Q- Calculate the velocity of the light ray in the medium, if the critical angle for TIR from medium to the vacuum is 30°.
(a) 2 x 108 m/s
(b) 1.5 x 108 m/s
(c) 0.75 x 108 m/s
(d) 3 x 108 m/s
Answer::: (b) 1.5 x 108 m/s
Q- Which of the following is the combination that is used in the formation of achromatic lenses?
(a) 1 convex and 1 plane mirror
(b) 2 convex lenses
(c) 1 convex and 1 concave lens
(d) 2 concave lenses
Answer:: (c) 1 convex and 1 concave lens
Q- How does magnifying power change for an objective lens if the focal length of the objective lens is increased?
(a) The microscope will decrease but for the telescope, it will increase
(b) The microscope will increase but for the telescope, it decreases
(c) The microscope and telescope will increase
(d) The microscope and telescope will decrease
Answer:: (a) The microscope will decrease but for the telescope, it will increase
Q- What is the magnification produced by the plane mirror?
(a) Zero
(b) +1
(c) -1
(d) Between 0 and +∞
Answer:: (b) +1
Q- What happens to the refractive index on heating the liquid?(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains unchanged
(d) Increases or decreases depending on the rate of heating
Answer:: (b) Decreases
Q- Calculate the speed of light in water if the refractive index of water is 1.33(a) 4 x 108 m/s
(b) 2.25 x 108 m/s
(c) 1.33 x 108 m/s
(d) 3 x 108 m/s
Answer:: (b) 2.25 x 108 m/s
Q- What is hypermetropia?
(a) Bad vision due to age
(b) Short-sightedness
(c) Long-sightedness
(d) Formation of a layer on the eye
Answer:: (c) Long-sightedness
Q- Rainbow is an example of which phenomenon?
(a) Refraction and scattering
(b) Refraction and total internal reflection
(c) Dispersion and reflection
(d) Dispersion and total internal reflection
Answer:: (d) Dispersion and total internal reflection
Q- What does the internal resistance of a cell mean?
(a) The resistance of the material used in the cell
(b) The vessel of the cell
(c) The electrodes of the cell
(d) The electrolyte used in the cell
Answer:: (d) The electrolyte used in the cell
Q- A potentiometer is considered a versatile and accurate device to make an electrical measurement of EMF. Why?
(a) Because the method involves a combination
(b) There are cells involved
(c) Because of potential gradients
(d) As there is no flow of current through the galvanometer
Answer:: (d) As there is no flow of current through the galvanometer
Q- Consider copper and aluminium wire whose length and resistance are the same. Also, the specific resistance of aluminium is more than copper. Select the correct statement
(a) Copper and aluminium mass are the same
(b) Copper wire has more mass than the aluminium wire
(c) Copper wire has less mass than the aluminium wire
(d) The information given is incomplete
Answer:: (d) The information given is incomplete
Q- Consider three voltmeters A, B, and C with resistance R, 1.5R, and 3R respectively. Potential difference is applied across the points X and Y, the voltmeter readings are VA, VB, and VC.
(a) VA = VB ≠ VC
(b) VA ≠ VB ≠ VC
(c) VA = VB = VC
(d) VA ≠ VB = VC
Answer:: (c) VA = VB = VC
Q- What is the ratio of power dissipated if two electric bulbs are connected in series and the ratio of their resistance is 1:2?
(a) 1:4
(b) 1:2
(c) 2:1
(d) 1: 1
Answer:: (b) 1:2
Q- What is the principle behind thermocouple
(a) Joule effect
(b) Thomson effect
(c) Seebeck effect
(d) Peltier effect
Answer:: (c) Seebeck effect
Q- According to Faraday’s laws of electrolysis, to which of the following is the amount of decomposition proportional to?
(a) The electrochemical equivalent of the substance
(b)1time for which current passes
Answer:: (a) The electrochemical equivalent of the substance
Q- Lenz law is based on which of the following conservation>
(a) Charge
(b) Mass
(c) Momentum
(d) Energy
Answer:: (d) Energy
Q- What will be the acceleration of the falling bar magnet which passes through the ring such that the ring is held horizontally and the bar magnet is dropped along the axis of the ring?
