Q- Mostly, the flesh of fruit is made of
(a) Collenchyma
(b) Parenchyma
(c) Meristem
(d) Schlerids
Answer: (b)
Q- Prosenchyma is a type of
(a) Chlorenchyma
(b) Collenchyma
(c) Sclerenchyma
(d) Parenchyma
Answer: (d)
3. The tissue where cells are thin-walled, living, isodiametric along with intercellular spaces is
(a) Arenchyma
(b) Prosenchyma
(c) Collenchyma
(d) Parenchyma
Answer: (d)
Q- The plant tissue with the following characteristics is –
– Oval/round-shaped cells
– Cells have a living protoplasm and are dense
– Cell wall is made of cellulose or hemicellulose
– Thin-walled cells
(a) Parenchyma
(b) Collenchyma
(c) Scherenchyma
(d) Epidermis
Answer: (a)
Q- The main purpose that the aerenchyma serves in Parenchyma is
(a) Offers flexibility
(b) Renders Buoyancy
(c) Provides structural framework
(d) Provides mechanical support
Answer: (b)
Q- Which of this is not a function that Parenchyma performs
(a) Stores nutrients and food
(b) Aids in regeneration, healing and repairs wounds
(c) Provides foundation and support
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
Q- The tissue that provides maximum mechanical strength to the plant is
(a) Xylem
(b) Phloem
(c) Parenchyma
(d) Collenchyma
Answer: (a)
Q- Parenchyma cells in the spongy mesophyll exhibit large intercellular spaces promoting:
(a) To become nutrients for the future germinating embryo
(b) Greater exposure to carbon dioxide
(c) To distribute pressure evenly through the structure
(d) No specific reason
Answer: (b)
Q- Vessels are found in
(a) Most of the angiosperms and few gymnosperms
(b) All angiosperms and some gymnosperms
(c) All angiosperms, all gymnosperms and some pteridophytes
(d) All pteridophytes
Answer: (a)
Q- The main difference between parenchyma, collenchyma and sclerenchyma is that
(a) Parenchyma is involved in photosynthesis, secretion and storage
(b) Collenchyma is involved in support and transportation of nutrients
(c) Sclerenchyma is involved in support, protection, transportation of nutrients and water
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
Q- This statement is true about Thalassemia
(a) There is a type of thalassemia depending on the number of mutations in genes
(b) It is caused by mutations in the DNA of cells which make up the haemoglobin
(c) Mild thalassemia may not need treatment
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
Q- This is not a symptom of Thalassemia disease
(a) Abdominal cramps
(b) Weakness and slow growth
(c) Dark urine
(d) Facial bone deformities
Answer: (a)
Q- This type of thalassemia disease is Cooley anaemia
(a) Alloimmunization
(b) Beta-thalassemia
(c) Alpha-thalassemia
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
Q- Name the blood test which can detect if a person is a carrier of thalassemia
(a) Prenatal testing
(b) A complete blood count (CBC)
(c) A Reticulocyte Count
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
Q- Treatment that can be given to thalassemia patients
(a) Stem cell or bone marrow transplant
(b) Blood transfusions
(c) Iron chelation
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
Q- Possible complications of thalassemia
(a) Infection
(b) Iron overload
(c) Only B
(d) Both A and B
Answer: (d)
Q- The complications that can occur in severe thalassemia is
(a) Enlarged spleen
(b) Bone deformities
(c) Problems with the heart
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
Q- Factors leading to an increase in the risk of thalassemia disease
(a) Certain ancestry
(b) Family history of thalassemia
(c) Only B
(d) Both A and B
Answer: (d)
Q- This about alpha-thalassemia is correct
(a) Number of gene mutations decide the severity of the condition
(b) Haemoglobin fails to produce enough alpha protein in alpha-thalassemia
(c) Alpha-thalassemia is common in South-east Asia, southern Asia, India etc
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
Q- This about beta-thalassemia is true
(a) two genes are necessary to make beta-globin chains
(b) Mutation of genes decide the severity of the condition
(c) Beta thalassemia is a common condition in West Asia, North Africa and the Mediterranean islands
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
Q- Amniocentesis, chorionic villi and alpha-fetoprotein sampling are performed to determine_____.
