1. Treatment of dacryocystitis in three months old child ?
A. Daily probing
B. Weekly probing
C. Massaging
D. Syringing
Answer: C
2. Methanol attacks ?
A. Cones
B. Rods
C. Ganglion cells of retina
D. Germinal cell layer
Answer: C
3. Retinal tears seen most commonly seen in ?
A. Primary retinal detachment
B. Secondary retinal detachment
C. Tractional retinal detachment
D. Exudative retinal detachment
Answer: A
4. Following are the clinical features of Leber optic neuropathy except
A. Seen in the 2nd or 3rd decade of life
B. It is a example of gradual painless visual loss
C. Males can transmit the disease
D. No leak of dye is observed in fluorescein angiography
Answer: C
5. Following is feature of Fusch’s hetero chromic iridocyclitis ?
A. Heterochromia of iris
B. Keratic precipitates
C. Posterior subcapsular cataract
D. All the above
Answer: D
6. BSGT stands for ?
A. Bagolini striated glasses test
B. Bagolini smooth glasses test
C. Bagolini shiny glasses test
D. Bagolini second glue test
Answer: A
7. Melanocytes in conjunctiva are derived from ?
A. Neural ectoderm
B. Surface ectoderm
C. Mesoderm
D. Neural crest
Answer: D
8. Bitemporal hemianopia is characteristic of ?
A. Glaucoma
B. Optic neuritis
C. Pituitary tumor
D. Retinal detachment
Answer: C
9. For congenital obstruction of nasolacrimal duct, probing is done at what age ?
A. 2 months
B. 6 months
C. 10 months
D. 14 months
Answer: B
10. Right esotropia is evident with ?
A. Left lateral rectus paralysis
B. Right lateral rectus paralysis
C. Left medial rectus paralysis
D. Right medial rectus paralysis
Answer: A
11. Diabetic ischemic maculopathy is characterized by all except ?
A. It occurs due to microvascular blockage
B. Mild visual loss
C. Areas of non perfusion are evident on fluorescein angiography
D. Microaneurysms and hemorrhages are seen
Answer: B
12. Treatment for mild ptosis is ?
A. Fasanella servat operation
B. Levator resection
C. Frontalis sling operation
D. Everbusch’s operation
Answer: A
13. Cataract is cases of diabetes mellitus is due to accumulation of ?
A. Glycated crytallins
B. Calcified crystallins
C. Glycated fibrillins
D. Calcified fibrillins
Answer: A
14. Density of cells in adult corneal endothelium ?
A. 2000 cells/mm2
B. 3000 cells/mm2
C. 4000 cells/mm2
D. 5000 cells/mm2
Answer: B
15. Axial proptosis is produced by tumors lying in ?
A. Retrobulbar space
B. Subperiosteal space
C. Tenon space
D. Peripheral space
Answer: A
16. In xerophthalmia classification X 2 stage is ?
A. Bitots spots
B. Corneal xerosis
C. Corneal ulceration
D. Corneal scar
Answer: B
17. All of the following has HLAB27 associated with uveitis except ?
A. Ankylosing spondylitis
B. Reiters syndrome
C. Behcets syndrome
D. None of the above
Answer: C
18. Marcus gunn jaw winking phenomenon due to relation between which cranial nerves
A. VII + VIII
B. III + V
C. V + VII
D. III + VI
Answer: B
19. Increased intraocular tension can be diagnosed by ?
A. Tonometer
B. Pachymeter
C. Placido’s disc
D. Keratometer
Answer: A
20. Wernicke’s hemianopic pupillary reponse is seen in lesions at ?
A. Optic tract
B. Optic chiasma
C. Optic radiation
D. Lateral geniculate body
Answer: A
21. `Ischemic necrosis’ in alkali burn is ?
