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250+ NEET PG MCQ's On Anesthesia

Latest NEET PG Anesthesia MCQ’s With Answers[250+ Solved]

Posted on December 19, 2022

1. Ether was first used as an anaesthetic by?
A. Priesly
B. Morton
C. Wells
D. Simpson

Answer: B

2. The following increases Intra Ocular pressure:
A. Thiopentone
B. Althesin
C. Ketamine
D. Barbiturate

Answer: C

3. Composition of soda lime is: NaOH – Ca (OH)2 – KOH – Moisture
A. 4% – 90% – 1% – 5%
B. 4% – 80% – 1% – 15%
C. 80% – 10% – 5% – 5%
D. 15% – 80% – 1% – 4%

Answer: B

4. All of the following are correct about ketamine, EXCEPT:
A. It functionally “dissociates” the thalamus
B. It increases arterial blood pressure
C. It is a potent bronchoconstrictor
D. It inhibits polysynaptic reflexes in the spinal cord

Answer: C

5. A patient undergoing a minor surgical procedure is given lignocaine injection.
Assertion: Local anaesthetics acts by blocking nerve conduction.
Reason: Small fibers and non myelinated fibers are blocked more easily than large myelinated fibers.

A. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion

B. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion

C. Assertion is true, but Reason is false

D. Assertion is false, but Reason is true

6. The laryngeal mask airway used for securing the airway of a patient in all of the
following conditions, EXCEPT:

A. In a difficult intubation
B. In cardiopulmonary resuscitation
C. In a child undergoing an elective/routine eye surgery
D. In a patient with a large tumour in the oral cavity

Answer: D

7. All of the following statements about neuromuscular blockage produced by succinylcholine are true, except:

A. No fade on Train of four stimulation
B. Fade on tetanic stimulation
C. No post tetanic facilitation
D. Train of four ratio > 0.4

Answer: B

8. Mechanism of action of theophylline in Bronchial asthma include all of the following Except ?
A. Phosphodiesterase inhibition
B. Adenosine receptor antagonism
C. Increased histone deacetylation
D. Beta-2 receptor stimulation

Answer: D

9. Best to monitor intraoperative myocardial ischemia (infarction) is
A. ECG
B. CVP monitoring
C. Transesophageal echocardiography
D. Invasive intracarotid arterial pressure

Answer: C

10. Which of the following drugs produces dissociative anesthesia
A. Ketamine
B. Propofol
C. Thiopentone
D. Enflurane

11. Ketamine can be used in all of the situations except
A. Status asthamaticus
B. For analgesia & sedation
C. Obstetric hemorrhage
D. Ischemic heart disease

Answer: D

12. Anesthetic agent (s) safe to use in TICP
A. Halothane
B. Thiopentone
C. Ketamine
D. Ether

Answer: B

13. All of the following cause myocardial depression except:
A. Halothane
B. Etomidate
C. Thiopentone
D. Ketamine

Answer: B

14. At the end of anaesthesia after discontinuation of nitrous oxide and removal of endotracheal tube, 1000/0 oxygen is administered to the patient to prevent:
A. Diffusion Hypoxia
B. Second gas effect
C. Hyperoxia

D. Bronchospasm

Answer: A

15. Stages of anesthesia were established by
A. Ether
B. N20
C. Halothane
D. Chloroform

Answer: A

16. Hepatotoxic agent is
A. Ketamine
B. Ether
C. N20
D. Halothane

Answer: D

17. Shortest acting local anesthetic agent is
A. Procaine
B. Lidocaine
C. Tetracaine
D. Bupivacaine

Answer: A

18. Pudendal Nerve Block Involve
A. LiL2L3
B. L2L3L4
C. SiS2S3
D. S2S3S4

Answer: D

19. Which of the following anesthetic agents have analgesic property:
A. Ketamine
B. Nitrous oxide
C. Thiopentone
D. a and b

Answer: D

20. Contraindication of bag and mask ventilation are all of the following except:
March 2009
A. Tracheo-esophageal fistula

B. Hiatus hernia

C. Pregnancy

D. Empty stomach

Answer: D

21. Following is true about halothane except?
A. Volatile liquid with sweet odour
B. Sensitises heart to adrenaline
C. Constricts bronchii
D. Causes malignant hyperthermia

Answer: C

22. Midazolam causes all except:
A. Anterograde amnesia
B. Retrograde amnesia
C. Causes tachyphylaxis during high dose infusions
D. Decreased cardiovascular effects as compared to propofol