(a) The most likely date of birth of the foetus
(b) Whether the baby will be normal or abnormal
(c) Whether the mother has a genetic abnormality
(d) A and B
Answer: (b)
Q- Which of the following tests cannot be examined by Amniocentesis procedure?
(a) Chromosome analysis
(b) Detecting genetic defects
(c) Maturity of fetal lungs
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
Q- The fluid sample required for performing the Amniocentesis test is ________.
(a) The amnion
(b) The placenta
(c) The liquid surrounding the immediate fetus
(d) All of the above
Answer: (c)
Q- How many days are required for the Amniocentesis tests results?
(a) 1 day
(b) 1-2 days
(c) 1-2 weeks
(d) 3-4 weeks
Answer: (d)
Q- The amniocentesis procedure is not done before the _________ week after conception.
(a) 4th-5th
(b) 6th-8th
(c) 10th-12th
(d) 15th-16th
Answer: (d)
Q- Which of these procedures has the least risk for an unborn child?
(a) Amniocentesis
(b) Alpha-fetoprotein sampling
(c) Chorionic villi sampling
(d) All have the same risk level
Answer: (b)
Q- Amniocentesis is a prenatal diagnostic test, which can also determine whether an unborn child will have __________ or not.
(a) Obesity
(b) Diabetes
(c) Down’s syndrome
(d) All of the above
Answer: (c)
Q- Which of the following sentence is true for the chorion?
(a) The organ in the uterus connected to the fetus by the umbilical cord
(b) The sac or pouch-like organ within uterus containing the amniotic fluid surrounding the fetus
(c) A membrane developing around an embryo, contributing to the formation of the placenta
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)
Q- Which of the following procedure is involved in injecting a small flexible plastic tube into the uterus through the vagina?
(a) Amniocentesis
(b) Alpha-fetoprotein screening
(c) Chorionic villi sampling
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)
Q- Which of the following medical conditions are responsible for producing incorrect Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) screening results and indicating a fetus has genetic defects?
(a) The mother is anaemic
(b) The mother has Rh-negative blood
(c) The date of conception has been miscalculated
(d) All the above
Answer: (b)
Q-Compared to genus, which of the following is less general in characters?
(a) Family
(b) Species
(c) Division
(d) Class
Answer: (b)
Q- For wheat, which of the following combinations is correct?
(a) Genus Triticum, family Poaceae, order Poales, Class Monocotyledonae
(b) Genus Triticum, family Poaceae, order Poales, Class Dicotyledonae
(c) Genus Triticum, family Poaceae, order Sapindales, Class Monocotyledonae
(d) Genus Triticum, family Anacardiaceae, order Poales, Class Monocotyledonae
Answer: (a)
Q- Regulation of cells’ activity takes place through
(a) Flow of substances
(b) Flow of energy
(c) Flow of hormones
(d) Flow of smoke
Answer: (b)
Q- Assertion(a): “Biological species” concept helps to ask how species are formed
Reason(r): Concept of biological species is centred around the question of how reproductive isolation comes about
(a) Both (a) and (r) are correct, but (r) is not the explanation for (a)
(b) Both (a) and (r) are correct, (r) is the correct explanation for (a)
(c) (a) and (r) both are incorrect
(d) (a) is true, (r) is incorrect
Answer: (d)
Q- The correct sequence of taxonomic categories is:
(a) Species -> genus -> order -> phylum
(b) Species -> order -> genus-> kingdom
(c) Genus -> species -> order -> kingdom
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
Q- Taxonomic hierarchy refer to
(a) Classification of species based on the fossil record
(b) A list of botanists or zoologists who have worked on the taxonomy of a species or group
(c) a group of senior taxonomists who decide the nomenclature of animals and plants
(d) Stepwise arrangement of all categories for classification of animals and plants
Answer: (d)
Q- Which one of these categories has real existence?
(a) Species
(b) Genus
(c) Kingdom
(d) Phylum
Answer: (a)
Q- A true species comprises of a population
(a) Interbreeding
(b) Sharing the same niche
(c) Reproductively isolated
(d) Feeding over the same food
Answer: (c)
Q- Nicotiana sylvestris flowers only during long days while N.tabacum flowers only during short days. Under different photoperiods, they can be induced to flower at the same time and can be cross-fertilized to produce self-fertile offsprings. What is the best reason for considering Nicotiana sylvestris and N.tabacum as separate species?