(a) It depends on the diameter of the ring and the length of the magnet
(b) It is equal due to gravity
(c) It is less than due to gravity
(d) It is more than due to gravity
Answer:: (c) It is less than due to gravity
Q- An observer is seeing the setup of an aluminium ring B facing an electromagnet A. The current I through A can be altered if
(a) B is independent of an increase or decrease of I
(b) If I increases, A will attract B
(c) If I increase, A will repel B
(d) If I decrease, A will repel B
Answer:: (c) If I increase, A will repel B
Q- What is the equivalent inductance of the following circuit if the pure inductance is 3.0H
(a) 9H
(b) 3H
(c) 1H
(d) 2H
Answer:: (c) 1H
Q- What is the need for laminating the core of a transformer?
(a) To reduce the resistance in the winding
(b) To reduce the eddy currents
(c) To reduce the hysteresis
(d) None of the above
Answer:: (b) To reduce the eddy currents
Q- A wire loop is rotated in a magnetic field such that the frequency of change of direction of the induced emf is
(a) Six times per revolution
(b) Four times per revolution
(c) Twice per revolution
(d) Once per revolution
Answer:: (c) Twice per revolution
Q- Which of the following is the equivalent quantity of mass in electricity?
(a) Current
(b) Charge
(c) Potential
(d) Inductance
Answer:: (d) Inductance
Q- What is the unit of inductance?
(a) Volt/ampere
(b) Joule/ampere
(c) Volt-ampere/sec
(d) Volt-sec/ampere
Answer:: (d) Volt-sec/ampere
Q- What is the angle made by the plane of eddy currents with the plane of magnetic lines of force?
(a) 0°
(b) 40°
(c) 90°
(d) 180°
Answer:: (c) 90°
Q- Calculate the amplitude for a SHM using the equation x = 3sin2pt + 4cos3pt
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 7
Answer:: (b) 5
Q- What is the constant of propotionality of an oscillator if the damping force is directly propotional to the velocity
(a) kg.s-1
(b) kg.m.s-1
(c) kg.s
(d) kg.m.s-2
Answer:: (a) kg.s-1
Q- What is the phase difference between the prongs of the tuning fork
(a) 5π
(b) π
(c) 2π
(d) 3π
Answer:: (b) π
Q- What is the change in the phase if a wave is reflected from a denser medium
(a) 3π
(b) 0
(c) π
(d) 2π
Answer:: (c) π
Q- The observer hears a sound from the source which is moving away from the observer who is stationary. Determine the frequency of the sound
(a) It is halved
(b) It remains the same
(c) It reaches infinity
(d) It gets doubled
Answer:: (a) It is halved
Q- The length of the pendulum which is displaying SHM is increased by 21%. Calculate the percentage increase in the periodic time of the pendulum.
(a) 21%
(b) 10%
(c) 11%
(d) 42%
Answer:: (b) 10%
Q- Which of the following does not exhibit polarization
(a) Longitudinal wave in a gas
(b) Transverse wave in a gas
(c) Neither (a) nor (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:: (a) Longitudinal wave in a gas
Q- Name the law that states the force between electric charges
(a) Ohm’s law
(b) Coulomb’s law
(c) Faraday’s law
(d) Ampere’s law
Answer:: (b) Coulomb’s law
Q- What happens to the force acting between the charged particles, if the distance between these charged particles is halved?
(a) It increases by four times
(b) It gets doubled
(c) It becomes half
(d) It reduces by one-fourth
Answer:: (a) It increases by four times
Q- What is the electric potential of the points A, B, and C which are in a uniform electric field?
(a) The electric field is the same at all three points A, B, and C
(b) Maximum at A
(c) Maximum at B
(d) Maximum at C
Answer:: (c) Maximum at B
Q- What is the minimum charge on a particle?
(a) 1 Coulomb
(b) 1.6 x 10-19 Coulomb
(c) 3.2 x 10-19 Coulomb
(d) 6.6 x 10-19 Coulomb
Answer:: (b) 1.6 x 10-19 Coulomb
Q- The capacity of parallel plate condenser is dependent on the
(a) The separation between the plates
(b) The metal used for the construction
(c) The thickness of the plate
(d) The potential applied across the plates
Answer:: (a) The separation between the plates
Q- What does an electric dipole experience when it is kept in the non-uniform electric field?
