[TOP 2500+] UPDATED NEET EXAM MCQ'S ON BIOLOGY

MCQ’S ON FILARIASIS

1. Filariform larvae are observed with

(a) Trichuris trichura

(b) Necator americanus

(d) Enterobius vermicularis

Answer: (c)

2. Except this, all others enter through the dermal route

(a) Ascaris

(b) Trichuris

(d) Strongyloides

Answer: (b)

3. The Filarial larva can be collected from the sample of

(a) biopsy of liver

(b) smears of intestinal contents

(d) peripheral blood at midnight

Answer: (d)

4. The sperm of nematodes are

(a) ciliated

(b) amoeboid

(d) haploid

Answer: (b)

5. The causative of Filariasis is

(a) Schistosome

(b) Trichinella

(d) Wuchereria

Answer: (d)

6. This accurately does not describe Lymphatic filariasis

(a) is caused by parasitic worms Brugia malayi and Wuchereria bancrofti

(b) one of the most common manifestations is Chyluria

(d) intermediate vector is the mollusc

Answer: (d)

7. Which of the following diseases is caused by a nematode?

(a) Poliomyelitis

(b) Filariasis

(d) Amoebiasis

Answer: (b)

8. Filariasis in India is transmitted by

(a) Musca domestica

(b) Anopheles culicifacies

(d) Aedes aegypti

Answer: (c)

9. Filariasis is a result of the infection of

(a) Fleas

(b) Bed bug

(d) Nematode worm

Answer: (d)

10. Ascaris lumbricoides, commonly is known as

(a) Filarial worm

(b) Hookworm

(d) Pinworm

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON PRIONS

1. Neurodegenerative diseases such as mad cow and Kuru diseases are caused by infectious particles known as

(a) coronavirus

(b) viroids

(d) prions

Answer: (d)

2. This is not a prion disease

(a) Scrapie

(b) Bovine spongiform encephalopathy

(d) Creutzfeldt Jakob disease

Answer: (c)

3. In human cells, this is the first virus to be cultured

(a) HIV

(b) Influenza virus

(d) Polio virus

Answer: (d)

4. What causes scrapie in sheep?

(a) Proteins

(b) Viroid

(d) Virion

Answer: (c)

5. ___________ is a protein having partial with no detachable nucleic acid

(a) Proteins

(b) Viroid

(d) Virion

Answer: (c)

6. _____________ are the naked RNA strands infecting plants

(a) prions

(b) RNA viruses

(d) retroviruses

Answer: (c)

7. What is the other name for Bovine spongiform encephalopathy?

(a) Kuru disease

(b) Mad cow disease

(d) Sheep’s disease

Answer: (b)

8. What is the latent viral DNA contained in the host DNA referred to as?

(a) invader

(b) prion

(d) viroid

Answer: (c)

9. In sheep, this disease characterizes pneumonia and demyelination

(a) Scrapie

(b) Measles

(d) Visna

Answer: (d)

10. Lack of coordination and muscle twitching in a disease takes place due to this prion

(a) Tetanus

(b) Cancer

(d) Marasmus

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON SERICULTURE

1. Pick the correct statement

(a) larval form of moth produces silk

(b) salivary glands of the moth produce silk

(d) both (a) and (c)

Answer: (d)

2. The silkworm larva ceases to eat and begins spinning silk all over its body

(a) from inside to outside

(b) from outside to inside

(d) all of the above

Answer: (b)

3. This species produces silk of the superior quality

(a) Attacus atlas

(b) Bombyx mori

(d) Antheraea assamensis

Answer: (b)

4. Silk is produced by

(a) cocoon

(b) adult moth

(d) larva and adult moth

Answer: (c)

5. This amongst the following produces silk

(a) butterflies

(b) Bombus mori

(d) Bombus indica

Answer: (b)

6. Insects not found in wild state is

(a) cochineal insect

(b) lac insect

(d) honey bee

Answer: (c)

7. Pick the set of beneficial insects to man

(a) sandfly, honey bee, butterfly

(b) honey bee, cockroach, silkworm

(d) honey bee, cochineal insect, lac insect

Answer: (d)

8. Honey, silk and lac are

(a) artificial elements

(b) secretory substance of plants

(d) all of these

Answer: (c)

9. What is the life span of an adult ‘Bombyx mori’ ?

(a) 2 days

(b) 3-4 days

(d) 8 days

Answer: (b)

10. Silk contains a protein known as

(a) casein

(b) fibroin

(d) both (b) and (c)

Answer: (d)
—————————————————————————————————————————————-
MCQ’S ON VERMICULTURE

1. For vermicomposting, this species of earthworm is not apt

(a) Perionyx excavatus

(b) Pheretima posthuma

(d) Eisenia fetidae

Answer: (b)

2. The process in which earthworms are used to degrade organic wastes is

(a) Compost bedding

(b) Humus forming

(d) None

Answer: (c)

3. Kitchen wastes and animal excreta can be minimized most profitably via

(a) vermiculture

(b) biogas production

(d) storing in underground storage tanks

Answer: (b)

4. The process of covering spawned compost with a suitable material is known as

(a) cropping

(b) casing

(d) composting

Answer: (b)

5. While burrowing, the anterior ends of earthworms become turgid serving as a hydraulic skeleton though they do not possess a skeleton. This is as a result of

(a) setae

(b) gut peristalsis

(d) none of the above

Answer: (c)

6. This is apt for vermicomposting

(a) Algae

(b) Nitrifying bacteria

(d) Fungus

Answer: (c)

7. Vermicompost is a/an

(a) toxic material

(b) organic biofertilizer

(d) synthetic fertilizer

Answer: (b)

8. This can be the best worm for composting

(a) pink worms

(b) red wigglers

(d) does not matter

Answer: (b)

9. In earthworms, typhlosome is a

(a) excretory structure

(b) a circulatory system structure

(d) defence mechanism

Answer: (c)

10. Which of the following nutrients is abundantly found in worm castings?

(a) Phosphorus

(b) Nitrogen

(d) All of these

Answer: (d)

MCQ’S ON FUNARIA AND RICCIA

1. Sensor mechanism of spore dispersal is seen in

(a) Fern

(b) Selaginella

(d) Funaria

Answer: (d)

2. This is also referred to as bog moss

(a) Funaria

(b) Marchantia

(d) Riccia

Answer: (c)

3. In Funaria, the peristomial teeth are

(a) Xeric

(b) Hydric

(d) Hygroscopic

Answer: (d)

4. The reason why Funaria is a bryophyte is

(a) it is vascular

(b) absence of stems and roots

(d) all of these

Answer: (c)

5. In Funaria, the sporophytic phase is well-developed, comprising

(a) Foot and capsule

(b) Only capsule

(d) Seta, foot and capsule

Answer: (d)

6. Rupturing of _________ causes the dehiscence of moss capsule

(a) Calyptra

(b) Annulus

(d) Operculum

Answer: (b)

7. From protonema, leafy gametophyte is formed in

(a) Funaria

(b) Riccia

(d) Anthoceros

Answer: (a)

8. The least number of cells in a male gametophyte is found in

(a) Pinus

(b) Lilium

(d) Pteris

Answer: (b)

9. In Funaria, the antherozoids are

(a) aciliated

(b) bicilated

(d) monociliated

Answer: (b)

10. Peat formation can be ascribed to

(a) Sphagnum

(b) Funaria

(d) Marchantia

Answer: (a)
———————————————————————————————————————————————————–
MCQ’S ON RESPIRATORY QUOTIENT

1. The respiratory quotient or R.Q. is greater than one in which case?

(a) Glucose

(b) Fat

(d) Organic acid

Answer: (d)

2. RQ (Respiratory Quotient) can be defined as

(a) Volume of carbon dioxide evolved ÷ Volume of oxygen consumed

(b) Volume of carbon dioxide evolved = Volume of oxygen consumed

(d) Volume of oxygen consumed ÷ Volume of carbon dioxide evolved

Answer: (a)

3. The Respiratory quotient (R.Q.) of C39 H72 O6 is

(a) 0.72

(b) 2.71

(d) 3.250

Answer: (a)