Answer: B

23. Which of the following inhalational agent sensitizes myocardium to catecholamine
A. Sevoflurane
B. Isoflurane
C. Ether
D. Halothane

Answer: D

24. Gas used in rapid airbag inflation
A. Sodium azide
B. Nitrocellulose
C. Mercuric nitrate
D. Potassium nitrate

Answer: A

25. Which of the following is not primarily used to anesthetize mucosa ?
A. Benzocaine
B. Lidocaine
C. Bupivacain
D. Tetracaine

Answer: C

26. Post spinal headache lasts for ?
A. 10 min
B. I hrs
C. 10 days
D. 1 week

Answer: C

27. Laryngeal mask airway not used in ?
A. Baby weighing < 1500gms
B. Pregnant Patients
C. Ocular Surgeries
D. Difficult airway

Answer: B

28. Local anaesthetic causing methemoglobinuria is?
A. Dibucaine
B. Chlorprocaine
C. Procaine
D. Benzocaine

Answer: D

29. Which of the following are features of pulmonary oxygen toxicity?
A. Increased capillary endothelial permeability
B. Decreased mucociliary transport in airways
C. Inhibition of phagocytosis function of alveolar macrophages
D. All the above

Answer: D

30. Which of the following systems can be used to produce PEEP?
A. Spring system
B. Ball valve system
C. Pneumatic system
D. All the above

Answer: D

31. Which of the following is contraindicated in head injury?
A. Ketamine
B. Halothane
C. N,0
D. Propofol

Answer: A

32. Percentage of tetracaine used in eye surgery?
A. 0.5%
B. 1%
C. 2%
D. 4%

Answer: A

33. What is the pressure at which oxygen is stored?
A. 75 psi
B. 1600 psi
C. 760 psi
D. 2200 psi

Answer: D

34. True about post dural headache is all except:?
A. Orienting beveled edge needle parallel to long axis prevents it
B. Thin bore needle prevents it
C. It is more common in males
D. Timing of ambulation has no effect over its incidence

Answer: C

35. Ketamine contraindicated in all except?
A. Head injury
B. Hypertension
C. Asthma
D. Glaucoma

Answer: C

36. In Bier’s block aesthetic agent given by which route?
A. Intravenous
B. Peribulbar region
C. Retrobulbar area
D. Dermal

Answer: A

37. What is the next step in management in managing a child with difficult intubation with 4 failed attempts at intubation?
A. Use LMA
B. Abandon the procedure
C. Try ET tube intibation again
D. Cricothyrotomy

Answer: A

38. Following group of drugs is not the first line in the management of chronic pain?
A. Opioids
B. Antiepileptics
C. Serotonergic drugs
D. Dopamine antagonist

Answer: D

39. Anaesthetic of choice for day care srgery is?
A. Thiopentone
B. Nitrous oxide
C. Propofol
D. Halothane

Answer: C

40. Macintosh indicator is used for ?
A. To assess degree of NM blockade
B. Localization of extradural space
C. To assess level of GA
D. To monitor respiratory depression

Answer: B

41. Atracurium is excreted by
A. Renal excretion
B. Hepatic elimination
C. Nonenzymatic degradation
D. All of the above

Answer: C

42. Local anaesthetic with prolonged action ?
A. Procaine
B. Cocaine
C. Lidocaine
D. Dibucaine

Answer: D

43. Drug used to prolong action of LA in Hypertensive pts?
A. Clonidine
B. Felypressin
C. Dexmeditomidate
D. Noradrenalin

Answer: B

44. Which among the following is a depolarising muscle relaxant?
A. Decamethonium
B. D tubocurarine
C. Doxacurium

D. Atracurium

Answer: A

45. Which of the following is fastest acting inhalational anaesthetic agent?
A. Halothane
B. Desflurane
C. Sevoflurane
D. Isoflurane

Answer: B

46. Current mode of analgesia best for intrapartum pain relief?
A. Epidural analgesia
B. Spinal anaesthesia
C. Inhalational
D. Local analgesia

Answer: A

47. The most appropriate circuit for ventilating a spontaneously breathing infant during anaesthesia is?
A. jackson Rees modification of Ayre’s T piece
B. Mapleson A or Magill’s circuit
C. Mapleson C or Waters to and fro canister
D. Bains circuit

Answer: A

48. Characteristic EEC pattern seen in surgical tolerance stage of anesthesia is?
A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Delta
D. Theta