(a) Only a force
(b) Only torque
(c) Force and torque both
(d) Neither force nor torque
Answer:: (c) Force and torque both
Q- The capacitance of the capacitor is independent of
(a) The charges present on the plate
(b) The distance of separation between the plates
(c) The shape of the plates
(d) The size of the plates
Answer:: (d) The size of the plates
Q- Choose the correct statement
(a) A body can be accelerated by frictional force
(b) There can be zero friction
(c) Kinetic friction is greater than rolling friction
(d) Frictional force and area of contact between the two surfaces are proportional
Answer:: (c) Kinetic friction is greater than rolling friction
Q- Consider a car that overturns while taking a turn. Select the option that is experienced by the wheels of the car.
(a) First, both inner, as well as the outer wheel, leave the ground
(b) First, the inner wheel leaves the ground
(c) The inner wheel experiences no change
(d) None of the above
Answer:: (b) First, the inner wheel leaves the ground
Q- Let two bodies be with masses 2kg and 5kg respectively. Let these bodies be at rest with the same force acting on them. Calculate the ratio of times that is required by both the bodies to reach the final velocity.
(a) 2:5
(b) 25:4
(c) 5:3
(d) 4:25
Answer:: (a) 2:5
Q- Let A, B, and C be the three blocks of mass 2kg each. These blocks are hanging over a pulley with the help of a string. What is the tension produced by the string connecting B and C?
(a) 3.3N
(b) 0
(c) 13.1N
(d) 19.6N
Answer:: (c) 13.1N
Q- Consider three masses of 1kg, 3kg and 6kg which are connected to each other and are placed horizontally on the table. Calculate the acceleration of this system. Consider g = 10m/s.
(a) 3
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) 2
Answer:: (d) 2
Q- Consider a man standing on the spring balance such that the reading on the spring balance is 60kg. If the man jumps out of the spring balance what will be the final reading of the spring balance?(a) Remains unchanged
(b) Increases
(c) Decreases
(d) First increases then decrease to zero
Answer:: (d) First increases then decreases to zero
Q- Which of the following should be constant for a body to have a constant momentum?
(a) Acceleration
(b) Force
(c) Velocity
(d) All of the above
Answer:: (d) All of the above
Q- Following is the diagram of the thermodynamic process. Refer the diagram and match the following
P Process – I (a) Adiabatic
Q Process – II (b) Isobaric
R Process – III (c) Isochoric
S Process – IV (d) Isothermal
(a) (P,c), (Q,d), (R,b), (S,a)
(b) (P,c), (Q,d), (R,b), (S,a)
(c) (P,a), (Q,c), (R,d), (S,b)
(d) (P,c), (Q,a), (R,d), (S,b)
Answer:: (d) (P,c), (Q,a), (R,d), (S,b)
Q- Which of the following process is used to do maximum work done on the ideal gas if the gas is compressed to half of its initial volume?
(a) Isothermal
(b) Isochoric
(c) Isobaric
(d) Adiabatic
Answer:: (d) Adiabatic
Q- The coefficient performance of a refrigerator is 5. If the temperature inside the freezer is -20℃, calculate the heat rejected to the surrounding
(a) 11℃
(b) 41℃
(c) 21℃
(d) 31℃
Answer:: (d) 31℃
Q- Select the incorrect statement
(a) For the triple point of water, 1°K is equal to 1/273.16.
(b) The first law of thermodynamics is also known as the law of thermal equilibrium
(c) The triple point of water is one of the reference points on the thermodynamic scale of temperature
(d) At room temperature, the heat of combustion is not found
Answer:: (d) At room temperature, the heat of combustion is not found
Q- What is a necessary condition for a reaction to be spontaneous at all temperatures?
(a) ΔH < ΔG
(b) ΔG and ΔH should be positive
(c) ΔH = ΔG = 0
(d) ΔG and ΔH should be negative
Answer:: (d) ΔG and ΔH should be negative
Q- A gas is compressed to half of its initial volume isothermally. The same gas is compressed again until the volume reduces to half through an adiabatic process. Then
(a) Work done during isothermal compression is more
(b) Work done is independent of the processes used for compression
(c) Work done is more during the adiabatic process
(d) Work done is dependent on the atomicity of the gas
Answer:: (c) Work done is more during the adiabatic process
Q- Select the factor that affects the heat of reaction which is based on Kirchoff’s equation
(a) Molecularity
(b) Temperature
(c) Pressure
(d) Volume
Answer:: (b) Temperature
Q- For all the reactions what is the nature of the chemical dissociation?
(a) Exothermic
(b) Reversible
(c) Endothermic
(d) Reversible and endothermic
Answer:: (d) Reversible and endothermic
Q- Which of the following is the largest unit of energy
(a) Electron volt
(b) Joule
(c) Calorie
(d) Erg
Answer:: (c) Calorie
Q- How many numbers of base SI units are there?