4. In anaerobic respiration, the Respiratory quotient is

(a) greater than one

(b) one

(d) infinity

Answer: (d)

5. What will the respiratory quotient of the mixture be when equal quantities of groundnut seeds and germinating maize is taken

(a) infinity

(b) greater than one

(d) one

Answer: (c)

6. The respiratory quotient of a plant structure is dependent on the substrate’s nature that is

(a) metabolized

(b) catabolized

(d) reduced

Answer: (c)

7. The respiratory quotient in succulent plants is always less than one. The reason is

(a) complete reduction

(b) complete oxidation

(d) incomplete oxidation

Answer: (d)

8. The Respiratory quotient in germinating seeds is

(a) zero

(b) less than one

(d) one

Answer: (b)

9. The energy yield due to the outcome of total oxidation of 1 molecule of glucose during the cellular respiration is enough to convert

(a) 38 molecules of ADP to 38 molecules of ATP

(b) 36 molecules of ADP to 36 molecules of ATP

(d) 32 molecules of ADP to 32 molecules of ATP

Answer: (b)

10. Carbohydrate’s respiratory quotient is

(a) equal to five

(b) less than unit

(d) unity

Answer: (d)
———————————————————————————————————————————————–
MCQ’S ON AVES

1. A common characteristic of kangaroo, parrot and platypus

(a) Oviparity

(b) Homeothermy

(d) Jaws without teeth

Answer: (b)

2. It is not a living fossil

(a) Sphenodon

(b) Peripatus

(d) King crab

Answer: (c)

3. Which of the following animals are uricotelic?

(a) Land reptiles, birds and insects

(b) Fish and protozoans

(d) Birds and mammals

Answer: (a)

4. The body part, which is absent in birds

(a) Forelimb

(b) Hindlimb

(d) Pelvic girdle

Answer: (a)

5. The long hollow bones and connected air sacs are the characteristic features of

(a) Reptilia

(b) Aves

(d) all the vertebrates

Answer: (b)

6. Which of the following bones form the wishbone of birds?

(a) Hindlimbs

(b) Clavicles

(d) Pelvic girdle

Answer: (b)

7. The soundbox of birds is also known as

(a) synsacrum

(b) pygostyle

(d) larynx

Answer: (c)

8. Ostrich, penguin and kiwi are

(a) Four-toed birds

(b) Migratory birds

(d) Flightless birds

Answer: (d)

9. Which of the following contains pneumatic bones?

(a) Whale

(b) Shark

(d) Rana

Answer: (c)

10. Birds and mammals do not share this property

(a) Respiration by lungs

(b) Ossified endoskeleton

(d) Viviparity

Answer: (d)

MCQ’S ON FAUNA

1. This is the most important human activity that causes the extinction of wildlife

(a) destruction and alteration of natural habitats

(b) introducing alien species

(d) wildlife pollution

Answer: (a)

2. In India, flamingos migrate in large numbers to nest in this region

(a) the Himalayas

(b) coastal areas

(d) Thar

Answer: (c)

3. The Pink Headed duck falls under the category of

(a) Rare species

(b) Endemic species

(d) Vulnerable species

Answer: (c)

4. This is an endangered species of the Manipur

(a) Asiatic Buffalo

(b) Blue Sheep

(d) Sangai (brow anter deer)

Answer: (d)

5. The Red Data Book gives data on

(a) endangered plants and animals

(b) red coloured fishes

(d) lists plants and animals

Answer: (a)

6. Preservation of viable material of endangered species can be done by

(a) Herbarium

(b) Gene pool

(d) Gene Bank

Answer: (d)

7. This is the animal symbol of World Wildlife Fund

(a) Giant Panda

(b) Kangaroo

(d) Tiger

Answer: (a)

8. The diversity of our flora and fauna is affected by the threat posed by

(a) increase in levels of pollution

(b) increasing insensitivity to our environment

(d) global warming

Answer: (b)

9. This crisis will be produced first and foremost if half of the forest coverage of the earth is uncovered

(a) the remaining half of the forest maintains the imbalance

(b) there will be an energy crisis

(d) few species will go extinct

Answer: (d)

10. India belongs to this category in the context of wildlife and natural vegetation

(a) a country lacking in biodiversity e cover

(b) the country with the largest forest cover

(d) one of the twelve Mega biodiversity countries of the world

Answer: (d)

MCQ’S ON SPECIATION

1. What stops a new chromosome variant appearing as a unique mutation from increasing in frequency?

(a) It is because polyploidy is a rare process

(b) it will interbreed with majority form causing heterozygotes to be inferior

(d) all of these

Answer: (b)

2. This is the key to speciation of populations

(a) reproductive health

(b) reproductive isolation

(d) extinction

Answer: (b)

3. This can cause a steeper cline

(a) Extensive migration

(b) Strong selection against heterozygotes

(d) All of these

Answer: (b)

4. The reproductive isolating factor occurring when a sperm and an egg are incompatible is

(a) temporal isolation

(b) ecological isolation

(d) behavioural isolation

Answer: (c)

5. Species, the biological concept is applicable only to the breeding populations

(a) that are adequately large to constitute a viable reproductive group

(b) that are adequately uniform to be recognized by observation

(d) in nature

Answer: (d)

6. Which of the following is included in the concept of genetic bottlenecks?

(a) a loss of genetic diversity in descendent populations

(b) sharing genetic material between two populations

(d) increased ability to resist new diseases

Answer: (a)

7. This type of speciation enables production of hybrids between two species

(a) allopatric speciation

(b) parapatric speciation

(d) sympatric

Answer: (b)

8. This is not a reproductive isolating mechanism

(a) ecological isolation

(b) individual isolation

(d) behavioural isolation

Answer: (b)

9. In this kind of speciation, evolution can be expected to be faster whilst the speciation between the speciating events

(a) Peripheral speciation

(b) Hybridization

(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer: (a)

10. A new species emerges from this geographic range of its ancestor as per this theory of speciation

(a) Sympatric speciation

(b) Parapatric speciation

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

MCQ’S ON CHEMIOSMOTIC HYPOTHESIS

1. Proton concentration is highest in which part of the chloroplast?

(a) Stroma

(b) Intermembrane space

(d) Antennae complex

Answer: (c)

2. Cyclic photophosphorylation is associated with the production of

(a) ATP

(b) NADPH

(d) All of the above

Answer: (a)

3. During cellular respiration, chemiosmosis occurs in

(a) Chloroplast

(b) Mitochondria

(d) Nucleoplasm

Answer: (b)

4. Which of the following is necessary for chemiosmosis?

(a) Proton gradient

(b) Membrane

(d) All of the above

Answer: (d)

5. Which of the following processes is responsible for generating a proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane?

(a) Proton carrier transport H+ from stroma to lumen

(b) Splitting of water on the inner side of the membrane

(d) All of the above

Answer: (d)

6. Proton concentration is highest in which part of the mitochondria?

(a) Matrix

(b) Inner membrane

(d) Intermembrane space

Answer: (d)

7. Which part of ATP synthase forms the transmembrane channel?

(a) CF0

(b) CF1

(d) None of the above

Answer: (a)

8. The ATP synthesised by ATP synthase present in the thylakoid membrane is released towards

(a) stroma

(b) lumen

(d) outer membrane

Answer: (a)

9. ATP synthesis by ATP synthase is driven by the movement of

(a) protons

(b) NADPH

(d) All of the above

Answer: (a)

10. Who proposed the chemiosmotic hypothesis of ATP synthesis?

(a) Francis Crick

(b) H G Khorana

(d) J D Watson

Answer: (c)
————————————————————————————————————————————————–
MCQ’S ON FAUNA

1. This is the most important human activity that causes the extinction of wildlife

(a) destruction and alteration of natural habitats

(b) introducing alien species

(d) wildlife pollution

Answer: (a)

2. In India, flamingos migrate in large numbers to nest in this region

(a) the Himalayas

(b) coastal areas

(d) Thar

Answer: (c)

3. The Pink Headed duck falls under the category of

(a) Rare species

(b) Endemic species

(d) Vulnerable species

Answer: (c)

4. This is an endangered species of the Manipur

(a) Asiatic Buffalo

(b) Blue Sheep

(d) Sangai (brow anter deer)