Answer: C

49. Supraclavicular block is used for surgery of ?
A. Shoulder
B. Forearm
C. Arm
D. All

Answer: D

50. All of the following about thiopentone are true except?
A. It decreases ICT
B. It has anticonvulsant action
C. IV injection is painless
D. It can cause reflex tachycardia

Answer: C

51. Thiopentone is not used in?
A. Induction of anesthesia
B. Medically induced coma
C. As truth serum
D. As antidepressant

Answer: D

52. IV dose of 1: 10000 concentration of epinephrine in pre term baby is?
A. 0.1m1
B. 0.2 ml
C. 0.3 ml
D. 0.4 ml

Answer: B

53. Longest acting among muscle relaxant is?
A. Doxacurium
B. Rocuronium
C. Vecuronium
D. Atracurium

Answer: A

54. Warfarin to be stopped____________ days before surgery?
A. 2 to 3 days
B. 4 to 5 days
C. 6 to 7 days
D. 8 to 9 days

Answer: B

55. False about local anesthetics
A. Prilocaine is less toxic than lignocaine
B. Lignocaine is used as an antiarrhythmic
C. Mixture of ligno + prilocaine is known as eutectic
D. Lidocaine is shorter acting than bupivacaine

Answer: A

56. Most common complication of coeliac plexus block ?
A. Hypotension
B. Parasthesias
C. Diarrhea
D. Pneumothorax

Answer: A

57. True about malignant hyperthermia is all except
A. Most common cause is Sch
B. Dantrolene is the drug of choice
C. End tidal CO, is increased
D. Bradycardia occurs

Answer: D

58. Elderly patient with fracture right hip anesthetic of choice
A. Spinal/ epidural
B. General
C. Local infiltration
D. None of the above

Answer: A

59. Which is a safe muscle relaxant in renal failure ?
A. Cisatracurium
B. Rocuronum
C. Vecuronium
D. Succinylcholine

Answer: A

60. Onset of post spinal headache is usually at hours after spinal anesthesia
A. 0 – 6
B. 6-12
C. 12 – 72
D. 72 – 96

Answer: C

61. DISS is used for ?
A. Correct application of cylinder to anaesthesia machine
B. To provide analgesia
C. To monitor BP
D. To monitor CVP

Answer: A

62. Drugs used for day care surgery are all except?
A. Propofol
B. Sevoflurane
C. Doxacurium
D. Desflurane

Answer: C

63. Shortest acting non depolarizing muscle relaxant is?
A. Mivacurium
B. Doxacuronium
C. Pipecurium
D. Vecuronium

Answer: A

64. Henrys law states that?
A. At a constant temperature gas dissolves in solution in proportion to its partial pressure
B. At a constant Pressure gas dissolves in solution in proportion to its temperature
C. At a constant temperature gas dissolves in solution in proportion to its fat solubilityD. At a constant pressure gas dissolves in solution in proportion to its fat solubility

Answer: A

65. Propofol infusion syndrome all except?
A. Occurs with infusion of propofol for 48 hours or longer
B. Occurs in critically ill patients
C. Features are nausea and vomiting
D. Features are cardiomyopathy, hepatomegaly

Answer: C

66. Hyperbaric oxygen is not useful in?
A. Anemia
B. Vertigo
C. Gas gangrene
D. Compartment Syndrome

Answer: B

67. Treatment in post operative shivering?
A. Pethidine
B. Piritramide
C. Methadone
D. Pentazocine

Answer: A

68. Standard method to differentiate between endotracheal and esophageal intubation is?
A. End tidal CO2
B. Chest X-rays
C. Auscultation
D. Partial pressure of 02

Answer: A

69. Anesthetic agent/s which have tocolytic effect are?
A. Halothane
B. Enflurane
C. Isoflurane
D. All the above

Answer: D

70. Following are hepatotoxic anesthetic agents except?
A. Halothane
B. Chloroform
C. Ether
D. Propofol

Answer: D

71. Action of which anesthetic agent is through NMDA receptors?
A. Xenon
B. NO
C. Succinylcholine
D. Etomidate

Answer: A

72. All of the following are Nondepolarising muscular blockers except
A. Pancuranium
B. Dexacurium
C. D-Tubocurarine
D. Succinylcholine

Answer: D

73. In epidural anaesthesia drug is injected ?
A. Outside the dura
B. Inside the duramater
C. Inside arachnoidmater
D. Inside piamater

Answer: A

74. Celiac plexus block all the following is true except ?
A. Relieved pain from gastric malignancy
B. Cause hypotention
C. Can be used to provide anesthesia for intra abdominal surgery
D. Can be given only by retrocrural (classiC. approach