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 7
(d) 9
Answer:: (c) 7
Q- What is the percentage error in the measurement of the kinetic energy of a body, if there is a positive error of 50% in the speed of the body
(a) 125%
(b) 30%
(c) 50%
(d) 100%
Answer:: (d) 100 %
Q- What is the dimensional formula of torque and energy
(a) [ML-3T-2] and [MLT-2]
(b) [ML2T-2] and [MLT-2]
(c) [ML2T-2] and [ML2T2]
(d) [MLT2] and [ML2T2]
Answer:: (c) [ML2T-2] and [ML2T2]
Q- Identify the physical parameters that are having the same dimensions from the below-given list:
(i) Magnetic field
(ii) Energy density
(iii) Refractive index
(iv) Young’s modulus
(v) Dielectric constant
(a) (ii) and (iv)
(b) (i) and (v)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (iv) and (iii)
Answer:: (a) (ii) and (iv)
Q- Which the following is a dimensionless quantity
(a) Refractive index
(b) Gravitational constant
(c) Velocity
(d) Planck’s constant
Answer:: (a) Refractive index
Q- Calculate the value of the dot product of the two vectors whose magnitudes are 3 units and 4 units and their resultant is 1 unit.
(a) +6 units
(b) 0
(c) -12 units
(d) -1 unit
Answer:: (c) -12 units
Q- Following are the readings obtained while measuring the diameter of a wire by using the screw gauge0 mm is the main scale reading
52 divisions are the circular scale reading
What is the diameter of the wire if 1 mm on the main scale is equal to the 100 divisions on the circular scale
(a) 0.016 cm
(b) 0.052 cm
(c) 0.15 cm
(d) 0.05 cm
Answer:: (b) 0.052 cm
Q- Which of the following statement is true if a body moves in a semicircular track whose radius is R
(a) 2R is the displacement of the body
(b) πR is the distance travelled by the body
(c) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(d) None of the above
Answer:: (c) Both (a) and (b) are correct
Q- What does the area under acceleration-time graph represent for any given time interval
(a) Final velocity
(b) Distance travelled
(c) Change in the velocity in that time interval
(d) Displacement of the particle
Answer:: (c) Change in the velocity in that time interval
Q- When can we say that the resultant of the two vectors is maximum
(a) When the vectors are acting in the opposite direction
(b) Both the vectors are acting in the same direction
(c) When the vectors are at right angles
(d) When the vectors are parallel to each other
Answer:: (b) Both the vectors are acting in the same direction
Q- What happens to the gravitational potential at the centre of the uniform spherical shell which shrinks gradually?
(a) Remains constant
(b) Decreases
(c) Increases
(d) Oscillates
Answer:: (b) Decreases
Q- Choose the factor on which the orbital velocity does not depend when the satellite is orbiting close to the earth’s surface
(a) The mass of the earth
(b) The mass of the satellite
(c) The orbital radius
(d) The radius of the earth
Answer:: (b) The mass of the satellite
Q- The atmosphere around the earth is held by
(a) Gravity
(b) Winds
(c) Clouds
(d) None of the above
Answer:: (a) Gravity
Q- By how much does kinetic energy increase if the momentum is increased by 20%
(a) 55%
(b) 66%
(c) 44%
(d) 77%
Answer:: (c) 44%
Q- Calculate the energy loss in a perfectly inelastic collision if the mass of the object is 40kg with velocity 4m/s hits the object of mass 60kg with velocity 2m/s.
(a) 440J
(b) 110J
(c) 392J
(d) 48J
Answer:: (d) 48J
Q- Calculate the final kinetic energy of a block of mass if the mass of the block is 10kg and has a constant velocity of 10m/s. The block of mass is subjected to a retarding force of F=0.1J/m
(a) 275J
(b) 250J
(c) 475J
(d) 450J
Answer:: (c) 475J
Q- What is the average power required to lift a mass of 100kg to a height of 50m in 50 seconds?