(a) They are reproductively distinct
(b) They fail to interbreed in nature
(c) They are physiologically different
(d) They are distinct morphologically
Answer: (b)
Q- One of the first acts in taxonomy is
(a) Identification
(b) Description
(c) Naming
(d) Classification
Answer: (a)
Q- The level of taxonomic study related to biological aspects of taxa, inclusive of intraspecific populations, speciation, evolutionary trends and rates is
(a) theta taxonomy
(b) alpha taxonomy
(c) beta taxonomy
(d) gamma taxonomy
Answer: (d)
Q- The process wherein the labellum in Orchidaceae surfaces at the anterior side via the twisting of the ovary through 180 degree
(a) Articulation
(b) Adnation
(c) Attenuation
(d) Resupination
Answer: (d)
Q- The organization of taxonomic information in logical classification is known as
(a) Phenetic
(b) Systematics
(c) Dendogram
(d) Phylogenetic
Answer: (b)
Q- One of these is not a plant fossil
(a) Rhynia
(b) Lepidocarpon
(c) Lepidodendron
(d) Archaeopteryx
Answer: (d)
Q- The primary advantage of Bentham and Hookers classification is
(a) It is a system whose basis is on evolutionary concepts
(b) It is a natural system of classification of all plant groups
(c) Deemed to be the phylogenetic aspect as well
(d) The taxa description is based on the actual examination of the specimens
Answer: (d)
Q- Α taxonomy pertains to
(a) Chemotaxonomy
(b) Phylogeny
(c) Classical taxonomy
(d) Experimental taxonomy
Answer: (c)
Q- To comprehend general plant relationships, this is one of the best methods
(a) Experimental Taxonomy
(b) Numerical Taxonomy
(c) Cytotaxonomy
(d) Chemotaxonomy
Answer: (d)
Q- The condition of Polyadelphous can be found in
(a) Rutaceae
(b) Leguminosae
(c) Compositae
(d) Liliaceae
Answer: (a)
Q- Linnaeus is credited with the following
(a) Law of Limiting factor
(b) Binomial nomenclature
(c) Concept of inheritance
(d) Theory of heredity
Answer: (b)
Q- The reason why the system of plant classification proposed by Carolus Linnaeus was artificial is
(a) Because it considered the physiological facts along with the morphological traits
(b) Because it was based on the similarities and differences in floral and other morphological characters only
(c) Because it was on the basis of evolutionary relationships of plants
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
Q- The main hormone secreted by the Thyroid gland
(a) T4
(b) T3
(c) (a) and (b) Both
(d) TSH
Answer: (C)
Q- Iodine deficiency can cause
(a) Goitre
(b) Thyroid cancer
(c) Solitary thyroid nodules
(d) Thyroiditis
Answer: (a)
Q- Grave’s disease or Basedow’s disease is due to
(a) Hyperactivity of adrenal cortex
(b) Hypoactivity of the thyroid gland
(c) Hyperactivity of thyroid gland
(d) Hypoactivity of islets of Langerhans
Answer: (c)
Q- The four small glands in the thyroid gland are known as
(a) Adrenal gland
(b) Pineal gland
(c) Parathyroid gland
(d) Endocrine and exocrine gland
Answer: (c)
Q- Sometimes, the thyroid symptoms are mistaken for which condition?
(a) Menopause
(b) Posttraumatic stress
(c) Pregnancy
(d) Crohn’s disease
Answer: (a)
Q- Medications for hypothyroidism include treatment that:
(a) Replaces insulin
(b) Replaces ADH
(c) Replaces TH
(d) Replaces surfactant
Answer: (c)
Q- Which of these diseases is not related to thyroid glands?