Answer: (d)

5. The Red Data Book gives data on

(a) endangered plants and animals

(b) red coloured fishes

(d) lists plants and animals

Answer: (a)

6. Preservation of viable material of endangered species can be done by

(a) Herbarium

(b) Gene pool

(d) Gene Bank

Answer: (d)

7. This is the animal symbol of World Wildlife Fund

(a) Giant Panda

(b) Kangaroo

(d) Tiger

Answer: (a)

8. The diversity of our flora and fauna is affected by the threat posed by

(a) increase in levels of pollution

(b) increasing insensitivity to our environment

(d) global warming

Answer: (b)

9. This crisis will be produced first and foremost if half of the forest coverage of the earth is uncovered

(a) the remaining half of the forest maintains the imbalance

(b) there will be an energy crisis

(d) few species will go extinct

Answer: (d)

10. India belongs to this category in the context of wildlife and natural vegetation

(a) a country lacking in biodiversity e cover

(b) the country with the largest forest cover

(d) one of the twelve Mega biodiversity countries of the world

Answer: (d)
—————————————————————————————————————————————————-
MCQ’S ON SPECIATION

1. What stops a new chromosome variant appearing as a unique mutation from increasing in frequency?

(a) It is because polyploidy is a rare process

(b) it will interbreed with majority form causing heterozygotes to be inferior

(d) all of these

Answer: (b)

2. This is the key to speciation of populations

(a) reproductive health

(b) reproductive isolation

(d) extinction

Answer: (b)

3. This can cause a steeper cline

(a) Extensive migration

(b) Strong selection against heterozygotes

(d) All of these

Answer: (b)

4. The reproductive isolating factor occurring when a sperm and an egg are incompatible is

(a) temporal isolation

(b) ecological isolation

(d) behavioural isolation

Answer: (c)

5. Species, the biological concept is applicable only to the breeding populations

(a) that are adequately large to constitute a viable reproductive group

(b) that are adequately uniform to be recognized by observation

(d) in nature

Answer: (d)

6. Which of the following is included in the concept of genetic bottlenecks?

(a) a loss of genetic diversity in descendent populations

(b) sharing genetic material between two populations

(d) increased ability to resist new diseases

Answer: (a)

7. This type of speciation enables production of hybrids between two species

(a) allopatric speciation

(b) parapatric speciation

(d) sympatric

Answer: (b)

8. This is not a reproductive isolating mechanism

(a) ecological isolation

(b) individual isolation

(d) behavioural isolation

Answer: (b)

9. In this kind of speciation, evolution can be expected to be faster whilst the speciation between the speciating events

(a) Peripheral speciation

(b) Hybridization

(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer: (a)

10. A new species emerges from this geographic range of its ancestor as per this theory of speciation

(a) Sympatric speciation

(b) Parapatric speciation

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

MCQ’S ON LEG BONES

1. The intermediate cutaneous nerve of the thigh

(a) pierces sartorius

(b) projects independent of the medial cutaneous nerve of the thigh

(d) expands beneath the knee

Answer: (a)

2. This is not an action of the gracilis

(a) medial rotation of the flexed knee

(b) adduction of the thigh

(d) extension of the thigh

Answer: (b)

3. The anterior tibial artery

(a) found lateral to the deep peroneal nerve

(b) pierces interosseous membrane

(d) gives nutrient artery to the tibia

Answer: (c)

4. This muscle provides the most control of the hip joint movement while sitting

(a) gluteus maximus

(b) semimembranosus

(d) iliacus

Answer: (a)

5. Concerning the knee joint movements

(a) there is no active rotation of the extended knee

(b) major role of the menisci is in extension/flexion of the knee

(d) passive knee-extension will not result in “locking” of the joint

Answer: (a)

6. In the leg

(a) the inferior tibiofibular joint is a synovial joint

(b) the extensor compartment comprises 4 muscles, the anterior tibial vessels and the superficial peroneal nerve

(d) two intermuscular septa attach to the tibia

Answer: (c)

7. This is an incorrect statement regarding the innervation of the lower limb

(a) deep peroneal nerve supplies extensor digitorum brevis

(b) deep peroneal nerve supplies peroneus tertius

(d) common peroneal nerve supplies no muscles in the leg

Answer: (c)

8. The tibial nerve

(a) has one sensory and five motor branches in the popliteal fossa

(b) found deep to flexor digitorum longus in the calf

(d) found between the tendons of tibialis posterior and flexor digitorum longus passing behind the medial malleolus

Answer: (a)

9. The largest bone in the human body is

(a) Tibia

(b) Femur

(d) Skull

Answer: (b)

10. The thinnest bone of the human body is

(a) Incus

(b) Stapes

(d) Malleus

Answer: (c)
——————————————————————————————————————————————
MCQ’S ON LYMPHOCYTES

1. Lymphocytes are of two types, they are

(a) T-cells and erythrocytes

(b) Erythrocytes and Platelets

(d) T-cells and B-cells

Answer: (d)

2. Which of these immune cells are able to quickly respond post any subsequent encounter with the same antigen?

(a) helper T cells

(b) memory cells

(d) basophil

Answer: (b)

3. Basophils, eosinophils and Neutrophils are referred to as

(a) Platelets

(b) Astocytomas

(d) Buffers

Answer: (c)

4. Cytotoxic T cells destroy the target cells

(a) through injection of tumor necrosis factor

(b) by phagocytosis

(d) by releasing oxidizing agents

Answer: (c)

5. This is not a cardinal sign of inflammation

(a) redness

(b) heat

(d) opsonization

Answer: (d)

6. ___________ are released in the respiratory burst having the potent of cell-killing ability

(a) histamines

(b) neutrophils

(d) platelets-derived growth factors

Answer: (c)

7. The phenomena that initiates when a helper T cell binds with a class II MHC protein on a displaying cell is referred to as

(a) T cell proliferation

(b) costimulation

(d) antigen proliferation

Answer: (b)

8. The lymphocytes which can develop immunocompetence in the thymus is

(a) B lymphocytes

(b) T lymphocytes

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

9. An immune response when provoked by a nonself particle is known as

(a) immunoglobulin

(b) antibody

(d) interferon

Answer: (c)

10. The only blood cells which are not viewed as a part of the immune system are

(a) fat cells

(b) glial cells

(d) red blood cells

Answer: (d)

MCQ’S ON PHYLOGENY

1. This phenomena can be induced in those responsible for the horizontal elements of this phylogeny

(a) mitosis

(b) point mutations

(d) endosymbiosis

Answer: (d)

2. If cladistics were used to build a phylogenetic tree of cats, this would be the most appropriate outgroup

(a) tiger

(b) leopard

(d) domestic cat

Answer: (c)

3. To construct a phylogenetic tree in order to apply parsimony, choose

(a) tree with fewest branch points

(b) tree representing fewest evolutionary changes either in morphology or DNA sequences

(d) tree assuming all evolutionary changes with equal probability

Answer: (b)

4. This is used to know the phylogeny

(a) mRNA

(b) rRNA

(d) none of these

Answer: (b)

5. On the basis of cladistics, this eukaryotic kingdom is polyphyletic and hence unacceptable

(a) Monera

(b) Protista

(d) Fungi

Answer: (b)

6. Possessing four appendages when comparing mammals with birds is

(a) a character used to sort bird species

(b) example of analogy rather than homology

(d) a shared ancestral character

Answer: (d)

7. Pick the incorrect statement concerning the terminologies of phylogenetics

(a) branches are the lines in the tree

(b) tips of the branches have long lost sequences or species

(d) connecting point joining two adjacent branches is a node

Answer: (b)

8. This is not a vestigial organ in man

(a) coccyx

(b) nails

(d) homologous

Answer: (b)

9. Pick the incorrect option for the blank

Recent uses of phylogenetic analysis is to analyse ________ in addition to tracing the evolutionary history of specific genes

(a) physical separation methods

(b) proteomes

(d) gene families

Answer: (a)

10. This is incorrect about the merits of molecular data for Phylogenetics study

(a) sampling bias is involved

(b) with the help of molecular data more robust and clear-cut phylogenetic tree can be constructed

