1. Ether was first used as an anaesthetic by?
A. Priesly
B. Morton
C. Wells
D. Simpson
Answer: B
2. The following increases Intra Ocular pressure:
A. Thiopentone
B. Althesin
C. Ketamine
D. Barbiturate
Answer: C
3. Composition of soda lime is: NaOH – Ca (OH)2 – KOH – Moisture
A. 4% – 90% – 1% – 5%
B. 4% – 80% – 1% – 15%
C. 80% – 10% – 5% – 5%
D. 15% – 80% – 1% – 4%
Answer: B
4. All of the following are correct about ketamine, EXCEPT:
A. It functionally “dissociates” the thalamus
B. It increases arterial blood pressure
C. It is a potent bronchoconstrictor
D. It inhibits polysynaptic reflexes in the spinal cord
Answer: C
5. A patient undergoing a minor surgical procedure is given lignocaine injection.
Assertion: Local anaesthetics acts by blocking nerve conduction.
Reason: Small fibers and non myelinated fibers are blocked more easily than large myelinated fibers.
A. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion
B. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion
C. Assertion is true, but Reason is false
D. Assertion is false, but Reason is true
6. The laryngeal mask airway used for securing the airway of a patient in all of the
following conditions, EXCEPT:
A. In a difficult intubation
B. In cardiopulmonary resuscitation
C. In a child undergoing an elective/routine eye surgery
D. In a patient with a large tumour in the oral cavity
Answer: D
7. All of the following statements about neuromuscular blockage produced by succinylcholine are true, except:
A. No fade on Train of four stimulation
B. Fade on tetanic stimulation
C. No post tetanic facilitation
D. Train of four ratio > 0.4
Answer: B
8. Mechanism of action of theophylline in Bronchial asthma include all of the following Except ?
A. Phosphodiesterase inhibition
B. Adenosine receptor antagonism
C. Increased histone deacetylation
D. Beta-2 receptor stimulation
Answer: D
9. Best to monitor intraoperative myocardial ischemia (infarction) is
A. ECG
B. CVP monitoring
C. Transesophageal echocardiography
D. Invasive intracarotid arterial pressure
Answer: C
10. Which of the following drugs produces dissociative anesthesia
A. Ketamine
B. Propofol
C. Thiopentone
D. Enflurane
11. Ketamine can be used in all of the situations except
A. Status asthamaticus
B. For analgesia & sedation
C. Obstetric hemorrhage
D. Ischemic heart disease
Answer: D
12. Anesthetic agent (s) safe to use in TICP
A. Halothane
B. Thiopentone
C. Ketamine
D. Ether
Answer: B
13. All of the following cause myocardial depression except:
A. Halothane
B. Etomidate
C. Thiopentone
D. Ketamine
Answer: B
14. At the end of anaesthesia after discontinuation of nitrous oxide and removal of endotracheal tube, 1000/0 oxygen is administered to the patient to prevent:
A. Diffusion Hypoxia
B. Second gas effect
C. Hyperoxia
D. Bronchospasm
Answer: A
15. Stages of anesthesia were established by
A. Ether
B. N20
C. Halothane
D. Chloroform
Answer: A
16. Hepatotoxic agent is
A. Ketamine
B. Ether
C. N20
D. Halothane
Answer: D
17. Shortest acting local anesthetic agent is
A. Procaine
B. Lidocaine
C. Tetracaine
D. Bupivacaine
Answer: A
18. Pudendal Nerve Block Involve
A. LiL2L3
B. L2L3L4
C. SiS2S3
D. S2S3S4
Answer: D
19. Which of the following anesthetic agents have analgesic property:
A. Ketamine
B. Nitrous oxide
C. Thiopentone
D. a and b
Answer: D
20. Contraindication of bag and mask ventilation are all of the following except:
March 2009
A. Tracheo-esophageal fistula
B. Hiatus hernia
C. Pregnancy
D. Empty stomach
Answer: D
21. Following is true about halothane except?
A. Volatile liquid with sweet odour
B. Sensitises heart to adrenaline
C. Constricts bronchii
D. Causes malignant hyperthermia
Answer: C
22. Midazolam causes all except:
A. Anterograde amnesia
B. Retrograde amnesia
C. Causes tachyphylaxis during high dose infusions
D. Decreased cardiovascular effects as compared to propofol
Answer: B
23. Which of the following inhalational agent sensitizes myocardium to catecholamine
A. Sevoflurane
B. Isoflurane
C. Ether
D. Halothane
Answer: D
24. Gas used in rapid airbag inflation
A. Sodium azide
B. Nitrocellulose
C. Mercuric nitrate
D. Potassium nitrate
Answer: A
25. Which of the following is not primarily used to anesthetize mucosa ?
A. Benzocaine
B. Lidocaine
C. Bupivacain
D. Tetracaine
Answer: C
26. Post spinal headache lasts for ?
A. 10 min
B. I hrs
C. 10 days
D. 1 week
Answer: C
27. Laryngeal mask airway not used in ?
A. Baby weighing < 1500gms
B. Pregnant Patients
C. Ocular Surgeries
D. Difficult airway
Answer: B
28. Local anaesthetic causing methemoglobinuria is?
A. Dibucaine
B. Chlorprocaine
C. Procaine
D. Benzocaine
Answer: D
29. Which of the following are features of pulmonary oxygen toxicity?
A. Increased capillary endothelial permeability
B. Decreased mucociliary transport in airways
C. Inhibition of phagocytosis function of alveolar macrophages
D. All the above
Answer: D
30. Which of the following systems can be used to produce PEEP?
A. Spring system
B. Ball valve system
C. Pneumatic system
D. All the above
Answer: D
31. Which of the following is contraindicated in head injury?
A. Ketamine
B. Halothane
C. N,0
D. Propofol
Answer: A
32. Percentage of tetracaine used in eye surgery?
A. 0.5%
B. 1%
C. 2%
D. 4%
Answer: A
33. What is the pressure at which oxygen is stored?
A. 75 psi
B. 1600 psi
C. 760 psi
D. 2200 psi
Answer: D
34. True about post dural headache is all except:?
A. Orienting beveled edge needle parallel to long axis prevents it
B. Thin bore needle prevents it
C. It is more common in males
D. Timing of ambulation has no effect over its incidence
Answer: C
35. Ketamine contraindicated in all except?
A. Head injury
B. Hypertension
C. Asthma
D. Glaucoma
Answer: C
36. In Bier’s block aesthetic agent given by which route?
A. Intravenous
B. Peribulbar region
C. Retrobulbar area
D. Dermal
Answer: A
37. What is the next step in management in managing a child with difficult intubation with 4 failed attempts at intubation?