(a) Cretinism
(b) Myxoedema
(c) Goitre
(d) Acromegaly
Answer: (d)
Q- In chronically deficient patients, this abnormality is directly related to the enlargement of the thyroid gland
(a) Impaired conversion of T3 and T4
(b) Reduced activity of thyroperoxidase
(c) Elevated levels of TSH
(d) An antibody that binds to the TSH receptor in the thyroid gland
Answer: (c)
Q- ____________ encloses thyroid, responsible for its movement during swallowing
(a) Prevertebral fascia
(b) Pretracheal fascia
(c) Investing layer of the deep cervical fascia
(d) Superficial fascia
Answer: (b)
Q- This condition of chronic inflammation of the thyroid leading to under-activity is
(a) Thyroiditis
(b) Goitre
(c) Hypothyroidism
(d) Hyperthyroidism
Answer: (a)
Q- Which of these is the most advanced phylogenetically among the dicotyledonous families?
(a) Scrophulariaceae
(b) Acanthaceae
(c) Umbelliferae
(d) Compositae
Answer: (d)
Q- The substitute for the newly collected specimen when the original type material is missing in a herbarium is entitled as
(a) Holotype
(b) Neotype
(c) Lectotype
(d) Isotype
Answer: (b)
Q- If all the puddles and ponds are destroyed, the entities likely to be destroyed are
(a) Plasmodium
(b) Ascaris
(c) Leishmania
(d) Trypanosoma
Answer: (a)
Q- In the five-kingdom system of classification, into which kingdom would you classify nitrogen-fixing organisms and archaea?
(a) Fungi
(b) Plantae
(c) Protista
(d) Monera
Answer: (d)
Q- This is considered as a demerit of the ‘Engler and Prantl’ in the system of classification
(a) Gymnosperms are placed between monocotyledons and dicotyledons
(b) Dicotyledons are placed after monocotyledons
(c) Dicotyledons are placed before monocotyledons
(d) Gymnosperms are placed among Dicotyledons
Answer: (b)
Q- Phenetic classification is based on
(a) Observable characteristics of existing entities
(b) The ancestral lineage of existing organisms
(c) Dendrograms based on DNA characteristics
(d) Sexual characteristics
Answer: (a)
Q- Difference between the natural system of plant classification and artificial system of classification is
(a) Considers only one vegetative character
(b) Considers all the similarities between plants
(c) Considers only one floral character
(d) All of the above
Answer: (b)
Q- This system of classification was used by Linnaeus
(a) Phylogenetic system
(b) Natural system
(c) Artificial system
(d) Asexual system
Answer: (c)
Q- Pick the right sequence of taxonomic categories
(a) division-class-family-tribe-order-genus-species
(b) division-class-family-order-tribe-genus-species
(c) division-class-order-family-tribe-genus-species
(d) division-order-class-family-genus-tribe-species
Answer: (c)
Q- ‘New Systematics’ term was coined by
(a) Linnaeus
(b) Bentham and Hooker
(c) A.P. de Candolle
(d) Juliane Huxley
Answer: (d)
Q- Coronary artery disease (CAD) can be determined by this test
(a) Cardiac catherization
(b) Electrocardiogram
(c) Treadmill stress test
(d) all of these
Answer: (d)
Q- The modifiable risk factor associated with coronary artery disease is
(a) Age
(b) Obesity
(c) Heredity
(d) Gender
Answer: (b)
Q- This is one of the symptoms of Coronary artery disease
(a) Sleep problems
(b) Headache
(c) Diarrhoea
(d) Pain or discomfort in the chest, lower jaw or arms
Answer: (d)
Q- If a stent is not used in a few cases who have coronary angioplasty done, the artery tends to narrow down or get blocked again in 6 months. This is more likely to happen if:
(a) one smokes
(b) one has unstable angina before the procedure
(c) one has diabetes
(d) all of these
Answer: (d)
Q- Coronary angioplasty, part of CAD’s treatment involves:
(a) A new part of artery replaces the blocked section
(b) to expand artery, medication is used
(c) inflation of a tiny balloon inside an artery
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
Q- Doctors place a stent inside the artery during angioplasty. A stent is a
(a) A new fragment of the artery
(b) A wire mesh tube
(c) A cotton tube
(d) A slow-release medicine capsule
Answer: (b)
Q- The __________ branches into Circumflex artery and left anterior descendary artery
(a) Left main coronary artery
(b) right marginal artery
(c) Posterior descendary artery
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
Q- One of these is not a symptom of acute coronary syndrome
(a) ST Segment elevation myocardial infarction
(b) Non ST segment elevation myocardial infarction
(c) unstable angina
(d) No episodes of dyspnea
Answer: (d)
Q- Ischemia is
(a) restriction of blood supply to tissues
(b) Overflow of blood to tissues
(c) Inadequate deoxygenated blood carrying veins
(d) the medical term for shortness of breath
Answer: (a)
Q- This is the role of the coronary artery
(a) to carry blood away from the heart muscles
(b) to supply blood to heart muscles
(c) to supply blood to all parts of the body
(d) none of these
Answer: (b)
Q- ECG (Electrocardiogram) was developed first by
(a) Wilhelm His
(b) Steward
(c) Hubert Mann
(d) Willem Einthoven
Answer: (d)
Q- This is the classic ECG change in MI (myocardial infarction)
(a) ST-segment elevation
(b) T-wave inversion
(c) Development of an abnormal Q wave
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
Q- In which of these conditions can widen QRS and Tall-tented T waves be observed?