(a) 980
(b) 100
(c) 50
(d) 5000
Answer:: (a) 980
Q- What is the power of the engine when the velocity of the car is v, mass m, acceleration a, and external resistance R
(a) (R-ma)v
(b) (R+ma)v
(c) mav
(d)Rv
Answer:: (b) (R+ma)v
Q- When can one say that work is done on the body
(a) When the body experiences force
(b) When there is an increase in energy because of mechanical influence
(c) When the body moves a certain distance
(d) None of the above
Answer:: (b) When there is an increase in energy because of mechanical influence
Q- Select the incorrect statement for the given situation: Two bodies with mass m1 and m2 undergo elastic collision
(a) When m1 and m2 is at rest, the kinetic energy transferred will be maximum
(b) The bodies will move in the same direction if m1 = m2 and when the collision is in oblique
(c) When m1 > m2, m2 will move with four times increase in its velocity than m1
(d) When m1 < m2, the transfer of momentum will be maximum
Answer:: (c) When m1 > m2, m2 will move with four times increase in its velocity than m1
Q- What is the ratio of velocities of a nucleus that splits into two parts with radii 1:2
(a) 6:1
(b) 2:1
(c) 8:1
(d) 4:1
Answer:: (c) 8:1
CHEMISTRY
Q- Which of the compounds can exist together?
(a) HgCl2, SnCl2
(b) FeCl3, KI
(c) FeCl3, SnCl2
(d) FeCl2, SnCl2
Answer: (d)
Q- One mole of ferrous oxalate requires____ moles of MnO4– to get oxidised completely in an acidic medium
(a) 0.6 moles
(b) 0.4 moles
(c) 0.2 moles
(d) 7.5 moles
Answer: (b)
Q- H2O2 changes Cr2O72- ion to CrO5 in an acidic medium, the oxidation state of Cr in CrO5 is
(a) +6
(b) +5
(c) -10
(d) +3
Answer: (a)
Q- H2SO4 acts as a strong oxidising agent. In which of the reaction, is it not acting as an oxidising agent?
(a) C + 2H2SO4 → CO2 + 2SO2 + 2H2O
(b) CaF2 + 2H2SO4 → CaSO4 + 2HF
(c) S + 2H2SO4 → 3SO2 + H2O
(d) Cu + 2H2SO4 → CuSO4 + SO2 + 2H2O
Answer: (b)
Q- During a reaction of oxalic acid, potassium chlorate and sulphuric acid, the oxidation number of which of the element undergoes a maximum change
(a) H
(b) S
(c) C
(d) Cl
Answer: (d)
Q- Find the redox reaction
(a) In the atmosphere, O3 from O2 by lighting
(b) The reaction of H2SO4 with NaOH
(c) Both oxidation and reduction reaction
(d) Evaporation of water
Answer: (c)
Q- Find the oxidation state of I in H4IO6–
(a) +7
(b) +5
(c) +1
(d) -1
Answer: (a)
Q- In which of the following complex, the oxidation number of Fe is +1?
(a) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
(b) [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4
(c) [FeBr4]–
(d) [Fe(H2O)6]2-
Answer: (b)
Q-Which among the following compounds is the most reducing compound?
(a) H2S
(b) HNO2
(c) SnCl2
(d) H2SO3
Answer: (a)
Q- Which among the following is the strongest oxidising agent?
(a) H2O2
(b) O3
(c) K2Cr2O7
(d) KMnO4
Answer: (b)
Q- Find the pH of a solution when 0.01 M HCl and 0.1 M NaOH are mixed in equal volumes
(a) 12.65
(b) 1.04
(c) 7.0
(d) 2.0
Answer: (a)
Q- Which of the following aqueous solution will be the best conductor of electricity?
(a) NH3
(b) CH3COOH
(c) HCl
(d) C6H12O6
Answer: (c)
Q- What will be the pH of a buffer solution having an equal concentration of B– and HB (Kb = 10-10 for B–)
(a) 7
(b) 4
(c) 10
(d) 6
Answer: (b)
Q- On increasing the concentration of reactants in a reversible reaction, then equilibrium constant will
(a) depend on the concentration
(b) increase
(c) unchanged
(d) decrease
Answer: (c)
Q- Find the conjugate acid of NH2–
(a) NH3
(b) NH4OH
(c) NH4+
(d) NH2–
Answer: (a)
Q- What will be the value of ΔH, if the forward and reverse reactions have the same energy of activation?
(a) ΔH = ΔG = ΔS = 0
(b) ΔS = 0
(c) ΔG = 0
(d) ΔH = 0
Answer: (d)
Answer: (a)
Q- What is the molar entropy change for melting of ice at 0℃, if ΔHf = 1.435 kcal/mol?