A. Use LMA
B. Abandon the procedure
C. Try ET tube intibation again
D. Cricothyrotomy
Answer: A
38. Following group of drugs is not the first line in the management of chronic pain?
A. Opioids
B. Antiepileptics
C. Serotonergic drugs
D. Dopamine antagonist
Answer: D
39. Anaesthetic of choice for day care srgery is?
A. Thiopentone
B. Nitrous oxide
C. Propofol
D. Halothane
Answer: C
40. Macintosh indicator is used for ?
A. To assess degree of NM blockade
B. Localization of extradural space
C. To assess level of GA
D. To monitor respiratory depression
Answer: B
41. Atracurium is excreted by
A. Renal excretion
B. Hepatic elimination
C. Nonenzymatic degradation
D. All of the above
Answer: C
42. Local anaesthetic with prolonged action ?
A. Procaine
B. Cocaine
C. Lidocaine
D. Dibucaine
Answer: D
43. Drug used to prolong action of LA in Hypertensive pts?
A. Clonidine
B. Felypressin
C. Dexmeditomidate
D. Noradrenalin
Answer: B
44. Which among the following is a depolarising muscle relaxant?
A. Decamethonium
B. D tubocurarine
C. Doxacurium
D. Atracurium
Answer: A
45. Which of the following is fastest acting inhalational anaesthetic agent?
A. Halothane
B. Desflurane
C. Sevoflurane
D. Isoflurane
Answer: B
46. Current mode of analgesia best for intrapartum pain relief?
A. Epidural analgesia
B. Spinal anaesthesia
C. Inhalational
D. Local analgesia
Answer: A
47. The most appropriate circuit for ventilating a spontaneously breathing infant during anaesthesia is?
A. jackson Rees modification of Ayre’s T piece
B. Mapleson A or Magill’s circuit
C. Mapleson C or Waters to and fro canister
D. Bains circuit
Answer: A
48. Characteristic EEC pattern seen in surgical tolerance stage of anesthesia is?
A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Delta
D. Theta
Answer: C
49. Supraclavicular block is used for surgery of ?
A. Shoulder
B. Forearm
C. Arm
D. All
Answer: D
50. All of the following about thiopentone are true except?
A. It decreases ICT
B. It has anticonvulsant action
C. IV injection is painless
D. It can cause reflex tachycardia
Answer: C
51. Thiopentone is not used in?
A. Induction of anesthesia
B. Medically induced coma
C. As truth serum
D. As antidepressant
Answer: D
52. IV dose of 1: 10000 concentration of epinephrine in pre term baby is?
A. 0.1m1
B. 0.2 ml
C. 0.3 ml
D. 0.4 ml
Answer: B
53. Longest acting among muscle relaxant is?
A. Doxacurium
B. Rocuronium
C. Vecuronium
D. Atracurium
Answer: A
54. Warfarin to be stopped____________ days before surgery?
A. 2 to 3 days
B. 4 to 5 days
C. 6 to 7 days
D. 8 to 9 days
Answer: B
55. False about local anesthetics
A. Prilocaine is less toxic than lignocaine
B. Lignocaine is used as an antiarrhythmic
C. Mixture of ligno + prilocaine is known as eutectic
D. Lidocaine is shorter acting than bupivacaine
Answer: A
56. Most common complication of coeliac plexus block ?
A. Hypotension
B. Parasthesias
C. Diarrhea
D. Pneumothorax
Answer: A
57. True about malignant hyperthermia is all except
A. Most common cause is Sch
B. Dantrolene is the drug of choice
C. End tidal CO, is increased
D. Bradycardia occurs
Answer: D
58. Elderly patient with fracture right hip anesthetic of choice
A. Spinal/ epidural
B. General
C. Local infiltration
D. None of the above
Answer: A
59. Which is a safe muscle relaxant in renal failure ?
A. Cisatracurium
B. Rocuronum
C. Vecuronium
D. Succinylcholine
Answer: A
60. Onset of post spinal headache is usually at hours after spinal anesthesia
A. 0 – 6
B. 6-12
C. 12 – 72
D. 72 – 96
Answer: C
61. DISS is used for ?
A. Correct application of cylinder to anaesthesia machine
B. To provide analgesia
C. To monitor BP
D. To monitor CVP
Answer: A
62. Drugs used for day care surgery are all except?
A. Propofol
B. Sevoflurane
C. Doxacurium
D. Desflurane
Answer: C
63. Shortest acting non depolarizing muscle relaxant is?
A. Mivacurium
B. Doxacuronium
C. Pipecurium
D. Vecuronium
Answer: A
64. Henrys law states that?
A. At a constant temperature gas dissolves in solution in proportion to its partial pressure
B. At a constant Pressure gas dissolves in solution in proportion to its temperature
C. At a constant temperature gas dissolves in solution in proportion to its fat solubilityD. At a constant pressure gas dissolves in solution in proportion to its fat solubility