(a) Hyponatremia
(b) Hyperkalemia
(c) Hyperglycemia
(d) Hyperphosphatemia
Answer: (b)
Q- Hypokalemia is the condition of low potassium levels in your blood. Hypokalemia ECG changes are observed by
(a) ST segment elevation
(b) U wave (a position deflection after the T wave)
(c) Tall peaked T waves
(d) Widening of the QRS complex and increased amplitude
Answer: (b)
Q- A normal ECG report must consist of the following information
(a) Rhythm, cardiac axis
(b) Conduction intervals
(c) Description of the ST segments, QRS complexes, T-waves
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
Q- For the normal heartbeat, depolarization stimulus originates in
(a) His-bundle areas
(b) Epicardium
(c) Sinoatrial (SA)node
(d) Atrioventricular (AV) node
Answer: (c)
Q- The characteristics – slurring of the initial QRS deflection, shortened PR interval, and prolonged QRS duration are of this condition
(a) Atrial tachycardia
(b) Left bundle branch block
(c) WPW (Wolff-Parkinson-White) syndrome
(d) Myocardial ischemia
Answer: (c)
Q- P wave indicates
(a) Depolarization of right ventricle
(b) Depolarization of left ventricle
(c) Depolarization of both atria
(d) Atria to ventricular conduction time
Answer: (c)
Q- Ventricular muscle depolarization is indicated by
(a) PR interval
(b) P wave
(c) U wave
(d) The QRS complex
Answer: (d)
Q-ECG identified by the PR interval tends to become longer with every succeeding ECG complex until there is a P wave not followed by a QRS is observed in
(a) Third-Degree Atrioventricular Block
(B) Second-Degree Atrioventricular Block, Type II
(C) Second-Degree Atrioventricular Block, Type I
(D) First-Degree Atrioventricular Block, Type II
Answer: (c)
Q- One of the ways scientists suggest to find a treatment for muscular dystrophy is
(a) replacing muscles
(b) create customized diets for them to be healthier and stronger
(c) attempt to correct defective genes so it creates the right proteins
(d) none of these
Answer: (c)
Q- Define muscular dystrophy
(a) Diseases which destruct the muscles of the body
(b) diseases which cause the muscles to get disproportionate
(c) born with too many or too little muscles
(d) diseases which do not allow muscles to grow
Answer: (a)
Q- Muscular dystrophy can affect
(a) Only humans
(b) Only animals
(c) Both animals and humans
(d) Only plants
Answer: (c)
Q- Another way that scientists propose as a treatment to cure muscular dystrophy is
(a) Removal of defective genes
(b) Replacing defective genes after removing with parents genes again
(c) Discovering chemicals which can substitute the missing chemical
(d) none of these
Answer: (c)
Q- _____________ is not a form of muscular dystrophy
(a) Lunar dystrophy
(b) Myotonic dystrophy
(c) Duchenne muscular dystrophy
(d) Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy
Answer: (a)
Q- The protein whose production gets affected in Duchenne muscular dystrophy is
(a) Actin
(b) Myotropin
(c) Dystrophin
(d) Leucovorin
Answer: (c)
Q- The gene responsible for causing Duchenne muscular dystrophy is found on
(a) Y chromosome
(b) X chromosome
(c) Autosomal chromosome number 5
(d) Autosomal chromosome number 8
Answer: (b)
Q- The enzyme, whose blood levels is increased in patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy is
(a) Carbonic anhydrase
(b) Dystrophin kinase
(c) Adenosine triphosphate
(d) Creatinine phosphokinase
Answer: (d)
Q- Duchenne muscular dystrophy can be cured with
(a) Allopurinol
(b) Creatinine phosphokinase inhibitors
(c) Corticosteroids
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
Q- The involvement of this muscle affects the breathing in Duchenne muscular dystrophy
(a) Triceps
(b) Biceps
(c) Diaphragm
(d) Quadriceps
Answer: (c)
Q- The evolutionary advantage of meiosis can be best explained by which of these statements?