(a) 0.526 cal/(mol K)
(b) 5.26 cal/(mol K)
(c) 10.52 cal/(mol K)
(d) 21.04 cal/(mol K)
Answer: (b)
Q-What is the function of a catalyst in a chemical reaction?
(a) decrease rate constant of reaction
(b) increases activation energy of reaction
(c) reduces enthalpy of reaction
(d) does not affect the equilibrium constant of reaction
Answer: (d)
Q-What will be the work done by 3 moles of an ideal gas when it expands spontaneously in a vacuum?
(a) zero
(b) infinite
(c) 3 joules
(d) 9 joules
Answer: (a)
Q- Find the temperature at which the below reaction will be in equilibrium if the enthalpy and entropy change for the reaction is 30 kJ mol-1 and 105 J K-1 mol-1 respectively
Br2(l) + Cl2(g) → 2BrCl(g)
(a) 273 K
(b) 300 K
(c) 450 K
(d) 285.7 K
Answer: (d)
Q- Which is true for the entropy of a spontaneous reaction?
(a) ΔS(system) – ΔS(surroundings) > 0
(b) ΔS(system) + ΔS(surroundings) > 0
(c) ΔS(surroundings) > 0 only
(d) ΔS(system) > 0 only
Answer: (b)
Q- An ideal gas is expanded isothermally at 300 K from 1 litre to 10 litres. Find the ΔE for this process (R = 2 cal mol-1 K-1)
(a) 9 L atm
(b) 1381.1 cal
(c) zero
(d) 163.7 cal
Answer: (c)
Q-ΔH for the reaction N2 + 3H2 ⇋ 2NH3
(a) ΔE – 2RT
(b) ΔE + 2RT
(c) ΔE – RT
(d) ΔH = RT
Answer: (a)
MCQ’S ON PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS
Q- Find the successive elements of the periodic table with ionisation energies, 2372, 520 and 890 kJ per mol respectively
(a) Li, Be, B
(b) H, He, Li
(c) B, C, N
(d) He, Li, Be
Answer: (d)
Q- In the modern periodic table, the number of period of the element is the same as
(a) principal quantum number
(b) atomic number
(c) azimuthal quantum number
(d) atomic mass
Answer: (a)
Q-The correct order for the size of I, I+, I– is
(a) I > I– > I+
(b) I > I+ > I–
(c) I– > I > I+
(d) I+ > I– > I
Answer: (c)
Q- For the same value of n, the penetration power of orbital follows the order
(a) s = p = d = f
(b) p > s > d > f
(c) f < d < p < s
(d) s < p < d < f
Answer: (c)
Q- Which of the reactions will need the maximum amount of energy?
(a) Na → Na+ + e–
(b) Ca+ → Ca++ + e–
(c) K+ → K+ ++ e–
(d) C2+ → C3+ + e–
Answer: (c)
Q- Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) I.E.1 of O is lower than that of N but I.E.2 O is higher than that of N
(b) The enthalpy of N to gain an electron is almost zero but of P is 74.3 kJ mol-1
(c) isoelectronic ions belong to the same period
(d) The covalent radius of iodine is less than its Van der Waal’s radius
Answer: (c)
Q-The correct order of electronegativity is
(a) Cl > F > O > Br
(b) F > O > Cl > Br
(c) F > Cl > Br > O
(d) O > F > Cl > Br
Answer: (b)
Q-Two different beakers contain M1-O-H, and M2-O-H solutions separately. Find the nature of the two solutions if the electronegativity of M1 = 3.4, M2 = 1.2, O = 3.5, H = 2.1
(a) acidic, acidic
(b) basic, acidic
(c) basic, basic
(d) acidic, basic
Answer: (d)
Q-Which one is the most acidic among these?
(a) MgO
(b) CaO
(c) Al2O3
(d) Na2O
Answer: (c)
Q-Which one will have the highest 2nd ionisation energy?
(a) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1
(b) 1s2 2s2 2p4
(c) 1s2 2s2 2p6
(d) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
Answer: (a)
Q- Which of the compounds is known as Slaked lime?
(a) CaO
(b) CaSO4
(c) Ca(OH)2
(d) CaCO3
Answer: (c)
Q-Which of the ions have maximum hydration energy?
(a) Sr2+
(b) Ca2+
(c) Mg2+
(d) Be2+
Answer: (d)
Q- As compared to K, Na has
(a) higher ionization potential
(b) lower melting point
(c) lower electronegativity
(d) larger atomic radius
Answer: (a)
Q-Which one is the most stable carbonate?