(d) more in number compared to fossil records

Answer: (a)

MCQ’S ON SATURATED FAT

1. Vegetable ghee is manufactured by the process of

(a) reduction polymerization

(b) oxidation polymerization

(d) saponification

Answer: (c)

2. This is an example of fat

(a) Groundnut oil

(b) Coconut oil

(d) Glyceryl trioleate

Answer: (c)

3. This is the function of dietary fat

(a) signals cells

(b) forms part of cellular membranes

(d) all of these

Answer: (d)

4. This lipoprotein is produced through the exogenous lipoprotein pathway

(a) low density lipoproteins

(b) Chylomicrons

(d) high density lipoproteins

Answer: (b)

5. Pick the incorrect statement

(a) Examples of oils are coconut oil, glyceryl trioleate, olive oil, etc

(b) at room temperature, oils are liquids

(d) oils are saturated triglycerides

Answer: (d)

6. De novo fatty acid synthesis indicates this

(a) occurs only with prolonged fasting

(b) excess intake of fat

(d) depletion of energy yielding substrates

Answer: (c)

7. Most animal fats are

(a) globular form

(b) linear

(d) unsaturated

Answer: (c)

8. Hydrogenation is the process of conversion of unsaturated acid groups into saturated ones by a catalyst ___________

(a) Sn

(b) Ni

(d) Ti

Answer: (b)

9. Saturated fats are a type of fat wherein the fatty acids possess

(a) coordinate covalent bonds

(b) triple bonds

(d) single bonds

Answer: (d)

10. Oleic acid is an example of

(a) inert fatty acids

(b) neutral fatty acids

(d) saturated fat

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON TRANSDUCTION

1. Through transduction when a recipient bacterial cell picks up bacterial DNA, then

(a) the new DNA replicates every time the recipient undergoes multiplication

(b) the DNA is destroyed

(d) the new DNA should enter a new bacteriophage or it is lost

Answer: (a)

2. A specialized transducing phage that attacks an infected cell with lysogenic stage of the same virus produces

(a) HFT

(b) HFR

(d) F`

Answer: (a)

3. This is the role undertaken by bacteriophage in transduction

(a) episome

(b) recipient

(d) vector

Answer: (d)

4. The ability of cells to uptake DNA fragments from the surroundings is known as

(a) HFR

(b) Competence

(d) Fitness

Answer: (b)

5. Who discovered Transduction

(a) Iwanowsky

(b) Hayes, Lederberg and Woolman

(d) Lederberg and Zinder

Answer: (d)

6. This process involves transferring naked DNA fragments between bacteria

(a) Vectoring

(b) Transformation

(d) Conjugation

Answer: (b)

7. This is the virulence of viruses producing bacterial cell after infection if a specialized transducing virus attacks a healthy bacterial cell

(a) Virulence depreciates

(b) Equal virulence seen as the original one

(d) No virulence

Answer: (d)

8. It is ___________ when the phage tranduces those bacterial genes only which are adjoining to the prophage in the bacterial chromosome

(a) conjugation

(b) restricted transduction

(d) generalized transduction

Answer: (b)

9. This is incorrect regarding specialized transduction

(a) observed in lambda phages such as K12

(b) viral genome is incorporated in the bacterial genome

(d) lysogenic viruses are capable of performing this

Answer: (c)

10. This virus is used for transduction

(a) Lambda phage

(b) T7 phage

(d) T2 phage

Answer: (a)

MCQ’S ON EMP PATHWAY

1. This enzyme catalyzes the transfer of a phosphoryl group from ATP to glucose

(a) Hexokinase

(b) Phosphoglucose isomerase

(d) Phosphoglucose mutase

Answer: (a)

2. Glycolysis is the conversion of

(a) Fructose into phosphoenolpyruvate

(b) Fructose into pyruvate

(d) Glucose into pyruvate

Answer: (d)

3. The EMP pathway in eukaryotes usually takes place in

(a) nucleus

(b) lysosome

(d) cytosol

Answer: (d)

4. In the last step of the EMP pathway or glycolysis, this substrate is used

(a) Phosphoenolpyruvate

(b) Pyruvate

(d) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate

Answer: (a)

5. When yeasts carry out alcoholic fermentation of glucose, the coenzyme – thiamine pyrophosphate is needed by

(a) transaldolase

(b) pyruvate decarboxylase

(d) hexokinase

Answer: (b)

6. The activity of this enzyme increases when the ATP supply of a cell depletes

(a) Glucokinase

(b) Phosphofructokinase-1

(d) Pyruvate kinase

Answer: (b)

7. This is not one of the steps between the glycolysis of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and 3-phosphoglycerate

(a) formation of 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate

(b) oxidation of NADH to NAD+

(d) catalysis by phosphoglycerate kinase

Answer: (b)

8. In EMP pathway, the process by which ATP is formed from ADP is

(a) reduction

(b) oxidative phosphorylation

(d) photo phosphorylation

Answer: (c)

9. In erythrocytes, the EMP pathway or glycolysis produces pyruvate which is metabolized further to

(a) haemoglobin

(b) ethanol

(d) CO2

Answer: (c)

10. This enzyme catalyzes the first step of glycolysis or the EMP pathway

(a) Glucokinase

(b) Pyruvate kinase

(d) Hexokinase

Answer: (d)

MCQ’S ON PINUS

1. “Chilgoza” a popular dry fruit is a production of

(a) Pinus gerardiana

(b) Pinus sylvestris

(d) Pinus monophylla

Answer: (a)

2. Mesophyll tissue of Pinus needle is composed of

(a) Spongy parenchyma

(b) Armed parenchyma

(d) Transfusion tissue

Answer: (a)

3. Male gametophytes of Pinus is

(a) 2 celled

(b) 4 celled

(d) 10 celled

Answer: (b)

4. This is how we can characterize the secondary wood of Pinus

(a) vessels are present

(b) resin ducts are absent

(d) resin cells are present

Answer: (c)

5. This is a correct statement about Pinus

(a) forms deciduous trees in temperate areas

(b) exhibits xerophytic character and grows in deserts

(d) is of economic value

Answer: (d)

6. Formation of non-motile male gametes is observed in

(a) Fern

(b) Pinus

(d) Selaginella

Answer: (b)

7. Winged seeds are present in

(a) Pinus

(b) Cycas

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

8. Meroblastic kind of embryo development occurs in

(a) Pinus

(b) Ferns

(d) All of these

Answer: (a)

9. This is the best explanation for the pyramidal shape (excurrent) of Pinus (branches producing the appearance of a tall cone)

(a) influence of auxins on the development of stem tips

(b) water efficiently transported from ground to leaves

(d) competition for sunlight amongst adjoining trees

Answer: (c)

10. These possess needle-like foliage leaves

(a) Pinus

(b) Fern

(d) Mosses

Answer: (a)

MCQ’S ON PERISTALSIS

1. This structure is absent in frogs and present in man

(a) thyroid gland

(b) adrenal gland

(d) pancreas

Answer: (c)

2. This hormone facilitates the secretion of HCl from the stomach

(a) somatomedin

(b) secretin

(d) renin

Answer: (c)

3. Pick the incorrect statement

(a) cephalic phase of gastric secretion does not involve the release of gastrin

(b) contraction of pyloric sphincter is caused due to large doses of gastrin

(d) gastric peristalsis includes propulsive grinding and mixing movements

Answer: (a)

4. In humans, this pair of food constituents arrive at the stomach in a state of complete indigestion

(a) Starch and protein

(b) Fat and starch

(d) Cellulose and fat

Answer: (d)

5. This is most likely to happen if parietal cells of the gut epithelium turn partially non-functional

(a) Steapsin turns all the more effective

(b) pH of the stomach will sharply decline

(d) Inadequate hydrolysis of pepsin into peptones and proteoses

Answer: (d)

6. This regulates the peristalsis of the intestine

(a) Brachial plexus

(b) Sacral plexus

(d) Discoidal plexus

Answer: (c)

7. This is incorrect about vitamins

(a) tocopherol is anti-sterility vitamin

(b) vitamins are indispensable for life

(d) vitamins are organic catalysts

Answer: (c)