(a) Meiosis alternates with mitosis from one to the next generation
(b) Meiosis is essential for sexual reproduction
(c) Passing of the same genetic system from one to next generation
(d) Genetic recombination is possible from one to next generation
Answer: (d)
Q- One of these events does not take place during meiosis
(a) One successive division without any DNA replication
(b) Chiasmata formation and crossing over
(c) Segregation of homologous chromosomes
(d) Separation of sister chromatids
Answer: (a)
Q- The meiotic division takes place in
(a) Meristematic cells
(b) Conductive cells
(c) Reproductive cells
(d) Vegetative cells
Answer: (c)
Q- Name the event wherein the paternal and maternal chromosomes change their material with each other in cell division
(a) Crossing over
(b) Synapsis
(c) Dyad forming
(d) Bivalent forming
Answer: (a)
Q- The reason for daughter cells to differ from parent cells and also each other in meiosis is;
(a) Segregation and crossing over
(b) Segregation and independent assortment
(c) Segregation, crossing over and independent assortment
(d) Independent assortment and crossing over
Answer: (c)
Q- Continuous variations are due to
(a) Mutation
(b) Crossing over
(c) Polyploidy
(d) Chromosomal aberrations
Answer: (b)
Q- Synapsis takes place between
(a) Spindle fibre and centromere
(b) mRNA and ribosomes
(c) a female and a male gamete
(d) Two homologous chromosomes
Answer: (d)
Q- Mendelian factor (Aa) is segregated during
(a) Anaphase I
(b) Anaphase II
(c) Diplotene
(d) Zygotene/Pachytene
Answer: (a)
Q- The stage of prophase I wherein crossing over occurs is
(a) Zygotene
(b) Diplotene
(c) Leptotene
(d) Pachytene
Answer: (d)
Q- Meiosis I is reductional division and meiosis II is equational division because of
(a) Separation of chromatids
(b) Crossing over
(c) The disjunction of homologous chromosomes
(d) The pairing of homologous chromosomes
Answer: (a)
Q- Which of this bacteria is resistant to penicillin as it lacks a cell wall?
(a) Spirochetes
(b) Cyanobacteria
(c) Mycoplasmas
(d) Bdellovibrios
Answer: (c)
Q- What is a cluster of polar flagella called?
(a) Petritrichous
(b) Monotrichous
(c) Amphitrichous
(d) Lophotrichous
Answer: (d)
Q- Which of these is a cocci occurring in single or pairs?
(a) Diplococci
(b) Streptococci
(c) Tetracocci
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)
Q- Flagella in bacteria enable them to
(a) reproduce
(b) locomote
(c) Thrive in nutrient agar
(d) Adhere to tissue surfaces
Answer: (b)
Q- This about cell wall of gram-positive bacteria is true
(a) cell wall comprises of many layers
(b) the cell wall is thicker than the associated gram-negative bacteria
(c) Cell wall comprises of teichoic acids
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
Q- What is Chemotaxis?
(a) Swimming towards a bacteria
(b) Swimming away of a bacteria
(c) In the presence of a chemical compound, swimming towards or away of a bacteria
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
Q- Which of these is exposed on the outer surface of a gram-negative bacterium?