Answer: A
65. Propofol infusion syndrome all except?
A. Occurs with infusion of propofol for 48 hours or longer
B. Occurs in critically ill patients
C. Features are nausea and vomiting
D. Features are cardiomyopathy, hepatomegaly
Answer: C
66. Hyperbaric oxygen is not useful in?
A. Anemia
B. Vertigo
C. Gas gangrene
D. Compartment Syndrome
Answer: B
67. Treatment in post operative shivering?
A. Pethidine
B. Piritramide
C. Methadone
D. Pentazocine
Answer: A
68. Standard method to differentiate between endotracheal and esophageal intubation is?
A. End tidal CO2
B. Chest X-rays
C. Auscultation
D. Partial pressure of 02
Answer: A
69. Anesthetic agent/s which have tocolytic effect are?
A. Halothane
B. Enflurane
C. Isoflurane
D. All the above
Answer: D
70. Following are hepatotoxic anesthetic agents except?
A. Halothane
B. Chloroform
C. Ether
D. Propofol
Answer: D
71. Action of which anesthetic agent is through NMDA receptors?
A. Xenon
B. NO
C. Succinylcholine
D. Etomidate
Answer: A
72. All of the following are Nondepolarising muscular blockers except
A. Pancuranium
B. Dexacurium
C. D-Tubocurarine
D. Succinylcholine
Answer: D
73. In epidural anaesthesia drug is injected ?
A. Outside the dura
B. Inside the duramater
C. Inside arachnoidmater
D. Inside piamater
Answer: A
74. Celiac plexus block all the following is true except ?
A. Relieved pain from gastric malignancy
B. Cause hypotention
C. Can be used to provide anesthesia for intra abdominal surgery
D. Can be given only by retrocrural (classiC. approach
Answer: D
75. Best uterine relaxation is seen with ?
A. Chloroform
B. Nitrous oxide
C. Ether
D. Halothane
Answer: D
76. Dibucain number refers to ?
A. Ach cholinestrase activity derangement
B. Potency of muscle relaxants
C. Potency of general anaesthetics
D. None
Answer: A
77. Percentage of lidocaine in Eutectic mixture A. 1%
B. 2.5%
C. 5%
D. 10%
Answer: B
78. Long acting local anaesthetic ?
A. Procaine
B. Lignocaine
C. Prilocaine
D. Dibucaine
Answer: D
79. Hepatotoxic inhalational agent ?
A. Halothane
B. Enflurane
C. Desflurane
D. Sevoflurane
Answer: A
80. A patient after giving inhalational anaestheia developed fulminant hepatitis, patient was exposed to same drug previously. Which is the drug?
A. Halothane
B. N20
C. Enflurane
D. Isoflurane
Answer: A
81. Least MAC is of which inhalational agent?
A. Xenon
B. Halothane
C. Sevoflurane
D. Isoflurane
Answer: A
82. In pseudocholinesterase deficiency, drug to be used cautiously is
A. Barbiturate
B. Succinylcholine
C. Halothane
D. Gallamine
om
Answer: B
83. Blood : Gas partition coefficient is a measure of ?
A. Potency of anaesthetic agent
B. Speed of induction and recovery
C. Lipid solubility of agent
D. None
Answer: B
84. Inhalational agent of choice for neurosurgery ?
A. Halothane
B. Enflurane
C. Isoflurane
D. N20
Answer: C
85. Regarding propofol, which one of the following is false?
A. It is used as an intravenous induction agent
B. It causes severe vomiting
C. It is painful on injecting intravenously
D. It has no muscle relaxant property
Answer: B
86. Not a sign of stellate ganglion block?
A. Miosis
B. Exopthalomos
C. Nasal congestion
D. Conjunctival redness
Answer: B
87. The term “balanced anaesthesia” has been given by?
A. Simpson
B. Fischer
C. Lundy
D. Mortan
Answer: C
88. High spinal anaesthesia is associated with?
A. Decreased BP & decreased heart rate
B. Increased BP & decreased heart rate
C. Decreased BP & increased heart rate
D. Increased BP & increased heart rate
Answer: A
89. Eutectic mixture of local anaesthetic (EMLA. cream is
A. Bupivacaine 2.0% + Prilocaine 2.5%
B. Lidocaine 2.5% + Prilocaine 2.5%
C. Lidocaine 2.5% + Prilocaine 5%
D. Bupivacaine 0.5% + Lidocaine 2.5%
Answer: B
90. Which anaesthetic belongs to ester group?
A. Procaine
B. Times New Roman
C. Lignocaine
D. Propofol
Answer: A
91. The latest AHA 2010 for CPCR in basic life support by two individuals for cardiac external massage & ventilation in adult is?
A. 30-2
B. 15-1
C. 15-2
D. 30-1
Answer: A
92. Best local anaesthetic for ophthalmic surgery is
A. Tetracaine
B. Prilocaine
C. Procaine
D. Bupivacaine
Answer: D
93. Percentage of adrenaline with lignocaine for local infilteration is?
A. 1:1000
B. 1:10000
C. 1:100
D. 1:50000
Answer: D
94. Local anaesthesia causing methemoglobinemia ?
A. Procaine
B. Prilocaine
C. Etodicaine
D. Ropivacaine
Answer: B
95. Intraocular pressure is increased by which anaesthetic?
A. Ketamine
B. Propofol
C. N20
D. Isoflurane
Answer: A
96. A 6 year old boy taken for ophthalmic examination under anaesthesia. His father
told that he has lower limb weakness & his elder brother died at 14 years of age. Which anaethetic drug has to be avoided