8. Minimum peristalsis takes place in

(a) Oesophagus

(b) Duodenum

(d) Stomach

Answer: (c)

9. This prevents keratinization of the skin

(a) Vitamin D

(b) Vitamin C

(d) Vitamin A

Answer: (d)

10. This macromineral is essential for the synthesis of insulin

(a) magnesium

(b) chlorine

(d) sulphur

Answer: (d)

MCQ’S ON MACRONUTRIENTS

1. The possible supplies of nitrogen and phosphorous ions in the soil is exhausted as they are found as

(a) particles having no charge

(b) ions that are negatively charged

(d) a disproportionate mixture of negatively charged ions

Answer: (b)

2. Plant of cabbage consumes phosphorous from

(a) phosphate rocks

(b) water irrigated soil

(d) none of the above

Answer: (b)

3. This is not absorbed through soil

(a) Potassium

(b) Nitrogen

(d) All of these

Answer: (c)

4. This is a major macronutrient, component of vitamins and enzymes

(a) sea salt

(b) sulphur

(d) calcium phosphate

Answer: (b)

5. This macronutrients is a structural component of a cell wall activating the enzymes

(a) nitrogen dioxide

(b) boron dioxide

(d) calcium

Answer: (d)

6. This macronutrient checks the opening and closing of the stomata and decreases the water loss from leaves

(a) nitrogen

(b) methane

(d) potassium

Answer: (d)

7. Deficiency of this causes the death of root tips and stem

(a) carbon

(b) calcium

(d) phosphorous

Answer: (b)

8. Mustard’s sinigrin pungent principle can be attributed to

(a) tannins containing nitrogen

(b) glycoside containing amino group

(d) alkyloids containing cyanide radicle

Answer: (c)

9. This essential element is not a constituent of any enzyme however triggers the activity of many enzymes

(a) K

(b) Mn

(d) Zn

Answer: (a)

10. Carbon is made available to crop plants in this form

(a) element carbon

(b) carbonates

(d) carbon dioxide

Answer: (d)
——————————————————————————————————————————————
MCQ’S ON SEX DETERMINATION

1. In an entity with genetic composition AA+XXY such as Drosophila will be a normal female. In the case of mammals, it will be?

(a) Turner

(b) Klinefelter

(d) Normal male

Answer: (b)

2. ______________ discovered XY sex chromosomes

(a) M J D White

(b) Nettil Stevans

(d) Mendel

Answer: (b)

3. In this plant, sex determination was first studied

(a) Mirabilis

(b) Melandrium

(d) Rumex

Answer: (b)

4. This technique can be used to detect the chromosomal abnormality of an unborn baby

(a) Tissue culture

(b) Ultrasound

(d) Amniocentesis

Answer: (d)

5. A foetus’ determination of gender is dependent on

(a) mother’s age

(b) father’s health

(d) sperm’s nature

Answer: (d)

6. This number of Barr bodies are found in a female with XXXX chromosomes

(a) Four

(b) Three

(d) One

Answer: (b)

7. If a boy has sexual characters of that of a girl, its genotype would be

(a) XYY

(b) XO

(d) XXX

Answer: (c)

8. Theory of linkage was put forward by

(a) De Vries

(b) Sutton

(d) Morgan

Answer: (d)

9. The chromosomes accounted for sex determination are referred to as

(a) Heterosis

(b) Multiple alleles

(d) Autosomes

Answer: (c)

10. The condition of Free martin is observed in

(a) Frog

(b) Rabbit

(d) Man

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON NEW CROPS

1. Source of liquid wax is

(a) Blue whale oil

(b) Simmondsia chinensis (Jojoba)

(d) both (b) and (c)

Answer: (d)

2. Olericulture is

(a) Cultivation of cash crops

(b) cultivation of oil seeds

(d) cultivation of fruits

Answer: (c)

3. Pusa hybrid 4 is a variant of

(a) Brinjal

(b) Banana

(d) Potato

Answer: (c)

4. This is Jojoba

(a) Leucaena

(b) Simmondsia chinensis

(d) Crotalaria

Answer: (b)

5. A common beverage, Cola is obtained from

(a) stems

(b) leaves

(d) seeds

Answer: (d)

6. Identify this good green manure leguminous tree that is small and fast-growing, leaves enriched with nitrogenous compounds

(a) Jojoba

(b) Guayule

(d) Dalbergia

Answer: (c)

7. Hybridization of this pair led to the development of a man-made cereal, Triticale

(a) Rice and wheat

(b) Oat and wheat

(d) Gram and wheat

Answer: (c)

8. This is a beverage plant

(a) Poullinia cupana

(b) Ilex paraguariensis

(d) None of the above

Answer: (c)

9. Pick the incorrect pair

(a) Nutritive seeds – Psophocarpus tetragonolobus

(b) Liquid wax obtained – Simmondsia chinensis

(d) Source of furniture Wood – Parthenium argentatum

Answer: (d)

10. This is an underutilized oil crop

(a) Cocos nucifera

(b) Azadirachta indica

(d) None of the above

Answer: (b)

MCQ’S ON ALCOHOLISM

1. Consumption of this causes increase in the fat synthesis, dilation of blood vessels, low blood sugar and stomach-inflammation

(a) drug addiction and tobacco

(b) alcohol

(d) drug addiction

Answer: (a)

2. This causes tunnel vision

(a) Smoking

(b) Alcohol

(d) Vitamin A deficiency

Answer: (b)

3. After drinking alcohol, consumption of this leads to death

(a) Morphine

(b) Opium

(d) All of these

Answer: (c)

4. This drug along with alcohol generates marked drowsiness otherwise does not produce sedative effect

(a) Marijuana

(b) Valium

(d) Barbiturate

Answer: (c)

5. Constituent of alcoholic beverage is

(a) Propyl alcohol

(b) Methyl alcohol

(d) Mix of all of these

Answer: (c)

6. This is a result of the appearance of the fatty liver syndrome

(a) synthesis of fatty acids, fat and glycerols

(b) synthesis of fat from alcohol

(d) excessive synthesis of fat from fatty acids

Answer: (b)

7. Alcoholism causing fatty acid syndrome is called

(a) Cirrhosis

(b) Neuritis

(d) Nephritis

Answer: (a)

8. This is a withdrawal symptom of alcohol consumption

(a) Delirium

(b) Nausea and vomiting

(d) all of these

Answer: (b)

9. This causes the maximum accumulation of fat in the liver

(a) meat and egg

(b) alcohol

(d) starch

Answer: (b)

10. This is a consequence of alcohol addiction

(a) psychosis, hypertension and fatty liver syndrome

(b) cardiovascular diseases, hypertension and fatty liver syndrome

(d) all of these

Answer: (b)

MCQ’S ON PTERIDIUM PTERIS DRYOPTERIS

1. In Dryopteris the dehiscence of sporangium is controlled by

(a) Indusium

(b) Sorus

(d) Annulus

Answer: (d)

2. Pick the incorrect statement

(a) Antheridia develop on ventral surface of prothallus

(b) Archegonia has one binucleate neck canal cell

(d) Mature archegonia secretes maleic acid

Answer: (c)

3. In this portion of the Dryopteris (fern plant), the stele is arranged in the form of a ‘C’

(a) Old Rachis

(b) Rhizome

(d) Young Rachis

Answer: (d)

4. The differentiating factor between Pteris and Funaria is in having

(a) swimming antherozoids

(b) an independent gametophyte

(d) dominant sporophytic phase

Answer: (d)

5. The opening mechanism in Dryopteris of sporangium is functional by

(a) Annulus

(b) Stalk

(d) None of the above

Answer: (c)

6. The sori in Pteris are

(a) reniform and discontinuous

(b) vermiform and discontinuous

(d) linear and continuous

Answer: (d)

7. The common aspect of two distinct generations in a single life history is observed in

(a) Spirogyra

(b) Mango

(d) Bacillus

Answer: (c)

8. Meiosis in Dryopteris/Pteridophytes occurs at this time

(a) formation of sex organs

(b) formation of spores

(d) formation of gamete

Answer: (b)

9. Alternation of generation is distinctly found in

(a) Viruses

(b) Bacteria

(d) Pteris (Fern)

Answer: (d)

