be used to demarcate a facultative parasite

(a) can become a parasite but is actually a saprophyte

(b) can become a saprophyte but is actually a parasite

(d) requires a living host inevitably

Answer: : (c)

Q. Pick the incorrect statement about Fungi

(a) Can be anaerobic

(b) Can be photosynthetic

(d) Can be saprophytic

Answer: : (b)

Q. The reason why there is a close association between fungi and algae in lichen is because the fungus

(a) releases oxygen for algae

(b) fixes atmospheric nitrogen for algae

(d) provides anchorage, protection and absorption for algae

Answer: : (d)

Q. Facultative saprophyte is

(a) always a saprophyte

(b) always a parasite

(d) may adapt a parasitic lifestyle

Answer: : (c)

Q. Lichens are a known combination of fungi and algae where the fungus is

(a) a symbiotic relationship with algae

(b) a parasitic relationship with algae

(d) a saprophytic relationship with algae

Answer: : (a)

Q. Fungi are ____________ when they feed on dead organic matter

(a) Saprophytes

(b) Parasites

(d) None of the above

Answer: : (a)

NEET MCQs on Sporulation

Q. Spores produced endogenously are found in all except this

(a) Rhizopus

(b) Mushroom

(d) Albugo

Answer: : (b)

Q. _____________ is used to refer to the growth of bacteria or microbes

(a) increase in the number of cells

(b) change in the total population

(d) increase in the size of an individual entity

Answer: : (a)

Q. In bacteria, sporulation takes place in this growth phase

(a) phase of decline

(b) log phase

(d) stationary phase

Answer: : (d)

Q. Rhodopseudomonas acidophila follows this mode of reproduction

(a) Budding

(b) Sporulation

(d) Binary fission

Answer: : (a)

Q. The daughter cells that are formed when the septum forms near the poles of the cell is known as

(a) daughter cell

(b) macrocell

(d) microcell

Answer: : (c)

Q. _____________ is also used to address lag phase

(a) generation time

(b) transitional period

(d) none of the above

Answer: : (c)

Q. This can best describe a microbial control protocol inhibiting the growth of molds and yeasts

(a) fungistatic

(b) bactericidal

(d) bacteriostatic

Answer: : (a)

Q. In gram-positive cells, during its reproduction, synthesis of new membrane material is carried out by this organelle

(a) cytoplasmic membrane

(b) endoplasmic reticulum

(d) nucleus

Answer: : (c)

Q. A fold or bleb like formation is seen in this bacteria

(a) E.coli

(b) Bacillus subtilis

(d) Streptococcus faecalis

Answer: : (a)

Q. This is not a characteristic of a growth curve

(a) every growth curve has 4 distinct stages

(b) Graph numbers of microbes versus time

(d) under relatively stable environmental conditions, development of microbial population is seen

Answer: : (a)

MCQs on Protein Synthesis

Q. This drug inhibits the initiation step of translation

(a) ricin

(b) tetracycline

(d) cyclohexylamine

Answer: : (c)

Q. In translation, this is not an essential component

(a) amino acid

(b) ligase

(d) anticodon

Answer: : (b)

Q. This identifies a particular amino acid and its cognate tRNA molecule

(a) topoisomerase

(b) rRNA

(d) tRNA synthetase

Answer: : (d)

Q. Protein synthesis corresponds to the process of

(a) duplicating required DNA for synthesis of proteins

(b) formation of amino acids from mRNA

(d) formation of amino acids from DNA template directly

Answer: : (b)

Q. This is considered to be the start codon

(a) AGG

(b) UAG

(d) AUG

Answer: : (d)
Q. This best describes a polysome

(a) active site for synthesis of lipids

(b) active site for synthesis of proteins

(d) all of these

Answer: : (b)

Q. In protein synthesis, translocation is initiated with the movement of

(a) tRNA from P-site to the A-site

(b) dipeptidyl tRNA from A-site to P-site

(d) tRNA from P-site to E-site

Answer: : (b)

Q. The process by which protein synthesis from genetic code occurs is best described by

(a) transcription

(b) translation

(d) reproduction

Answer: : (b)

Q. This is incorrect about the nature of genetic code.

Codons are

(a) universal

(b) overlapping

(d) triplet

Answer: : (b)

Q. This elongation factor is known as translocase

(a) EFG

(b) EF2

(d) EF-Tu and EF-Ts

Answer: : (c)

MCQs on Cycas

Q. __________ is a connecting link between gymnosperms and angiosperms

(a) Cycadales

(b) Ginkgoales

(d) Gnetales

Answer: : (d)

Q. In Cycas, the endosperm is a

(a) post fertilization product and diploid

(b) post fertilization product and haploid

(d) pre fertilization product and haploid

Answer: : (d)

Q. This is considered to be a living fossil

(a) Podocarpus

(b) Zamia

(d) Pinus

Answer: : (c)

Q. The reason why Cycas is not classified under dicotyledons plants even though it has an embryo with two cotyledons is

(a) it appears as a palm tree

(b) it possesses megasporophyll

(d) its ovules are naked

Answer: : (d)