A. Succinylcholine
B. Pancuronium
C. Atracurium
D. Dexacurium
Answer: A
97. Critical temperature of oxygen is?
A. 20
B. 118
C. 36.5
D. 400C
Answer: B
98. Disadvantage of ketamine is?
A. Increased heart rate
B. Increased ICT
C. Delirium
D. All of the above
Answer: D
99. All are false about N20 except?
A. Least potent
B. Good muscle relaxant
C. Lighter than air
D. No diffusion hypoxia
Answer: A
100. Which anaesthetic is contraindicated in renal failure?
A. Isoflurane
B. Desflurane
C. Halothane
D. Methoxyflurne
Answer: D
101. Conscious sedation is ?
A. CNS depression with uncociousness
B. Sedation with inability to respond to command
C. Sedation with ability to respond to command
D. Any of the above
Answer: C
102. During rapid induction of anesthesia ?
A. Sellick’s maneuver is not required
B. Pre-oxygenation is mandatory
C. Suxamethonium is contraindicated
D. Patient is mechanically ventilated before endotracheal
intubation
Answer: B
103. Who coined term anaesthesia ?
A. Morton
B. Holmes
C. Morgan
D. Priestly
Answer: A
104. Drug used for emergency intubation is ?
A. Propofol
B. Ketamine
C. Eomidate
D. None
Answer: A
105. Maximum global warming is by?
A. Desflurane
B. Isoflurane
C. Sevoflurane
D. Halothane
Answer: A
106. Which anaesthetic drug contributes to green house effect?
A. Enflurane
B. Desflurane
C. Sevoflurane
D. Halothane
Answer: B
107. Most commonly used approach of brachial plexus block?
A. Interscalene
B. Supraclavicular
C. Infraclavicular
D. Axillary
Answer: B
108. Which of the following is safe even if injected intraarterial?
A. Thiopentone
B. Propofol
C. Mida7olam
D. Methohexitone
Answer: B
109. Critical temperature for liquid nitrogen is ?
A. 36.5°C
B. -20°C
C. -147°C
D. -242°C
Answer: C
110. Supreme LMA characteristic is
A. Has no bite block
B. Used in infants
C. High pressure, low volume
D. Has built in drain tube
Answer: D
111. In pediatric epidural anaestheisia, volume of local anaesthetic given to cause sacral dermatome block is?
A. 0.5 -1 ml/kg
B. 2 – 4 ml/kg
C. 5 – 10 ml/kg
D. None
Answer: A
112. Fastest induction and recovery is seen with ?
A. Desflurane
B. N,0
C. Halothane
D. Enflurane
Answer: A
113. Shortest acting local anaesthetics ?
A. Lignocaine
B. Bupivacaine
C. Etidocaine
D. Chlorprocaine
Answer: D
114. Circuit of choice for controlled ventilation ?
A. Magill circuit
B. Type C
C. Type D
D. Type E
Answer: C
115. All are used for local infiltration except ?
A. Lidocaine
B. Ropivacaine
C. Dibucaine
D. Bupivacaine
Answer: C
116. Drug of choice for Bier’s block ?
A. Bupivacaine
B. Etidocaine
C. Ropivacaine
D. Lidocaine
Answer: D
117. Smooth induction is seen by A. Ether
B. Halothane
C. Isoflurane
D. Enflurane
I
Answer: C
118. True about conscious sedation are all except ?
A. CNS depression
B. Patient is conscious
C. Protective reflexes are abolished
D. Patient can obey commands
Answer: C
119. Longest part of optic nerve ?
A. Intraocular
B. Intracranial
C. Intraorbital
D. Intracranial
Answer: C
120. Stocker’s line is seen in?
A. Pterygium
B. Glaucoma
C. Posterior scleritis
D. Diabetic retinopathy
Answer: A
121. Most common infection in contact lens users is?
A. Streptococcus
B. Pseudomonas
C. Staphylococcus
D. Neisseria
Answer: B
122. Polyopia/diplopia is seen in which type of cataract?
A. Nuclear
B. Cortical
C. Posterior subcapsular
D. Anterior polar
Answer: B
123. Pulsatile proptosis is a feature of ?
A. Orbital varix
B. Retinoblastoma
C. Cortico-cavernous fistula
D. Covernous sinus thrombosis
Answer: C
124. Photoretinitis is due to?
A. Snow reflection
B. Solar eclipse
C. Blunt trauma
D. None of the above
Answer: B
125. Parachute lesions are seen in ?
A. Eale’s disease
B. Diabetes
C. Sickle cell anemia
D. All of the above
Answer: D
126. Foster Kennedy syndrome is
A. I/L Papilloedema CiL optic atrophy
B. I/L Optic atrophy C/L papilloedema
C. I/L Optic atrophy and papilloedema
D. UL Papilloedema C/L papilitis
Answer: B
127. Enucleation of the eyeball is contraindicated in ?
A. ndophthalmitis
B. Panophthalmitis
C. Intraocular tumours d
D. Painful blind eye
Answer: B
128. Type of laser used for iridotomy ?
A. Excimer
B. Krypton red
C. Nd:YAG
D. Diode
Answer: C
129. Most common cause of ptosis ?