A. Stage I
B. Stage II
C. Stage III
D. Stage IV
Answer: A
22. Ganglionic cells are, neurons ?
A. First order
B. Second order
C. Third order
D. None
Answer: B
23. No movement of Red reflex in retinoscopy
A. No refractive error
B. Myopia of 3D
C. Myopia of ID
D. Hypermetropia
Answer: C
24. Maximum refractive index ?
A. Cornea
B. Air
C. Lens
D. Vitreous
Answer: C
25. Primary action of inferior oblique ?
A. Abduction
B. Adduction
C. Extorsion
D. Elevation
Answer: C
26. What is the most common problem following surgical treatment of pterygium?
A. Recurrence
B. Corneal ulceration
C. Astigmatism
D. Scleral scarring
Answer: A
27. Refsum’s syndrome is associated with ?
A. Retinitis pigmentosa
B. Xerophthalmia
C. Chalcosis
D. Diabetes retinopathy
Answer: A
28. Following is a feature of concomitant squint ?
A. Constant amount of deviation in all directions of gaze
B. Associated limitation of ocular movements
C. Different amount of deviation in different directions of gaze
D. Develops in the patients at 15 – 20 years of age.
Answer: A
29. Diplopia is usually seen in ?
A. Paralytic squint
B. Non-paralytic squint
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Answer: A
30. Following is true about behcet’s disease except ?
A. It shows presence of aphthous ulceration, genital ulceration and uveitis
B. Uveitis is bilateral, acute recurrent iridocyclitis with hypopyon
C. It has good visual prognosis
D. Chlorambucil can be used to control the disease
Answer: C
31. Imbert-Fick law is associate with ?
A. Schiotz tonometry
B. Applanation tonometry
C. Pachymetry
D. Keratometry
Answer: B
32. Recurrent non-granulomatous uveitis is seen in?
A. Vogt koyanagi-Harada syndrome
B. Posner-Schlossman syndrome
C. Tuberculosis
D. Sarcoidosis
Answer: B
33. Bett’s classification deals with ?
A. Ocular trauma
B. Ocular foreign body
C. Squint
D. Maculopathy
Answer: A
34. How many incisions are used in the divided system approach of pars planavitrectomy?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C
35. Munson’s sign is a feature of ?
A. Keratoconus
B. Corneal ulcer
C. Pterygium
D. Posterior staphyloma
Answer: A
36. Newborn eye is ?
A. Myopic
B. Hypermetropic
C. Presbyopic
D. None of the above
Answer: B
37. Homonymous hemianopia type of visual field defect is seen in all except ?
A. Lateral geniculate body
B. Total optic radiation
C. Optic tract
D. Optic chaisma
Answer: D
38. Following is true about oculocardiac reflex except ?
A. It is also called aschner phenomenon
B. It is mediated by occulomotor and vagus nerve
C. It is characterized by bradycardia following traction on extraocular muscles
D. Reflex is more sensitive in neonates
Answer: B
39. Corneal endothelial cell count is measured by ?
A. Specular microscope
B. Ophthalmoscope
C. Synoptophore
D. Amsler’s grid
Answer: A
40. Drug kept as a last resort in the management of primary open angle glaucoma is ?
A. Latanoprost
B. Topical beta blocker
C. Brimonidine
D. Oral acetazolamide
Answer: D
41. Amsler’s grid is used to evaluate ?
A. Central 10 degress of vision
B. Central 20 degrees of vision
C. Peripheral vision
D. Lens opacity
Answer: A
42. Stye is suppurative inflammation of glands of ?
A. Zeis
B. Meibonian
C. Wolfring
D. All the above
Answer: A
43. Objective methods for checking the refractive error are all except
A. Ophthalmoscopy
B. Retinoscopy
C. Refractometry
D. Keratometry
Answer: A
44. Lens dislocation in marfans syndrome is
A. Superotemporal
B. Inferonasal
C. Forward
D. Backward
Answer: A
45. Safe size of corneal graft with less chances of failure is ?
A. 7.5 mm
B. 6.5 mm
C. 5.5 mm
D. 4.5 mm
Answer: A
46. Angular conjunctivitis is caused mainly by
A. Moraxella axenfeld
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Streptococcus pneumonae
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Answer: A
47. Anterior uveitis earliest lesion ?
A. Aqueous flare
B. Keratic precipitates
C. Circumcorneal congestion
D. Blurring of vision
Answer: A
48. Main MOA brimonidine in glaucoma ?
A. Decreased aqueous secretion
B. Increased trabecular outflow
C. Increased uveoscleral outflow
D. Reduce vitreous volume
Answer: A
49. Meibomian glands secrete which component of sweat?
A. Water (aqueous)
B. Mucin
C. Protein
D. Lipid
Answer: D
50. Quantification of corneal sensation is done by ?
A. Pachymeter
B. Keratometer
C. Aesthesiometer
D. Tonometer
Answer: C
51. Subconjunctival hemorrhages are evident in the following cases except ?
A. Whooping cough
B. Scurvy
C. Purpura
D. Pellagra
Answer: D
52. Pleomorphic adenoma of the lacrimal gland moves the eyeball ?
A. Downwards and outwards
B. Downwards and inwards
C. Upwards and outwards
D. Upwards and inwards
Answer: A
53.Optic canal is a part of ?