Q. This is the most commonly occurring ornamental species of Cycas

(a) Cycas revoluta

(b) Cycas beddomei

(d) Cycas rumphii

Answer: : (a)
Q. In Cycas, the fern characteristic is

(a) reticulate venation

(b) circinate venation

(d) coralloid roots

Answer: : (b)

Q. In Cycas, the spermatozoid is

(a) Multiciliated

(b) uniflagellate

(d) biflagellate

Answer: : (a)

Q. The stem of the Cycas is a source of edible starch known as

(a) sigo

(b) cycas starch

(d) cyco

Answer: : (c)

Q. The Cycas has

(a) oil ducts

(b) resin ducts

(d) mucilage ducts

Answer: : (d)

Q. The largest sperms are found in this plant

(a) Pinus

(b) Sunflower

(d) Cycas

Answer: : (d)

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MCQ’S ON FILARIASIS

MCQ’S ON PRIONS

MCQ’S ON SERICULTURE

MCQ’S ON FUNARIA AND RICCIA

Answer: (a) ———————————————————————————————————————————————————– MCQ’S ON RESPIRATORY QUOTIENT

Answer: (d) ———————————————————————————————————————————————– MCQ’S ON AVES

MCQ’S ON FAUNA

MCQ’S ON SPECIATION

MCQ’S ON CHEMIOSMOTIC HYPOTHESIS

Answer: (c) ————————————————————————————————————————————————– MCQ’S ON FAUNA

Answer: (d) —————————————————————————————————————————————————- MCQ’S ON SPECIATION

MCQ’S ON LEG BONES

Answer: (c) —————————————————————————————————————————————— MCQ’S ON LYMPHOCYTES

MCQ’S ON PHYLOGENY

MCQ’S ON SATURATED FAT

MCQ’S ON TRANSDUCTION

MCQ’S ON EMP PATHWAY

Answer: (d)

MCQ’S ON PERISTALSIS

Answer: (d)

MCQ’S ON NEW CROPS

MCQ’S ON PTERIDIUM PTERIS DRYOPTERIS

Answer: (a)

MCQ’S ON CLASS AMPHIBIA

MCQ’S ON CLASS PISCES

MCQ’S ON EMBRYOLOGY

MCQ’S ON TISSUE CULTURE

MCQ’S ON CYTOSKELETON

MCQ’S ON ABA AND OTHER GROWTH REGULATORS

Answer: (a)

MCQ’S ON MULTIPLE ALLELISM

MCQ’S ON MYCOPLASMA

MCQ’S ON REGULATIONS OF GENE EXPRESSION IN EUKARYOTES

MCQ’S ON HARDY WEINBERG LAW

MCQ’S ON GYMNOSPERMS

MCQ’S ON PHYLUM ASCHELMINTHES

MCQ’S OF LAMARCKISM

MCQ’S ON APOPTOSIS

MCQ’S ON MANURES AND FERTILIZERS

MCQ’S ON MITOCHONDRIA

MCQ’S ON PANCREAS

MCQ’S ON ECOLOGICAL SUCCESSION

MCQ’S ON SKELETAL TISSUE

MCQ’S ON INFERTILITY

MCQ’S OF MORPHOLOGY OF RAT

MCQ’S ON VASCULAR TISSUE

MCQ’S ON CONSERVATION OF NATURAL RESOURCES

MCQ’S ON IMPLANTATION AND GASTRULATION

MCQ’S ON MALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM

MCQ’S ON CLEAVAGE BIOLOGY

MCQ’S ON FEMALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM

MCQ’S ON FERTILIZATION

MCQ’S ON ENERGY REQUIREMENT

MCQ’S ON INTERNAL STRUCTURE OF ROOT STEM AND LEAF

MCQ’S ON SALIVARY GLANDS

MCQ’S ON HORMONAL CONTROL DIGESTION

MCQ’S ON DISEASES CAUSED BY BACTERIA

MCQ’S ON DISEASES CAUSED BY VIRUSES

MCQ’S ON DIABETES MELLITUS AND CARDIOVASCULAR DISEASES

MCQ’S ON DISEASES CAUSED BY PROTOZOA

MCQ’S ON HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASE

MCQ’S ON ARTHRITIS AND CANCER

MCQ’S ON METHOD OF BIRTH CONTROL

MCQ’S ON YEAST AND ALBUGO

MCQ’S ON PLANT MOVEMENT

MCQ’S ON ARCHAEBACTERIA

MCQ’S ON HETEROTROPHIC NUTRITION

MCQ’S ON BLOOD GROUPS

MCQ’S ON OSMOREGULATION

MCQ’S ON plastids

MCQ’S ON LICHENS

MCQ’S ON LAC OPERON

MCQ’S ON PENICILLIUM

MCQ’S ON VOLVOX

MCQ’S ON PARTURITION

MCQ’S ON CLIMATE

MCQ’S ON POLIO

MCQ’S ON PEM (Protein–energy malnutrition)

MCQ’S ON Marasmus

MCQs on Micropropagation

Answer: (a)
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MCQ’S ON RESPIRATORY QUOTIENT

Answer: (d)
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MCQ’S ON AVES

Answer: (c)
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MCQ’S ON FAUNA

Answer: (d)
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MCQ’S ON SPECIATION

Answer: (c)
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MCQ’S ON LYMPHOCYTES