A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Paralysis of 3rd nerve
C. Idiopathic
D. Congenital
Answer: D
130. Nerve carrying motor component of light reflex?
A. 1St nerve
B. 2″ nerve
C. 3′ nerve
D. 4th nerve
Answer: C
131. Altitudinal visual field defect is seen in ?
A. Papilloedema
B. Retinitis pigmentosa
C. Anterior ischemic neuropathy
D. Buphthalmos
Answer: C
132. Upper Lid Retractors include
A. Muller muscle and superior rectus
B. Levator palpabrae superioris and superior oblique
C. Superior oblique and superior rectus
D. Levator palpabrae superioris & muller muscle
Answer: D
133. A patient with ptosis, upper 4 mm of cornea is covered by upper eyelid. Grade of Ptosis is ?
A. Mild
B. Moderat
C. Severe
D. Profound
Answer: A
134. Schwable’s ring is seen in which layer of cornea
A. Bowmann’s membrane
B. Stroma
C. Descemet’s membrane
D. Substantia propria
Answer: C
135. Phase II block is seen with A. SCh infusion
B. Single dose SCh
C. Mivacurium
D. None of the above
Answer: A
136. Anaesthetic gas with maximum respiratory irritation
A. Halothane
B. Enflurane
C. Desflurane
D. Sevoflurane
Answer: C
137. IV administration of which anesthetic drug is most painful among the following?
A. Methohexital
B. Ketamine
C. Propofol
D. Etomidate
Answer: C
138. Which of the following is not cardiodepressive?
A. Propofol
B. Thiopentone
C. Ketamine
D. Etomidate
Answer: D
139. Which of the following is the most common method used to know depth of anaesthesia?
A. BIS
B. Oesophageal contractility
C. Depressed responses
D. Hypotension
Answer: A
140. MRP 2 associated with which of the following?
A. Rotor syndrome
B. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
C. Crigler-Najjar syndrome
D. Gilbert syndrome
Answer: B
141. In ophthalmology a patient is allergic to aminoesters. What can be used?
A. Cocaine
B. Procaine
C. Prilocaine
D. Bupivacaine
e) Tetracaine
Answer: C😀
142. Drug(s) not given as transdermal patch:
A. Fentanyl
B. Diclofenac
C. Morphine
D. Clonidine
e) Buprenorphine
Answer: B:C
143. Mallampatti’s classification is for?
A. Mobility of cervical spine
B. Mobility of atlanto axial joint
C. Assessment of free rotation of neck before intubation
D. Inspection of oral cavity before intubation
Answer: D
144. Anesthetic agent of choice in asthma
patient is?
A. Thiopentone
B. Methexitone
C. Ketamine
D. Propofol
Answer: C
145. Pin index system is a safety feature adopted in anesthesia machines to prevent?
A. Incorrect attachment of anesthesia machines
B. Incorrect attachment of anesthesia face masks
C. Incorrect inhalation agent delivery
D. Incorrect gas cylinder attachment
Answer: D
146. Propofol shows following effect on EEG?
A. Activation
B. Depression
C. Depression in low doses and activation in high doses
D. None of the above
Answer: B
147. Type E circuit is used for?
A. Spontaneous ventilation
B. Controlled ventilation
C. Children
D. An used for all of the above indications
Answer: C
148. Anesthetic agent leading to bradycardia is?
A. Pancuronium
B. Vecuronium
C. Atracurium
D. Propofol
Answer: D
149. Size of LMA for a 15kg child is?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B
150. Intra-arterial thiopentone injection leads to?
A. Ischemia
B. Vasodilatation
C. Vomiting
D. Hypertension
Answer: A
151. In mechanical ventilation, peak pressure in inspiration denotes ?
A. Compliance of lung
B. Capacity of inspiratory muscles
C. Airway resistance
D. All of the above
Answer: C
152. Hypotension following spinal anesthesia can be best prevented by?
A. Preloading with colloids
B. Using small size needle
C. Preloading with crystalloids
D. All of the above
Answer: A
153. Propofol vial, once opened, should be used within?
A. 2 hours
B. 4 hours
C. 6 hours
D. 8 hours
Answer: C
154. Which of the following agent is associated with maximum histamine release?
A. d-Tubocurarine
B. Cisatracurium
C. Pancronium
D. Rocuronium
Answer: A
155. What is the intubation dose of pancuronium?
A. 0.1 mg/kg
B. 1 mg/kg
C. 10 mg/kg
D. 20 mg/kg
Answer: A
156. Relative contraindication of neuraxial/regional anesthesia is?
A. Hypertension
B. Renal disease
C. Sepsis
D. Diabetes
Answer: C
157. “Triangle of Petit” is a landmark for which block?