Answer: D

75. Best uterine relaxation is seen with ?
A. Chloroform
B. Nitrous oxide
C. Ether
D. Halothane

Answer: D

76. Dibucain number refers to ?
A. Ach cholinestrase activity derangement
B. Potency of muscle relaxants
C. Potency of general anaesthetics
D. None

Answer: A

77. Percentage of lidocaine in Eutectic mixture A. 1%
B. 2.5%
C. 5%
D. 10%

Answer: B

78. Long acting local anaesthetic ?
A. Procaine
B. Lignocaine
C. Prilocaine
D. Dibucaine

Answer: D

79. Hepatotoxic inhalational agent ?
A. Halothane
B. Enflurane
C. Desflurane
D. Sevoflurane

Answer: A

80. A patient after giving inhalational anaestheia developed fulminant hepatitis, patient was exposed to same drug previously. Which is the drug?
A. Halothane
B. N20
C. Enflurane
D. Isoflurane

Answer: A

81. Least MAC is of which inhalational agent?
A. Xenon
B. Halothane
C. Sevoflurane
D. Isoflurane

Answer: A

82. In pseudocholinesterase deficiency, drug to be used cautiously is

A. Barbiturate
B. Succinylcholine
C. Halothane
D. Gallamine

om

Answer: B

83. Blood : Gas partition coefficient is a measure of ?
A. Potency of anaesthetic agent
B. Speed of induction and recovery
C. Lipid solubility of agent
D. None

Answer: B

84. Inhalational agent of choice for neurosurgery ?
A. Halothane
B. Enflurane
C. Isoflurane
D. N20

Answer: C

85. Regarding propofol, which one of the following is false?
A. It is used as an intravenous induction agent
B. It causes severe vomiting
C. It is painful on injecting intravenously
D. It has no muscle relaxant property

Answer: B

86. Not a sign of stellate ganglion block?
A. Miosis
B. Exopthalomos
C. Nasal congestion
D. Conjunctival redness

Answer: B

87. The term “balanced anaesthesia” has been given by?
A. Simpson
B. Fischer
C. Lundy
D. Mortan

Answer: C

88. High spinal anaesthesia is associated with?
A. Decreased BP & decreased heart rate
B. Increased BP & decreased heart rate
C. Decreased BP & increased heart rate
D. Increased BP & increased heart rate

Answer: A

89. Eutectic mixture of local anaesthetic (EMLA. cream is
A. Bupivacaine 2.0% + Prilocaine 2.5%
B. Lidocaine 2.5% + Prilocaine 2.5%
C. Lidocaine 2.5% + Prilocaine 5%
D. Bupivacaine 0.5% + Lidocaine 2.5%

Answer: B

90. Which anaesthetic belongs to ester group?

A. Procaine
B. Times New Roman
C. Lignocaine
D. Propofol

Answer: A

91. The latest AHA 2010 for CPCR in basic life support by two individuals for cardiac external massage & ventilation in adult is?
A. 30-2
B. 15-1
C. 15-2
D. 30-1

Answer: A

92. Best local anaesthetic for ophthalmic surgery is
A. Tetracaine
B. Prilocaine
C. Procaine
D. Bupivacaine

Answer: D

93. Percentage of adrenaline with lignocaine for local infilteration is?
A. 1:1000
B. 1:10000
C. 1:100
D. 1:50000

Answer: D

94. Local anaesthesia causing methemoglobinemia ?
A. Procaine
B. Prilocaine
C. Etodicaine
D. Ropivacaine

Answer: B

95. Intraocular pressure is increased by which anaesthetic?
A. Ketamine
B. Propofol
C. N20
D. Isoflurane

Answer: A

96. A 6 year old boy taken for ophthalmic examination under anaesthesia. His father
told that he has lower limb weakness & his elder brother died at 14 years of age. Which anaethetic drug has to be avoided

A. Succinylcholine
B. Pancuronium
C. Atracurium
D. Dexacurium

Answer: A

97. Critical temperature of oxygen is?
A. 20
B. 118
C. 36.5
D. 400C

Answer: B

98. Disadvantage of ketamine is?
A. Increased heart rate
B. Increased ICT
C. Delirium
D. All of the above

Answer: D

99. All are false about N20 except?
A. Least potent
B. Good muscle relaxant
C. Lighter than air
D. No diffusion hypoxia

Answer: A

100. Which anaesthetic is contraindicated in renal failure?
A. Isoflurane
B. Desflurane
C. Halothane
D. Methoxyflurne

Answer: D

101. Conscious sedation is ?
A. CNS depression with uncociousness
B. Sedation with inability to respond to command
C. Sedation with ability to respond to command
D. Any of the above