A. Lesser wing of sphenoid
B. Greater wing of sphenoid
C. Ethmoid
D. Pterygoid
Answer: A
54. Floaters are seen in following except ?
A. Vitreous hemorrhage
B. Retinal detachment
C. Uveitis
D. Acute congestive glaucoma
Answer: D
55. Illuminated frenzel glasses are used in detecting?
A. Nystagmus
B. Heterophoria
C. Esotropia
D. Astigmatism
Answer: A
56. Following is a cause of secondary angle closure glaucoma ?
A. Pseudophakia
B. Corticosteroid induced
C. Angle recession glaucoma
D. Congenital glaucoma
Answer: A
57. Which gas is most commonly used with pneumatic retinopathy ?
A. SF6
B. C3F8
C. CO2
D. N3
Answer: A
58. Latanoprost used topically in glaucoma primarily acts by?
A. Decreasing aqueous humor formation
B. Increasing uveoscleral outflow
C. Releasing pupillary block
D. Increasing trabecular outflow
Answer: B
59. 2nd Purkinje image is ?
A. Erect and moves in same direction
B. Inverted and moves in same direction
C. Erect and moves in opposite direction
D. Inverted and moves in opposite direction
Answer: A
60. Axial length of eye ball is measured by ?
A. A mode Ultrasonography
B. B mode Ultrasonography
C. M mode Ultrasonography
D. Both a and b
Answer: A
61. Enophthalmos is seen in ?
A. Blow out fracture of orbit wall
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Radiation Injuries
D. Diabetes mellitus
Answer: A
62. Acute angle closure glaucoma first line treatment?
A. Iv mannitol
B. Acetazolamide
C. Pilocarpine
D. Beta blocker eyedrops
Answer: A
63. Occulomotor nerve supplies all extraocular muscles except ?
A. Superior rectus
B. Inferior rectus
C. Lateral rectus
D. Medial rectus
Answer: C
64. Which bacteria penetrates intact cornea ?
A. Corynebacterium
B. Pneumococcus
C. Morexella
D. E. coli
Answer: A
65. Which of the following is not a feature of fungal corneal ulcer?
A. Fixed hypopyon
B. Ulcer with sloughing margins
C. Symptoms are more pronounced than signs
D. Fungal hyphae are seen on KOH mount
Answer: C
66. Congenital dacrocystitis, the block is at?
A. Lacrimal calnaliculi
B. Nasolacrimal duct
C. Punctum
D. None
Answer: B
67. Dacrocytorhinostomy involves?
A. Opening up the terminal blocked end of nasolacrimal duct
B. Connecting the lacrimal sac to nose by breaking the medial wall
C. Complete excision of lacrimal
D. Insertion of drainage tube in the lacrimal sac
Answer: B
68. Copper deposition in cornea leads to?
A. Keratoconus
B. Keratoglobus
C. KF ring
D. Siderosis
Answer: C
69. Habbs striae are seen in ?
A. Buphthalmos
B. Keratoglobus
C. Trachoma
D. Keratoconus
Answer: A
70. Krukenberg spindles A. Involves anterior surface of cornea
B. Involves anterior lens surface
C. Involves posterior surface of cornea
D. Involves posterior surface of lens
Answer: C
71. Eye of a newborn is ?
A. Emmetropic
B. Hypermetropic
C. Myopic
D. Astigmatism
Answer: B
72. Causes of exudative retinal detachment are all except
A. Toxemia of pregnancy
B. Scleritis
C. High myopia
D. Central serous retinopathy
Answer: C
73.Commotio retinae affects which part of retina
A. Posterior pole
B. Peripheral retina
C. Inferior-nasal part
D. Superior-nasal part
Answer: A
74. Standard in perimetry ?
A. Goldman type I
B. Goldman type II
C. Goldman type III
D. Goldman type IV
Answer: C
75. Treatment of congenital ptosis with poor elevation is
A. Levator resection
B. Frontalis sling
C. FS operation
D. None of the
Answer: B
76. Dacryocystorhinostomy, where the duct is opened?
A. Superior meatus
B. Inferior meatus
C. Middle meatus
D. Sphenoethmoidal recess
Answer: C
77. Blow out fracture of orbit leads to fracture in
A. Floor
B. Posterior Medial wall
C. Lateral wall
D. Roof of the orbit
Answer: B
78. Most common symptom in buphthalmos ?
A. Lacrimation
B. Pain