(a) BaCO3
(b) MgCO3
(c) CaCO3
(d) BeCO3
Answer: (a)
Q- Plaster of Paris (POP) is
(a) CaSO4 H2O
(b) CaSO4 2H2O
(c) CaSO4
(d) CaSO4 1/2H2O
Answer: (d)
Q- Which oxide is amphoteric?
(a) BaO
(b) CaO
(c) BeO
(d) MgO
Answer: (c)
Q- Be shows the diagonal relationship with
(a) Na
(b) Al
(c) Mg
(d) B
Answer: (b)
Q- The tendency to lose their valance electron easily by alkali metals makes them
(a) strong reducing agent
(b) weak reducing agent
(c) strong oxidising agent
(d) weak oxidising agent
Answer: (a)
Q- Which one is known as a fusion mixture?
(a) Na2CO3 + NaHCO3
(b) Na2CO3 + NaOH
(c) Na2CO3 + K2SO4
(d) Na2CO3 + K2CO3
Answer: (d)
Q- Find the incorrect trend for alkaline earth metals
(a) atomic size Be < Mg < Ca < Sr
(b) second ionization energy Be < Mg < Ca < Sr
(c) Hydration enthalpy Sr < Ca < Mg < Be
(d) Density Ca < Mg < Be < Sr
Answer: (b)
Q- C-O bond length is minimum in
(a) CO2
(b) CO32-
(c) HCOO–
(d) CO
Answer: (d)
Q- Molecules are held together in a crystal by
(a) hydrogen bond
(b) electrostatic attraction
(c) Van der Waal’s attraction
(d) dipole-dipole attraction
Answer: (c)
Q- Sp3d2 hybridization is present in [Co(NH3)63+], find its geometry
(a) octahedral geometry
(b) square planar geometry
(c) tetragonal geometry
(d) tetrahedral geometry
Answer: (a)
Q- Find the molecule with the maximum dipole moment
(a) CH4
(b) NH3
(c) CO2
(d) NF3
Answer: (b)
Q- MX6 is a molecule with octahedral geometry. How many X – M – X bonds are at 180°?
(a) four
(b) two
(c) three
(d) six
Answer: (c)
Find the pair with sp2 hybridisation of the central molecule
(a) NH3 and NO2–
(b) BF3 and NH2–
(c) BF3 and NO2–
(d) NH2– and H2O
Answer: (c)
Q- The formal charge and P-O bond order in PO43- respectively are
(a) 0.6, -0.75
(b) -0.75, 1.25
(c) 1.0, -0.75
(d) 1.25, -3
Answer: (b)
Q- Which of the molecules does not have a permanent dipole moment?
(a) SO3
(b) SO2
(c) H2S
(d) CS2
Answer: (d)
Q- pℼ – dℼ bonding is present in which molecule
(a) SO32-
(b) CO32-
(c) NO3–
(d) BO33-
Answer: (a)
Q- Which one has a pyramidal shape?
(a) SO3
(b) PCl3
(c) CO32-
(d) NO3–
Answer: (b)
Q- How many orbitals can have the following set of quantum numbers, n = 3, l = 1, m1 = 0 ?
(a) 3
(b) 1
(c) 4
(d) 2
Answer: (b)
Q-Electronic configuration of the outer shell of the element Gd with atomic number 64 is
(a) 4f4 5d5 6s1
(b) 4f3 5d5 6s2
(c) 4f5 5d4 6s1
(d) 4f7 5d1 6s2
Answer: (d)
Q- Maximum number of electrons in a subshell can be
(a) 4l + 2
(b) 4l – 2
(c) 2n2
(d) 2l + 1
Answer: (a)
Q-The orientation of atomic orbitals depends on their
(a) spin quantum number
(b) magnetic quantum number
(c) azimuthal quantum number
(d) principal quantum number
Answer: (b)
Q- A gas X has Cp and Cv ratio as 1.4, at NTP 11.2 L of gas X will contain_______ number of atoms
(a) 1.2 × 1023
(b) 3.01 × 1023
(c) 2.01 × 1023
(d) 6.02 × 1023
Answer: (d)
Q- Number of unpaired electrons in N2+
(a) 3
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 0
Answer: (b)
Q- The excitation energy of a hydrogen atom from its ground state to its third excited state is
(a) 12.75 eV
(b) 0.85 eV
(c) 10.2 eV
(d) 12.1 eV
Answer: (a)
Q- 3p orbital has _____ radial nodes
(a) three
(b) two
(c) one
(d) none
Answer: (c)
Q- A 0.66 kg ball is moving with a speed of 100 m/s. Find its wavelength
(a) 6.6 × 10-34 m
(b) 6.6 × 10-32 m
(c) 1.0 × 10-32 m
(d) 1.0 × 10-35 m
Answer: (d)
Q- Elements X and Y combine to form two compounds XY and X2Y. Find the atomic weight of X and Y, if the weight of 0.1 moles of XY is 10g and 0.05 moles of X2Y is 9g
(a) 30, 20
(b) 80, 20
(c) 60, 40
(d) 20, 30
Answer: (b)
Q- Which one will have maximum numbers of water molecules?