Answer: C

102. During rapid induction of anesthesia ?
A. Sellick’s maneuver is not required
B. Pre-oxygenation is mandatory
C. Suxamethonium is contraindicated
D. Patient is mechanically ventilated before endotracheal
intubation

Answer: B

103. Who coined term anaesthesia ?
A. Morton
B. Holmes
C. Morgan
D. Priestly

Answer: A

104. Drug used for emergency intubation is ?
A. Propofol
B. Ketamine
C. Eomidate
D. None

Answer: A

105. Maximum global warming is by?
A. Desflurane
B. Isoflurane
C. Sevoflurane
D. Halothane

Answer: A

106. Which anaesthetic drug contributes to green house effect?
A. Enflurane
B. Desflurane
C. Sevoflurane
D. Halothane

Answer: B

107. Most commonly used approach of brachial plexus block?
A. Interscalene
B. Supraclavicular
C. Infraclavicular
D. Axillary

Answer: B

108. Which of the following is safe even if injected intraarterial?
A. Thiopentone
B. Propofol
C. Mida7olam
D. Methohexitone

Answer: B

109. Critical temperature for liquid nitrogen is ?
A. 36.5°C
B. -20°C
C. -147°C
D. -242°C

Answer: C

110. Supreme LMA characteristic is
A. Has no bite block
B. Used in infants
C. High pressure, low volume
D. Has built in drain tube

Answer: D

111. In pediatric epidural anaestheisia, volume of local anaesthetic given to cause sacral dermatome block is?
A. 0.5 -1 ml/kg
B. 2 – 4 ml/kg
C. 5 – 10 ml/kg
D. None

Answer: A

112. Fastest induction and recovery is seen with ?
A. Desflurane
B. N,0
C. Halothane
D. Enflurane

Answer: A

113. Shortest acting local anaesthetics ?
A. Lignocaine
B. Bupivacaine
C. Etidocaine
D. Chlorprocaine

Answer: D

114. Circuit of choice for controlled ventilation ?
A. Magill circuit
B. Type C
C. Type D
D. Type E

Answer: C

115. All are used for local infiltration except ?
A. Lidocaine
B. Ropivacaine
C. Dibucaine
D. Bupivacaine

Answer: C

116. Drug of choice for Bier’s block ?
A. Bupivacaine
B. Etidocaine
C. Ropivacaine
D. Lidocaine

Answer: D

117. Smooth induction is seen by A. Ether
B. Halothane
C. Isoflurane
D. Enflurane

I

Answer: C

118. True about conscious sedation are all except ?
A. CNS depression
B. Patient is conscious
C. Protective reflexes are abolished
D. Patient can obey commands

Answer: C

119. Longest part of optic nerve ?
A. Intraocular
B. Intracranial
C. Intraorbital
D. Intracranial

Answer: C

120. Stocker’s line is seen in?
A. Pterygium
B. Glaucoma
C. Posterior scleritis
D. Diabetic retinopathy

Answer: A

121. Most common infection in contact lens users is?
A. Streptococcus
B. Pseudomonas
C. Staphylococcus
D. Neisseria

Answer: B

122. Polyopia/diplopia is seen in which type of cataract?
A. Nuclear
B. Cortical
C. Posterior subcapsular
D. Anterior polar

Answer: B

123. Pulsatile proptosis is a feature of ?
A. Orbital varix
B. Retinoblastoma
C. Cortico-cavernous fistula
D. Covernous sinus thrombosis

Answer: C

124. Photoretinitis is due to?
A. Snow reflection
B. Solar eclipse
C. Blunt trauma
D. None of the above

Answer: B

125. Parachute lesions are seen in ?
A. Eale’s disease
B. Diabetes
C. Sickle cell anemia
D. All of the above

Answer: D

126. Foster Kennedy syndrome is
A. I/L Papilloedema CiL optic atrophy
B. I/L Optic atrophy C/L papilloedema
C. I/L Optic atrophy and papilloedema
D. UL Papilloedema C/L papilitis

Answer: B

127. Enucleation of the eyeball is contraindicated in ?
A. ndophthalmitis
B. Panophthalmitis
C. Intraocular tumours d
D. Painful blind eye