A. Spinal block
B. Bier’s block
C. TAP block
D. Epidural block
Answer: C
158. CNS affection of a local anesthetic agent leads to?
A. Convulsion
B. Perioral numbness
C. Depression
D. All of the above
Answer: D
159. Succinylcholine is contraindicated in?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypocalcemia
Answer: A
160. Benzocaine is used in which type of anesthesia?
A. Topical
B. Spinal
C. Epidural
D. All of the above
Answer: A
161. A patient with normal succinylcholine metabolism will have Dibucaine number between?
A. 20-30
B. 40-45
C. 50-60
D. 70-80
Answer: D
162. American anesthetic association says that clopidogrel should be withheld how many days before surgery?
A. 1 day
B. 1 week
C. 3 weeks
D. 4 weeks
Answer: B
163. Among the following agents, maximum boiling point is associated with?
A. Sevoflurane
B. Isofurane
C. Methoxyflurane
D. Desflurane
Answer: C
164. Which of the following inhalational anesthetic agent most easily crosses blood brain barrier?
A. Methoxyflurane
B. Sevoflurane
C. Desflurane
D. Nitrous oxide
Answer: A
165. Which of the following anesthetic agent most is lipid soluble?
A. Nitrous oxide
B. Methoxyflurane
C. Isoflurane
D. Halothane
Answer: B
166. Etomidate is not used for long term infusion because?
A. Results in adrenal suppression
B. May cause vasospasm
C. Results in cardiac arrhythmias
D. May cause increase in ICT
Answer: A
167. Arm tongue time is ?
A. 13 secs
B. 15 secs
C. 20 secs
D. 40 secs
Answer: A
168. Respiratory failure in a post operative patient is ?
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4
Answer: C
169. Laryngeal mask airway [LMA] is contraindicated in?
A. Difficult airways
B. Ocular surgeries
C. Pregnant female
D. In CPR
Answer: C
170. All of the following are advantages of LMA except?
A. More reliable than face mask
B. Prevent aspiration
C. Alternative to Endotracheal intubation
D. Does not require laryngoscope & visualization
Answer: B
171. Only available depolarizing muscle relaxant is ?
A. Decamethonium
B. Suxamethonium
C. Mivacurium
D. None
Answer: B
172. Which anesthetic gas was used by WTG Morton in his experiment ?
A. Nitrous oxide
B. Ammonia
C. Diethyl ether
D. Trichloroethylene
Answer: C
173. Suxamethonium acts through which channels ?
A. Sodium channels
B. Potassium channels
C. Calcium channels
D. Chloride channels
Answer: A
174. Mouth to mouth respiration provides what percentage of oxygen ?
A. 10%
B. 16%
C. 21%
D. 100%
Answer: B
175. Which of the following anesthetic agent is a potent bronchodilator
A. Propofol
B. Ketamine
C. Thiopentone
D. Methoxytone
Answer: B
176. Landmark for pudendal nerve block is ?
A. Ischial tuberosity
B. Iliac spine
C. Sacroiliac joint
D. None of the above
Answer: A
177. Post dural puncture headache usually presents with in ?
A. 0-6 Hrs
B. 6-12 Hrs
C. 12-72 Hrs
D. 72-96 Hrs
Answer: C
178. Cauda equina syndrome is associated with ?
A. Lidocaine
B. Halothane
C. N20
D. Ether
Answer: A
179. Not included in neuraxial block ?
A. Spinal block
B. Epidural block
C. Bier’s block
D. Caudal block
Answer: C
180. Contraindication to neruaxial block is ?
A. Hypertension
B. Renal disease
C. Clotting disorders
D. Diabetes
Answer: C
181. Most common cause of maternal mortality in spinal anesthesia is ?
A. Allergy to local anesthesia
B. Nerve injury
C. High block
D. Hypotension
Answer: C
182. Cocaine was first used as local anaesthetic by ?
A. Carl kollar
B. Holmer wells
C. Morton
D. None
Answer: A
183. Levels of ether anesthesia were demonstrated by whom?
A. Morton
B. Guedel
C. Thompson
D. None
Answer: B
184. Infant circuit for anaesthesia ?
A. Bains circuit
B. Magill circuit
C. Ayres t piece
D. Water’s circuit
Answer: C
185. Ayre’s T-piece is which type of circuit