10. The condition of monoecious is found in

(a) Pteridium

(b) Pinus

(d) Cycas

Answer: (a)

MCQ’S ON SELAGINELLA

1. Division to which Selaginella belongs is

(a) Psilopsida

(b) Pteropsida

(d) Spenopsida

Answer: (c)

2. The character that Selaginella possesses which is of evolutionary significance is

(a) Strobilus

(b) Heterospory

(d) Ligule

Answer: (b)

3. This statement regarding Selaginella is incorrect

(a) Endodermis is trabeculated

(b) Vascular cylinder is protostelic

(d) Selaginella is commonly distributed on plains and hills

Answer: (d)

4. In this species of Selaginella, the apex continues its vegetative growth beyond the formation of strobilus

(a) S.cuspidata

(b) S.helvetica

(d) None of the above

Answer: (a)

5. This is uncommon in Selaginella and Funaria

(a) Embryo

(b) Roots

(d) Motile sperms

Answer: (b)

6. The presence of ________ anatomically characterizes the stem of Selaginella

(a) Protostele

(b) Amphiphloic siphonostele

(d) Ectophloic siphonostele

Answer: (a)

7. This characterizes the presence of Selaginella

(a) Ligule

(b) Homospory

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

8. Male gametes in Selaginella are

(a) Multiflagellated

(b) Biflagellated

(d) Aflagellated

Answer: (b)

9. Stele of Selaginella stem is

(a) Eustelic

(b) Solenostelic

(d) Dictyostelic

Answer: (c)

10. This is the innermost layer of sporangium of Selaginella

(a) Tapetum

(b) Synangium

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

MCQ’S ON CLASS AMPHIBIA

1. Dicondylic skull along with ten pairs of cranial nerves is found in

(a) Mammalia

(b) Amphibia

(d) Pisces

Answer: (b)

2. This about Class Amphibia is correct

(i) fertilization is internal

(ii) respiration is through gills only

(iii) body is divisible into head and trunk

(iv) heart is two chambered – one ventricle and one auricle

(a) only (i)

(b) only (iii)

(d) all are correct

Answer: (b)

3. A frog has

(a) jaws but no teeth

(b) eyes but no lids

(d) hands but no fingers

Answer: (c)

4. Even after attaining sexual maturity, larval characters are retained. It is known as

(a) Phylogenesis

(b) Neoteny

(d) Ontogenesis

Answer: (b)

5. Frogs dwell in water or in the vicinity of water as

(a) it respires through the skin

(b) it can see through its transparent eyelids whilst swimming

(d) water is a good source for food

Answer: (a)

6. In amphibians, Organ of Jacobson is for

(a) temperature

(b) pressure

(d) sound

Answer: (c)

7. The differentiating factor of the venous system of frog and rabbit is in the presence of this

(a) hepatic vein

(b) three vena cavae

(d) hepatic portal system

Answer: (c)

8. Neck is not found in a frog. This absence helps the frog to

(a) swim in water

(b) respire

(d) jump on ground

Answer: (d)

9. The body temperature of a frog is 20 degrees celsius in an environment having a temperature of 30 degrees celsius. The temperature of the frog in the new environment is

(a) 25 degrees celsius

(b) 20 degrees celsius

(d) between 20-30 degrees celsius

Answer: (c)

10. This is not a true amphibian animal

(a) Toad

(b) Salamander

(d) Frog

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON CLASS PISCES

1. A common trait between tadpole and fish is

(a) scales

(b) lateral line

(d) legs

Answer: (b)

2. This has a cartilaginous endoskeleton

(a) Bony fishes

(b) Mollusca

(d) Elasmobranch

Answer: (d)

3. True fishes have fins and gills. This is not a true fish

(a) Hippocampus – SeaHorse

(b) Hythalamictyes – Silver carp

(d) Lepisma – Silverfish

Answer: (d)

4. This fish shows dorsal fin modified into suckers

(a) Neoceratodus

(b) Hippocampus

(d) Torpedo

Answer: (c)

5. This is a living fossil

(a) Lepidosiren

(b) Latimeria

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

6. This is a migratory fish

(a) Ribbon fish

(b) Carp

(d) Shark

Answer: (c)

7. The distinguishing factor between rays and sharks are

(a) type of tail fin

(b) position of gill slits

(d) nature of their scales

Answer: (b)

8. Type of association between shark and suckerfish is

(a) Predation

(b) Parasitism

(d) Symbiosis

Answer: (c)

9. Placoid scales are found in

(a) paleontological fishes

(b) lung fishes

(d) cartilaginous fishes

Answer: (d)

10. This is a characteristic feature of fishes

(a) gills and epidermal scales

(b) tail and epidermal scales

(d) venous heart and tail

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON EMBRYOLOGY

1. This phase in the development of sperm has no counterpart in ovum-development

(a) spermiogenesis

(b) phase of multiplication

(d) polar body formation

Answer: (a)

2. During this phase, the nuclear envelope begins to disappear

(a) cytokinesis

(b) S phase

(d) Prometaphase

Answer: (d)

3. In humans, the number of ova and sperms that would be produced from 100 secondary oocytes and 100 secondary spermatocytes during gametogenesis is

(a) 50 ova, 100 sperms

(b) 100 ova, 100 sperms

(d) 200 ova, 200 sperms

Answer: (c)

4. The undifferentiated primordial germ cells are larger in size and their chromatin rich nuclei are distinct in

(a) growth phase

(b) multiplication phase

(d) all of these

Answer: (b)

5. Spermatogenesis and oogenesis describe the process of meiosis in males and females, respectively. This statement about both processes is true

(a) both are halted in an intermediate step until puberty

(b) both produce the same number of viable gametes

(d) oogenesis forms two polar bodies, spermatogenesis forms only one

Answer: (c)

6. Typically, in humans, gametes are disease-free or even in other animals as

(a) gametes are immune to diseases

(b) germs cannot attack gametes

(d) none of these

Answer: (c)

7. Phenomena that creates female gametes, oogenesis is ceased at prophase I up till puberty. This describes the DNA content of a female’s gametes during her childhood.

(a) 23 chromosomes, 23 chromatids

(b) 23 chromosomes, 46 chromatids

(d) 46 chromosomes, 46 chromatids

Answer: (c)

8. The amount of yolk and its distribution are changed in the egg. This is affected

(a) ferrilization

(b) cleavage pattern

(d) number of blastomeres

Answer: (b)

9. Haemoendothelial placenta takes place in

(a) rat and rabbit

(b) camel and deer

(d) ape and man

Answer: (a)

10. Atretic follicles occur in

(a) Liver

(b) Testis

(d) Ovary

Answer: (d)

MCQ’S ON TISSUE CULTURE

1. Which of the following statement is incorrect about agar?

(a) Remains stable at incubation temperature

(b) Does not react with media constituents

(d) Not digested by plant enzymes

Answer: (c)

2. In tissue culture system, this is the main effect of cytokines

(a) shoot elongation

(b) adventitious root formation

(d) adventitious shoot formation

Answer: (d)

3. This is not a basic component of culture media for plant cultivation

(a) amino acids

(b) sucrose/sugar

(d) serum albumin

Answer: (d)

4. Which of the following plant propagation method uses girdling?

(a) cuttings

(b) grafting

(d) both (a) and (b)

Answer: (c)

5. The ability of single cells to divide and produce all differentiated cells in the entity.

(a) Totipotency

(b) Multipotent

(d) Unipotent

Answer: (a)

6. Which of the following is the first transgenic crop?

(a) flax

(b) tobacco

(d) cotton

Answer: (b)

7. Which of the following is not a feature of plant cells?

(a) Consists of plastids

(b) Cell wall outside the cell membrane

(d) Cell-cell communication through plasmodesmata

Answer: (c)

8. Which of the following is a superbug?

(a) virus

(b) bacteria

(d) worms

Answer: (b)

9. This is a cellular totipotency property.

(a) plants

(b) animals

(d) none of the above

Answer: (a)

10. Growth of plant tissues in artificial media is called _______.

(a) cell hybridization

(b) plant tissue culture

(d) gene expression

Answer: (b)