Answer: B

128. Type of laser used for iridotomy ?
A. Excimer
B. Krypton red
C. Nd:YAG
D. Diode

Answer: C

129. Most common cause of ptosis ?
A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Paralysis of 3rd nerve
C. Idiopathic
D. Congenital

Answer: D

130. Nerve carrying motor component of light reflex?
A. 1St nerve
B. 2″ nerve
C. 3′ nerve
D. 4th nerve

Answer: C

131. Altitudinal visual field defect is seen in ?
A. Papilloedema
B. Retinitis pigmentosa
C. Anterior ischemic neuropathy
D. Buphthalmos

Answer: C

132. Upper Lid Retractors include
A. Muller muscle and superior rectus
B. Levator palpabrae superioris and superior oblique
C. Superior oblique and superior rectus
D. Levator palpabrae superioris & muller muscle

Answer: D

133. A patient with ptosis, upper 4 mm of cornea is covered by upper eyelid. Grade of Ptosis is ?
A. Mild
B. Moderat
C. Severe
D. Profound

Answer: A

134. Schwable’s ring is seen in which layer of cornea
A. Bowmann’s membrane
B. Stroma
C. Descemet’s membrane
D. Substantia propria

Answer: C

135. Phase II block is seen with A. SCh infusion
B. Single dose SCh
C. Mivacurium
D. None of the above

Answer: A

136. Anaesthetic gas with maximum respiratory irritation
A. Halothane
B. Enflurane
C. Desflurane
D. Sevoflurane

Answer: C

137. IV administration of which anesthetic drug is most painful among the following?
A. Methohexital
B. Ketamine
C. Propofol
D. Etomidate

Answer: C

138. Which of the following is not cardiodepressive?
A. Propofol
B. Thiopentone
C. Ketamine
D. Etomidate

Answer: D

139. Which of the following is the most common method used to know depth of anaesthesia?
A. BIS
B. Oesophageal contractility
C. Depressed responses
D. Hypotension

Answer: A

140. MRP 2 associated with which of the following?
A. Rotor syndrome
B. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
C. Crigler-Najjar syndrome
D. Gilbert syndrome

Answer: B

141. In ophthalmology a patient is allergic to aminoesters. What can be used?
A. Cocaine
B. Procaine
C. Prilocaine
D. Bupivacaine
e) Tetracaine

Answer: C😀

142. Drug(s) not given as transdermal patch:
A. Fentanyl
B. Diclofenac
C. Morphine
D. Clonidine
e) Buprenorphine

Answer: B:C

143. Mallampatti’s classification is for?
A. Mobility of cervical spine
B. Mobility of atlanto axial joint
C. Assessment of free rotation of neck before intubation
D. Inspection of oral cavity before intubation

Answer: D

144. Anesthetic agent of choice in asthma
patient is?
A. Thiopentone
B. Methexitone
C. Ketamine
D. Propofol

Answer: C

145. Pin index system is a safety feature adopted in anesthesia machines to prevent?
A. Incorrect attachment of anesthesia machines
B. Incorrect attachment of anesthesia face masks
C. Incorrect inhalation agent delivery
D. Incorrect gas cylinder attachment

Answer: D

146. Propofol shows following effect on EEG?
A. Activation
B. Depression
C. Depression in low doses and activation in high doses
D. None of the above

Answer: B

147. Type E circuit is used for?
A. Spontaneous ventilation
B. Controlled ventilation
C. Children
D. An used for all of the above indications

Answer: C

148. Anesthetic agent leading to bradycardia is?
A. Pancuronium
B. Vecuronium
C. Atracurium
D. Propofol

Answer: D

149. Size of LMA for a 15kg child is?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Answer: B

150. Intra-arterial thiopentone injection leads to?
A. Ischemia
B. Vasodilatation
C. Vomiting
D. Hypertension

Answer: A

151. In mechanical ventilation, peak pressure in inspiration denotes ?
A. Compliance of lung
B. Capacity of inspiratory muscles
C. Airway resistance
D. All of the above

Answer: C

152. Hypotension following spinal anesthesia can be best prevented by?
A. Preloading with colloids
B. Using small size needle
C. Preloading with crystalloids
D. All of the above

Answer: A

153. Propofol vial, once opened, should be used within?
A. 2 hours
B. 4 hours
C. 6 hours
D. 8 hours

Answer: C

154. Which of the following agent is associated with maximum histamine release?
A. d-Tubocurarine
B. Cisatracurium
C. Pancronium
D. Rocuronium