(a) 18 molecules of water
(b) 1.8 grams of water
(c) 18 grams of water
(d) 18 moles of water
Answer: (d)
Q- The number of atoms present in 0.1 moles of a triatomic gas is
(a) 1.806 × 1023
(b) 1.806 × 1022
(c) 3.600 × 1023
(d) 6.026 × 1022
Answer: (a)
Q- Find the volume of O2 required to burn 1 L of propane completely, measured at 0℃ temperature and 1 atm pressure
(a) 10 L
(b) 7 L
(c) 6 L
(d) 5 L
Answer: (d)
Q-A gas X has Cp and Cv ratio as 1.4, at NTP 11.2 L of gas X will contain_______ number of atoms
(a) 1.2 × 1023
(b) 3.01 × 1023
(c) 2.01 × 1023
(d) 6.02 × 1023
Answer: (d)
Q- Which of the species is not paramagnetic?
(a) As+
(b) Cl–
(c) Ne2+
(d) Be+
Answer: (b)
Q- Pressure has the same dimension as ____________
(a) energy per unit volume
(b) energy
(c) force per unit volume
(d) force
Answer: (a)
Q- A container has an equal mass of H2, O2 and CH4 at 27℃, the ratio of their volume is
(a) 16:8:1
(b) 8:1:2
(c) 16:1:2
(d) 8:16:1
Answer: (c)
Q- There are two chlorides of sulphur S2Cl2 and SCl2. What is the equivalent mass of S in SCl2
(a) 64.8 g/mole
(b) 32 g/mole
(c) 16 g/mole
(d) 8 g/mole
Answer: (c)
Q-Boron exists as two stable isotopes; 10B(19%) and 11B(81%). Find out the average atomic weight of boron in the periodic table
(a) 10.0
(b) 11.2
(c) 10.2
(d) 10.8
Answer: (d)
Q- The product obtained on heating 2-Bromopentane with potassium ethoxide in ethanol is
(a) 1-pentene
(b) 2-cis-pentene
(c) trans-2-pentene
(d) 2-ethoxy pentane
Answer: (c)
Q- Choose the process by which liquid hydrocarbons can be converted to gaseous hydrocarbons
(a) hydrolysis
(b) oxidation
(c) cracking
(d) distillation under reduced pressure
Answer: (c)
Q- Which one of the following halide can be used in the Friedel-Crafts reaction?
(a) Isopropyl chloride
(b) Bromobenzene
(c) Chlorobenzene
(d) Chloroethene
Answer: (a)
Q- Which one of the following compound forms salt on reaction with NaNH2?
(a) C2H2
(b) C2H6
(c) C6H6
(d) C2H4
Answer: (a)
Q- Which among the following reagent can be used to distinguish between CH2BrCH=CH2 from CH3CH=CHBr?
(a) Br2/CCl4
(b) cold KMnO4
(c) AgNO3/C2H5OH
(d) Ag(NH3)2OH
Answer: (c)
Q- Isopropyl iodide is formed after reaction of propene with HI, this is due to
(a) more stable free radical
(b) homolysis
(c) more stable carbanion
(d) more stable carbocation
Answer: (d)
Q- C6H5CHO is formed when C6H6 is treated with CO and HCl in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3. Name of the reaction is:
(a) Friedel crafts reaction
(b) Gattermann Koch reaction
(c) Rosenmund reaction
(d) Stephen reaction
Answer: (b)
Q- A compound having a bond angle 180° is
(a) alkyne
(b) alkane
(c) alkene
(d) cycloalkane
Answer: (a)