C. Photophobia
D. Itching
Answer: A
79. Normal vision with absence of direct & consensual light reflex, which nerve is involved ?
A. Optic
B. Oculomotor
C. Trigeminal
D. Abducens
Answer: B
80. The most common cause of vitreous hemorrhage in adults is
A. Retinal hole
B. Trauma
C. Hypertension
D. Diabetes
Answer: D
81. Slit lamp examination helps in examination of?
A. Anterior 2/3rd of choroid
B. Anterior 1/3rd of choroid
C. Posterior 1/3rd of choroid
D. Posterior capsule
Answer: D
82. Retinal detachment occurs between
A. Layers of neurosensory retina
B. Neurosensory retina and pigment epithelium
C. Pigment epithelium and choroid
D. None of the above
Answer: B
83. Ocular bobbing?
A. Midbrain
B. Pons
C. Medulla
D. Cortex
Answer: B
84. Bilateral inferior lens subluxation is seen in?
A. Marfan syndrome
B. Homocysteinuria
C. Ocular trauma
D. None of the above
Answer: B
85. Retinitis pigmentosa is characterized by ?
A. Central scotoma
B. Centrocaecal scotoma
C. Tubular vision
D. Isopteric contraction
Answer: C
86. Scissor reflex is seen in ?
A. Open angle glaucoma
B. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
C. Keratoconus
D. Interstitial keratitis
Answer: C
87. Which are first order neuron in optic pathway?
A. Bipolar cells
B. Ganglionic cells
C. Cells of lateral geniculate body
D. Astrocytes
Answer: A
88. True about electroretinogram ?
A. a’ wave is positive wave
B. ‘a’ wave arises from pigmented epithelium
C. b’ wave arises from rods and cones
D. ‘c’ wave is positive wave
Answer: D
89. Specific for albinism
A. Red reflex
B. Decreased visual activity
C. Photophobia
D. Nystagmus
Answer: A
90. All are parts of anterior segment of eye except?
A. Lens
B. Cornea
C. Vitreous
D. None
Answer: C
91. Attachement of Vitreous is Srongest at
A. Foveal region
B. Back of lens
C. Across ora serrata
D. Margin of optic disc
Answer: C
92. Umbrella configration on fluorescein angiogrphyis seen in ?
A. Retinitis pigmentosa
B. Rheugmatous retinal detachment
C. Central serous retinopathy
D. Eale’s disease
Answer: C
93. Epithelial xerosis of conjunetiva is caused by ?
A. Trachoma
B. Diphtheria
C. Xerophthalmia
D. Pemphigus
Answer: C
94. Cicatrising trachoma is seen in ?
A. Stage-1
B. Stage-2
C. Stage-3
D. Stage-4
Answer: C
95. Non-sterile hypopyon is seen in ?
A. Pneumococcus infection
B. Pseudomonas infection
C. Fungal infection
D. Gonococcal infection
Answer: C
96. Normal level of visual acuity is attained at which age
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 3 years
D. 6 years
Answer: C
97. Duanne syndrome involves?
A. Superior oblique
B. Inferior oblique
C. Lateral rectus
D. Superior rectus
Answer: C
98. Birdshot retinopathy is characterized by all except?
A. Common in females
B. Unilateral
C. HLA-A29 positive
D. Creamy yellow spots
Answer: B
99. Treatment of choice for anisoeikonia ?
A. Orthoptic exercise
B. Spectacles
C. Surgery
D. Contact lens
Answer: D
100. Maximum correction of myopia can be done by ?
A. Radial keratotomy
B. LASIK
C. Photorefractive keratotomy
D. Orthokeratology
Answer: B
101. Marcus Gunn pupil is due to ?
A. Total afferent pupillary defect
B. Relative afferent pupillary defect
C. Efferent pathway defect
D. Cerebral lesion
Answer: B
102. Distance of medial rectus from limbus A. 4.5 mm
B. 5.5 mm
C. 7.0 mm
D. 10 mm
Answer: B
103. All nerve are involved in superior orbital fissure syndrome except ?
A. 1t
B. 3rd
C. 4’h
D. 6th
Answer: A
104. Posterior lenticonus is seen in ?
A. Alport’s syndrome
B. Lowe’s syndrome
C. Marfan syndrome
D. Homocystinuria
Answer: B
105. Thickest portion of sclera is ?
A. Anterior to rectus muscle insertion
B. Posterior to rectus muscle insertion
C. Posterior pole
D. Limbus
Answer: C