Answer: A

155. What is the intubation dose of pancuronium?
A. 0.1 mg/kg
B. 1 mg/kg
C. 10 mg/kg
D. 20 mg/kg

Answer: A

156. Relative contraindication of neuraxial/regional anesthesia is?
A. Hypertension
B. Renal disease
C. Sepsis
D. Diabetes

Answer: C

157. “Triangle of Petit” is a landmark for which block?
A. Spinal block
B. Bier’s block
C. TAP block
D. Epidural block

Answer: C

158. CNS affection of a local anesthetic agent leads to?
A. Convulsion
B. Perioral numbness
C. Depression
D. All of the above

Answer: D

159. Succinylcholine is contraindicated in?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypocalcemia

Answer: A

160. Benzocaine is used in which type of anesthesia?
A. Topical
B. Spinal
C. Epidural
D. All of the above

Answer: A

161. A patient with normal succinylcholine metabolism will have Dibucaine number between?
A. 20-30
B. 40-45
C. 50-60
D. 70-80

Answer: D

162. American anesthetic association says that clopidogrel should be withheld how many days before surgery?
A. 1 day
B. 1 week
C. 3 weeks
D. 4 weeks

Answer: B

163. Among the following agents, maximum boiling point is associated with?
A. Sevoflurane
B. Isofurane
C. Methoxyflurane
D. Desflurane

Answer: C

164. Which of the following inhalational anesthetic agent most easily crosses blood brain barrier?
A. Methoxyflurane
B. Sevoflurane
C. Desflurane
D. Nitrous oxide

Answer: A

165. Which of the following anesthetic agent most is lipid soluble?
A. Nitrous oxide
B. Methoxyflurane
C. Isoflurane
D. Halothane

Answer: B

166. Etomidate is not used for long term infusion because?
A. Results in adrenal suppression
B. May cause vasospasm
C. Results in cardiac arrhythmias
D. May cause increase in ICT

Answer: A

167. Arm tongue time is ?
A. 13 secs
B. 15 secs
C. 20 secs
D. 40 secs

Answer: A

168. Respiratory failure in a post operative patient is ?
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4

Answer: C

169. Laryngeal mask airway [LMA] is contraindicated in?
A. Difficult airways
B. Ocular surgeries
C. Pregnant female
D. In CPR

Answer: C

170. All of the following are advantages of LMA except?
A. More reliable than face mask
B. Prevent aspiration
C. Alternative to Endotracheal intubation
D. Does not require laryngoscope & visualization

Answer: B

171. Only available depolarizing muscle relaxant is ?
A. Decamethonium
B. Suxamethonium
C. Mivacurium
D. None

Answer: B

172. Which anesthetic gas was used by WTG Morton in his experiment ?
A. Nitrous oxide
B. Ammonia
C. Diethyl ether
D. Trichloroethylene

Answer: C

173. Suxamethonium acts through which channels ?

A. Sodium channels
B. Potassium channels
C. Calcium channels
D. Chloride channels

Answer: A

174. Mouth to mouth respiration provides what percentage of oxygen ?

A. 10%
B. 16%
C. 21%
D. 100%

Answer: B

175. Which of the following anesthetic agent is a potent bronchodilator

A. Propofol
B. Ketamine
C. Thiopentone
D. Methoxytone

Answer: B

176. Landmark for pudendal nerve block is ?
A. Ischial tuberosity
B. Iliac spine
C. Sacroiliac joint
D. None of the above

Answer: A

177. Post dural puncture headache usually presents with in ?
A. 0-6 Hrs
B. 6-12 Hrs
C. 12-72 Hrs
D. 72-96 Hrs

Answer: C

178. Cauda equina syndrome is associated with ?
A. Lidocaine
B. Halothane
C. N20
D. Ether

Answer: A

179. Not included in neuraxial block ?
A. Spinal block
B. Epidural block
C. Bier’s block
D. Caudal block

Answer: C

180. Contraindication to neruaxial block is ?
A. Hypertension
B. Renal disease
C. Clotting disorders
D. Diabetes

Answer: C

181. Most common cause of maternal mortality in spinal anesthesia is ?
A. Allergy to local anesthesia
B. Nerve injury
C. High block
D. Hypotension