MCQ’S ON CYTOSKELETON

1. This statement is true

(a) microtubules are composed of tubulin

(b) microfilaments are composed of actin

(d) all the above

Answer: (d)

2. What are flagella and cilia of eukaryotic cells made of?

(a) tubulin

(b) desmin

(d) keratin

Answer: (a)

3. Cell lining of the lumen of the fallopian tube is involved in ciliary action to transport the egg from the ovary to the uterus. The cytoskeleton structure responsible for this movement is

(a) flagella

(b) microfilaments

(d) intermediate filaments

Answer: (c)

4. The intermediate filaments found in hairs and nails are a type 1 IF protein, composed of

(a) tubulin

(b) keratin

(d) lamin

Answer: (b)

5. Malformation of these cytoskeleton structures can be linked to an inability to contract a muscle

(a) microfilaments

(b) microtubules

(d) intermediate filaments

Answer: (a)

6. This is a microfilament inhibitor

(a) cytochalasin-B

(b) colchicine

(d) aspirin

Answer: (a)

7. This is the most heterogeneous type of cytoskeleton filament

(a) intermediate filaments

(b) microfilaments

(d) none of the above

Answer: (a)

8. This cell lacks cytoskeleton

(a) prokaryotic bacterial cells

(b) eukaryotic plant cells

(d) None of the above

Answer: (d)

9. Microfilaments are composed of

(a) mosaic protein

(b) tubulin protein

(d) actin protein

Answer: (d)

10. A network of microfilaments and microtubules is classified as

(a) cytoskeleton

(b) active skeleton

(d) endoplasmic skeleton

Answer: (a)

MCQ’S ON ABA AND OTHER GROWTH REGULATORS

1. Abscission zone can be induced for formation by

(a) abscisic acid

(b) cytokinins

(d) auxins

Answer: (a)

2. Presence of this in the seed is linked with dormancy

(a) abscisic acid

(b) gibberellic acid

(d) ethylene

Answer: (a)

3. Abscisic acid treatment results in

(a) root elongation

(b) stomatal closure

(d) leaf expansion

Answer: (b)

4. ABA contains

(a) one asymmetric and two symmetric carbon atoms

(b) one symmetric and two asymmetric carbon atoms

(d) one symmetric carbon atom

Answer: (c)

5. Morphactins are

(a) synthetic auxins

(b) synthetic gibberellins

(d) none of these

Answer: (c)

6. Dormin is a

(a) abscisic acid

(b) growth promoter

(d) none of these

Answer: (a)

7. This is wound hormone

(a) phyllocaline

(b) auxin

(d) necrohormone

Answer: (d)

8. This is a plant hormone

(a) acetylene

(b) dormin

(d) all of these

Answer: (b)

9. This is a naturally occurring growth inhibitor

(a) NAA

(b) IAA

(d) ABA

Answer: (d)

10. Abscisic acid regulates

(a) leaf fall and dormancy

(b) cell division

(d) shoot elongation

Answer: (a)

MCQ’S ON LINKAGE AND CROSSING OVER

1. Crossing over takes place in the

(a) Diakinesis stage

(b) Anaphase stage

(d) Leptotene stage

Answer: (c)

2. There are 4 pairs of chromosomes in a Drosophila. The linkage groups present in it are

(a) one more than the pair of chromosomes

(b) one less than the pair of chromosomes

(d) eight

Answer: (c)

3. Percentage of crossing over is more when

(a) genes are located in a different cell

(b) genes are not linked

(d) linked genes are located far apart from each other

Answer: (d)

4. If the percentage of crossing over between two genes is 10, then the distance between two genes will be

(a) 5 morganoid

(b) 10 centimorgans

(d) 40 map units

Answer: (b)

5. Alleles of different genes that are on the same chromosome can occasionally be separated by a phenomenon called

(a) crossing over

(b) continuous variation

(d) pleiotropy

Answer: (a)

6. Repulsion and coupling are two faces of

(a) mutation

(b) chiasmata

(d) crossing over

Answer: (c)

7. If gene frequency between genes a and c is 2%; b and c is 13%; b and d 4%; a and b 15%; c and d 17 and a and d 19%. The sequence of genes in a chromosome is

(a) a,d,b,c

(b) d,b,a,c

(d) a,c,b,d

Answer: (d)

8. This is the reason why Mendel did not recognize linkage phenomenon in his experiments

(a) he studied only pure plants

(b) he did not have a powerful microscope

(d) many chromosomes to handle

Answer: (c)

9. In a linear chromosome map distance between 4 loci is as follows a-b is 10%, a-d is 3%, b-c is 4% and a-c is 6%. The crossover frequency between c and d is

(a) 4-12%

(b) 3-6%

(d) 3%

Answer: (d)

10. Where does this evidence come from? – crossing over takes place at a four-stranded stage and not at two stranded stages of chromosomes.

(a) studies on linkage maps of chromosomes in Drosophila

(b) studies of meiosis in maize

(d) 2:2:2:2 organization of ascospores in Neurospora

Answer: (d)

11. Crossing over occurs between

(a) Non-sister chromatids of non-homologous chromosome at zygotene stage of prophase-I

(b) Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosome at pachytene stage of prophase-I

(d) Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosome at zygotene stage of prophase I

Answer: (b)

MCQ’S ON MULTIPLE ALLELISM

1. A person with antigens A and B and no antibodies belongs to blood group or in which blood group antibodies are absent

(a) O

(b) AB

(d) A

Answer: (b)

2. Inheritance of ABO blood group system is an example of

(a) dominance

(b) epistasis

(d) multiple allelism

Answer: (d)

3. During the serological test in which anti-human serum is mixed with the blood of another animal, the blood of this animal gives the thickest precipitate

(a) mule

(b) dog

(d) gibbon

Answer: (c)

4. In disputed parentage, blood group analysis of mother, alleged father and child can

(a) not be of any use

(b) only prove that he cannot be the father

(d) none of these

Answer: (b)

5. This is the genotype of blood group A

(a) IA IA|

(b) IA IO|

(d) IA IA| or IA IO|

Answer: (d)

6. If a patient with blood group B requires an immediate blood transfusion, this type can be given

(a) AB and B

(b) AB and A

(d) B and O

Answer: (d)

7. In men, this is genetically dominant

(a) Albinism

(b) Haemophilia

(d) color blindness

Answer: (c)

8. Color of the skin in humans is regulated by

(a) polygenic effect

(b) lethal genes

(d) none of the above

Answer: (c)

9. The recessive character typically is expressed only when present in a double recessive condition. But, a single recessive gene can express itself in humans when genes are found on

(a) either on autosome or X chromosome

(b) X chromosome of male

(d) any autosome

Answer: (b)

10. Two allelic genes are situated on

(a) any two chromosomes

(b) two non-homologous chromosomes

(d) same chromosomes

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON MYCOPLASMA

1. Mycoplasma is

(a) eukaryotic and unicellular

(b) prokaryotic and unicellular

(d) eukaryotic and multicellular

Answer: (b)

2. The “witches broom” of legumes is caused by a

(a) fungus

(b) bacterium

(d) virus

Answer: (c)

3. This species of mycoplasma causes human sterility

(a) T.mycoplasma

(b) M.fermentans

(d) all of the above

Answer: (d)

4. In mycoplasma, the elementary cell body performs the function of

(a) respiration

(b) reproduction

(d) metabolism

Answer: (b)

5. This is called “Jockers of microbiological park”

(a) nostoc

(b) mycoplasma

(d) none of these

Answer: (b)

6. These are osmotically inactive

(a) nostoc

(b) mycoplasma

(d) all of these

Answer: (b)

7. Vancomycin and Penicillin do not affect the mycoplasma as

(a) there is no Golgi body

(b) there are no mitochondria

(d) there is no cell wall

Answer: (d)

8. This is a bacteria without cell wall

(a) cyanobacteria

(b) mycoplasma

(d) virus

Answer: (b)

9. Little leaf of brinjal is caused by

(a) algae

(b) fungus

(d) virus

Answer: (c)

10. This is the smallest organism capable of autonomous growth and reproduction

(a) mycoplasma

(b) viroid

(d) none of these

Answer: (a)