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type E
D. Type D
Answer: C
186. Most reliable indicator to prevent oesophageal intubation ?
A. Oxygen saturation on pulse oximeter
B. Measurement of CO2 in exhaled air (Etco2)
C. Direct visualization of passing tube beneath vocal cords
D. Auscultation over chest
Answer: B
187. All are features of difficult airway except ?
A. Miller’s sign
B. Micrognathia with macroglossia
C. TMJ ankylosis
D. Increased thyromental distance
Answer: D
188. Ratio of 02: N20 in Entonox is ?
A. 50 : 50
B. 60 : 40
C. 40 : 60
D. 25 : 75
Answer: A
189. Which is the critical temperature of N20 ?
A. -118°C
B. -88°C
C. -26°C
D. -36.5°C
Answer: D
190. Which anaesthetic agent is neither metabolised by liver nor by kidney ?
A. Atracurium
B. Vecuronium
C. Pancuronium
D. Rocuronium
Answer: A
191. Fast induction and recovery is seen in?
A. Methoxyflurane
B. Ether
C. Halothane
D. N2O
Answer: D
192. MAC of desflurane is ?
A. 1.15
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: D
193. Which can replace N20 as 02 carrier?
A. Argon
B. Xenon
C. Helium
D. None
Answer: C
194. Benefit of ketamine ?
A. Causes decrease in BP
B. Good analgesic action
C. Decrease ICT
D. Decrease IOT
Answer: B
195. Which of the following is a sympathomimetic ?
A. Propofol
B. Etomidate
C. Ketamine
D. N2O
Answer: C
196. Which cant be given by Epidural anaesthesia ?
A. Morphine
B. Remifentanil
C. Alfentanil
D. Fentanyl
Answer: B
197. Addition of epinephrine to lignocaine?
A. Increaseses distribution of LA
B. Decreases absorption of LA
C. Decreases duration of LA
D. Increases metabolism of LA
Answer: B
198. Maximum concentration for epidural block ?
A. Bupivacaine
B. Lidocaine
C. Ropivacaine
D. Chlorprocaine
Answer: D
199. Vasoconstricator L.A. is ?
A. Cocaine
B. Procaine
C. Lidocaine
D. Chlorprocaine
Answer: A
200. All are contraindications of spinal anaesthesia Except?
A. Bleeding disorder
B. Raised intracranial tension
C. Hypertension
D. Infection at injection site
Answer: C
201. For prevention of headache during spinal anaesthesia?
A. Diluted solution of local anaesthetic should be used
B. Preloading with crystalloids
C. Finer I.P. needle should be used
D. Head end should be elevated
Answer: C
202. In newborn, chest compression should be started if heart rate is ?
A. < 120/min
B. < 100/min
C. < 80/min
D. < 60/min
Answer: D
203. Murphy’s eye is seen in A. Macintosh laryngoscope
B. Endotracheal tube
C. LMA
D. Flexible laryngoscope
Answer: B
204. Modified MallamPati grading is used in assessment of
A. Difficult intubation
B. Airway obstruction
C. Death due to aspiration
D. Intubation
Answer: A
205. Which nerve is tested for adequacy of anaesthesia
A. Median Nerve
B. Ulnar Nerve
C. Radial nerve
D. Mandibular nerve
Answer: A
206. Most effective circuit in spontaneous anaesthesia is
A. Mapleson A
B. Mapleson B
C. Mapleson C
D. Mapleson D
Answer: A
207. What is mechanism of action of Curanium drugs as muscle relaxant?
A. Persistently depolarizing at Neuromuscular junction
B. Act competitively on Ach receptors blocking post-synaptically
C. Repetitive stimulation of Ach receptors on muscle end plate
D. Inhibiting the calcium channel on presynaptic membrane
Answer: B
208. During squint surgery, anesthesiologist sees the machine and see the bp
suddenly drops to 40. What will be best immediate management
A. Give atropine
B. Increase level of anesthesia
C. Ask the surgeon to stop the surgery
D. Give adrenaline
Answer: D
209. Oxygen therapy may not be useful in
A. Asthma
B. Pneumonia
C. Subglottic stenosis
D. Pulmonary fibrosis
Answer: D
210. Mouth to mouth respiration provides what percentage of oxygen ?
A. 10%
B. 16%
C. 21%
D. 100%
Answer: B