Answer: C

182. Cocaine was first used as local anaesthetic by ?
A. Carl kollar
B. Holmer wells
C. Morton
D. None

Answer: A

183. Levels of ether anesthesia were demonstrated by whom?
A. Morton
B. Guedel
C. Thompson
D. None

Answer: B

184. Infant circuit for anaesthesia ?
A. Bains circuit
B. Magill circuit
C. Ayres t piece
D. Water’s circuit

Answer: C

185. Ayre’s T-piece is which type of circuit
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type E
D. Type D

Answer: C

186. Most reliable indicator to prevent oesophageal intubation ?
A. Oxygen saturation on pulse oximeter
B. Measurement of CO2 in exhaled air (Etco2)
C. Direct visualization of passing tube beneath vocal cords
D. Auscultation over chest

Answer: B

187. All are features of difficult airway except ?
A. Miller’s sign
B. Micrognathia with macroglossia
C. TMJ ankylosis
D. Increased thyromental distance

Answer: D

188. Ratio of 02: N20 in Entonox is ?
A. 50 : 50
B. 60 : 40
C. 40 : 60
D. 25 : 75

Answer: A

189. Which is the critical temperature of N20 ?
A. -118°C
B. -88°C
C. -26°C
D. -36.5°C

Answer: D

190. Which anaesthetic agent is neither metabolised by liver nor by kidney ?
A. Atracurium
B. Vecuronium
C. Pancuronium
D. Rocuronium

 

Answer: A

191. Fast induction and recovery is seen in?
A. Methoxyflurane
B. Ether
C. Halothane
D. N2O

Answer: D

192. MAC of desflurane is ?
A. 1.15
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6

Answer: D

193. Which can replace N20 as 02 carrier?
A. Argon
B. Xenon
C. Helium
D. None

Answer: C

194. Benefit of ketamine ?
A. Causes decrease in BP
B. Good analgesic action
C. Decrease ICT
D. Decrease IOT

Answer: B

195. Which of the following is a sympathomimetic ?
A. Propofol
B. Etomidate
C. Ketamine
D. N2O

Answer: C

196. Which cant be given by Epidural anaesthesia ?
A. Morphine
B. Remifentanil
C. Alfentanil
D. Fentanyl

Answer: B

197. Addition of epinephrine to lignocaine?
A. Increaseses distribution of LA
B. Decreases absorption of LA
C. Decreases duration of LA
D. Increases metabolism of LA

Answer: B

198. Maximum concentration for epidural block ?
A. Bupivacaine
B. Lidocaine
C. Ropivacaine
D. Chlorprocaine

Answer: D

199. Vasoconstricator L.A. is ?
A. Cocaine
B. Procaine
C. Lidocaine
D. Chlorprocaine

Answer: A

200. All are contraindications of spinal anaesthesia Except?

A. Bleeding disorder
B. Raised intracranial tension
C. Hypertension
D. Infection at injection site

Answer: C

201. For prevention of headache during spinal anaesthesia?
A. Diluted solution of local anaesthetic should be used
B. Preloading with crystalloids
C. Finer I.P. needle should be used
D. Head end should be elevated

Answer: C

202. In newborn, chest compression should be started if heart rate is ?
A. < 120/min
B. < 100/min
C. < 80/min
D. < 60/min

Answer: D

203. Murphy’s eye is seen in A. Macintosh laryngoscope
B. Endotracheal tube
C. LMA
D. Flexible laryngoscope

Answer: B

204. Modified MallamPati grading is used in assessment of

A. Difficult intubation
B. Airway obstruction
C. Death due to aspiration
D. Intubation

Answer: A

205. Which nerve is tested for adequacy of anaesthesia

A. Median Nerve
B. Ulnar Nerve
C. Radial nerve
D. Mandibular nerve

Answer: A

206. Most effective circuit in spontaneous anaesthesia is

A. Mapleson A
B. Mapleson B
C. Mapleson C
D. Mapleson D

Answer: A

207. What is mechanism of action of Curanium drugs as muscle relaxant?
A. Persistently depolarizing at Neuromuscular junction
B. Act competitively on Ach receptors blocking post-synaptically
C. Repetitive stimulation of Ach receptors on muscle end plate
D. Inhibiting the calcium channel on presynaptic membrane

Answer: B

208. During squint surgery, anesthesiologist sees the machine and see the bp
suddenly drops to 40. What will be best immediate management

A. Give atropine

B. Increase level of anesthesia

C. Ask the surgeon to stop the surgery

D. Give adrenaline

Answer: D

209. Oxygen therapy may not be useful in
A. Asthma
B. Pneumonia
C. Subglottic stenosis
D. Pulmonary fibrosis

Answer: D

210. Mouth to mouth respiration provides what percentage of oxygen ?
A. 10%
B. 16%
C. 21%
D. 100%

Answer: B

 

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