(a) Braun lipoprotein
(b) O-antigen of lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
(c) Polysaccharide portion of lipoteichoic acid (LTA)
(d) Electron transport system components
Answer: (b)
Q- The covalent bond which links the cell walls of gram-positive bacteria containing two modified sugars – N – acetylmuramic acid (NAM) and N-acetyl glucosamine (NAG) is
(a) glycosidic bond
(b) 1,4-glycosidic bond
(c) 1,6-glycosidic bond
(d) glycosidic bond
Answer: (b)
Q- Which one of these has a Chinese letter arrangement?
(a) Clostridium tetani
(b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(c) Bacillus anthracis
(d) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Answer: (d)
Q- This is analogous to mesosomes of bacteria
(a) Golgi apparatus of eukaryotes
(b) Lysosomes of eukaryotes
(c) Mitochondria of eukaryotes
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)
Q- Monascus purpureus is utilized in the production of
(a) citric acid
(b) ethanol
(c) statins
(d) streptokinase
Answer: (c)
Q- The type of fermentation observed in yeasts is
(a) acrylic fermentation
(b) lactic acid fermentation
(c) pyruvic fermentation
(d) alcoholic fermentation
Answer: (d)
Q- In lactic acid fermentation, the final electron acceptor is:
(a) Lactic acid
(b) Pyruvate
(c) Oxygen
(d) NAD
Answer: (b)
Q- Which of these is not a product of fermentation?
(a) Lactate
(b) Oxygen
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Ethanol
Answer: (b)
Q- Which of the following is not a vegetable or fruit-based fermented product?
(a) Wine
(b) Sauerkraut
(c) Beer
(d) Vinegar
Answer: (d)
Q- One of the most commonly used fermented cereal amongst these is
(a) Wheat
(b) Bread
(c) Rice
(d) Yoghurt
Answer: (b)
Q- Glucose molecule during the process of glycolysis is broken down into
(a) Four pyruvic acid
(b) Three pyruvic acid
(c) Two pyruvic acid
(d) One pyruvic acid
Answer: (c)
Q- Fermentation occurs in the
(a) presence of oxygen
(b) absence of oxygen
(c) presence of nitrogen
(d) presence of carbon
Answer: (b)
Q- The least yield of ATP is observed in
(a) aerobic respiration
(b) anaerobic respiration
(c) fermentation
(d) same in (a), (b), and (c)
Answer: (c)
Q- Anaerobic respiration by yeast produces
(a) CO2
(b) Wine and Beer
(c) Alcohol
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
Q- Which of these is the fibre obtained from the coconut’s husk
(a) Perlite
(b) Vermiculture
(c) Coir
(d) Rockwool
Answer: (c)
Q- The form of hydroponics that does not require a growing medium at all is
(a) Aquaculture
(b) Static solution culture
(c) Medium culture
(d) Aeroponics
Answer: (d)
Q- Plants with larger roots can be cultivated with which of the following types of hydroponics
(a) Ebb and flow system
(b) Drip system
(c) Nutrient Film technique
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
Q- Hydroponics is a method of cultivation of plants without the use of
(a) water
(b) air
(c) soil
(d) sunlight
Answer: (c)
Q- Which of the following is not true about hydroponics?
(a) Requires high investment
(b) Technical knowledge required
(c) Can be misused to cultivate banned crops
(d) Plants through hydroponics cannot be cultivated everywhere
Answer: (d)
Q- Salts and water in hydroponic plants are absorbed by
(a) Leaves
(b) Stem
(c) Roots
(d) Outer Layer of plants
Answer: (d)
Q- The scientist who used nutrient culture solution in hydroponic cultures was
(a) Knop
(b) Sachs
(c) Wallace
(d) Webster
Answer: (a)
Q-Deficiency of mineral nutrition does not cause which of these
(a) Chlorosis
(b) Etiolation
(c) Necrosis
(d) Shortening internode
Answer: (b)
Q- Roots of a plant in hydroponics are submerged in a solution of dissolved _________
(a) fertilizers
(b) oxygen
(c) mineral salts
(d) chemicals
Answer: (a)
Q- Which of these plants may not be suitable for cultivation through hydroponics
(a) Tomatoes
(b) Carrot
(c) Cucumber
(d) Strawberries
Answer: (b)