MCQ’S ON FLORAL FORMULA

1. Tricarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium is found in the flowers of

(a) Liliaceae

(b) Poaceae

(d) Solanaceae

Answer: (a)

2. Perigynous flowers are found in________.

(a) Rose

(b) China rose

(d) Guava

Answer: (a)

3. Tulip, onion, cucumber, guava, potato, brinjal, mustard, china rose – amongst these, how many have superior ovary?

(a) Six

(b) Five

(d) Three

Answer: (a)

4. Standard petal of a papilionaceous corolla is known as_______.

(a) Carina

(b) Corona

(d) Pappus

Answer: (c)

5. Free-central placentation is found in_______.

(a) Citrus

(b) Brassica

(d) Dianthus

Answer: (d)

6. _________ is the large shield-shaped cotyledon, the wheat grain possesses in its embryo

(a) coleoptile

(b) scutellum

(d) epiblast

Answer: (b)

7. These flowers show radial symmetry______.

(a) Cassia

(b) Pisum

(d) Brassica

Answer: (d)

8. Keel is the characteristics feature of the flower of_______.

(a) tomato

(b) aloe

(d) tulip

Answer: (c)

9. These many plants among Salvia, Sesbania, Mustard, Indigofera, Aloe, Allium, groundnut, turnip, and radish gram possess stamens with diverse lengths in their flowers

(a) six

(b) five

(d) three

Answer: (c)

10. floral formula is the floral formula of:

(a) Brassica

(b) Petunia

(d) Allium

Answer: (b)

MCQ’S ON REGULATIONS OF GENE EXPRESSION IN EUKARYOTES

1. Eukaryotic entities

(a) in the presence of a cAMP molecule, it carries out protein synthesis

(b) have only operons assisting in gene expression

(d) transcription occurs in the cytoplasm and translation in nucleus

Answer: (c)

2. A genomic DNA possesses functioning units, a group of genes under the influence of promoters known as

(a) genes

(b) operons

(d) codon

Answer: (b)

3. All regulatory proteins possess a common DNA binding motif that is specific flexes in their protein chains permitting them to interlock with

(a) the outside groove of DNA helix

(b) the major groove of DNA helix

(d) the inner groove of DNA helix

Answer: (b)

4. Regulatory proteins turn transcription off through binding to a site rapidly at the front of the promoter and many times even overlaps the promoter, this site is the

(a) regulatory site

(b) operator site

(d) transcriptional control site

Answer: (b)

5. Seemingly, the vertebrate cells contain a protein which binds to clusters of 5-methylcytosine ensuring that the bound gene stays in the “off” position. This regulation on the role of gene regulation is an outcome of

(a) Methylation

(b) Translation

(d) operator suppression

Answer: (a)

6. The transcriptional gene control in eukaryotes is mediated by

(a) metabolites that bind to the cis-acting elements

(b) trans-acting factors failing to bind to cis-acting elements

(d) repressor proteins that bind to operator sites

Answer: (c)

7. Basic tools of genetic regulation are the ability of some proteins to bind to specific

(a) regulatory DNA sequences

(b) regulatory RNA sequences

(d) promoter portions of genes

Answer: (a)

8. In the regulation of gene expression, this is an incorrect statement

(a) in the bacteria, it permits to replicate with no control

(b) in the bacteria, it permits to adapt to changing environments

(d) permits the functioning of multicellular entities on the whole

Answer: (a)

9. There are these many histones in the core of a nucleosome

(a) 8

(b) 6

(d) 2

Answer: (a)

10. In eukaryotes and bacteria, the most common form of regulation is

(a) promoter control

(b) translation control

(d) transcriptional control

Answer: (d)

MCQ’S ON HARDY WEINBERG LAW

1. In the Caucasian population of the US, 1 in 2500 babies is affected by a recessive condition – cystic fibrosis. In this population, the frequency of the dominant allele is

(a) 0.02

(b) 0.36

(d) 0.98

Answer: (d)

2. A sampled “a” population has 36% of homozygous recessive genotype (aa). Then the frequency of allele “a” is

(a) 0%

(b) 20%

(d) 70%

Answer: (c)

3. 360 out of 1000 individuals in a population have a genotype of AA while 480 have Aa genotype. The rest 160 belong to aa. Frequency of allele A in this population is

(a) 0.7

(b) 0.6

(d) 0.4

Answer: (b)

4. A gene locus has two alleles A and a. If the frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then the frequency of homozygous dominant, heterozygous and homozygous recessive individuals in the population is

(a) 0.16(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.36(aa)

(b) 0.16(AA); 0.24(Aa); 0.36(aa)

(d) 0.36(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.16(aa)

Answer: (a)

5. What does p2 in the below mentioned Hardy-Weinberg equation indicate?

(p+q)2 = p2 + 2pq + q2

(a) individuals that are heterozygous dominant

(b) individuals having a lethal allele

(d) individuals that are homozygous recessive

Answer: (c)

6. 25 individuals in a population are homozygous dominant, then the individuals that are expected to be homozygous recessive are

(a) 100

(b) 75

(d) 25

Answer: (d)

7. Consider a population of sheep to be in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. The allele for black wool(w) has an allele frequency of 0.81 while the allele for white wool(W) has an allele frequency of 0.19. Then the percentage of heterozygous individuals in the population is

(a) 4%

(b) 15%

(d) 66%

Answer: (c)

8. This condition is essential for a population to be in the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium

(a) random mating

(b) no mutations

(d) all of these

Answer: (d)

9. This statement describes the Hardy-Weinberg law the best

(a) it is impossible to predict expected allele frequencies mathematically

(b) in large populations, dominant alleles become more prevalent

(d) mechanism of inheritance in a large population does not change allele frequency

Answer: (d)

10. This is true of the population which are included in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium

(a) entities migrate constantly

(b) populations should be limited and small

(d) process of natural selection is occurring

Answer: (c)

11. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium operates in the absence of

(a) Gene flow

(b) Mutation

(d) All of these

Answer: (d)

MCQ’S ON GYMNOSPERMS

1. ‘Saccus’ term is used for

(a) exine of pollen grains of Pinus

(b) intine of pollen grains of Pinus

(d) Wings of seeds of Pinus

Answer: (c)

2. Flowers and cones are similar because

(a) both assist seed dispersal

(b) both are responsible for attracting insects to pollinate

(d) both are reproductive structures

Answer: (d)

3. An autotrophic, prokaryotic and nitrogen-fixing symbiont is present in

(a) Cicer

(b) Cycas

(d) Pinus

Answer: (b)

4. Pick the pair that is incorrectly matched

(a) Cycas – coralloid roots

(b) Abies – wood tar, wood gas

(d) Sequoia – Redwood tree

Answer: (b)

5. This serves as a connecting link between the angiosperms and gymnosperms

(a) Gnetales

(b) Coniferales

(d) Cycadales

Answer: (a)

6. Though Cycas has an embryo with two cotyledons, it is not grouped under dicotyledonous plants as

(a) ovules are naked

(b) possesses compound leaves

(d) resembles a palm tree

Answer: (a)

7. In gymnosperms, the ovules typically are

(a) bitegmic and anatropous

(b) bitegmic and orthotropous

(d) unitegmic and anatropous

Answer: (c)

8. Tallest known gymnosperm is

(a) Pinus

(b) Ginkgo

(d) Ephedra

Answer: (c)

9. Inverted omega-shaped organization of vascular bundles is seen in

(a) cycas root

(b) cycas stem

(d) cycas rachis

Answer: (d)

10. Phanerogams without the ovaries are

(a) angiosperms

(b) pteridophytes

(d) all the above

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON PHYLUM ASCHELMINTHES

1. Ascaris has ____________________ cells in the excretory system

(a) Green gland

(b) Flame

(d) Renette

Answer: (d)

2. Syncytial epidermis is found in_______.

(a) Ascaris

(b) Metaphire

(d) Periplaneta

Answer: (a)

3. ______________ is known as a coelom derived from blastocoel

(a) Enterocoel

(b) Haemocoel

(d) Schizocoel

Answer: (c)

4. This is the basis on which female Ascaris can be identified.

(a) Two spicules found at the posterior end

(b) Presence of postanal and preanal papillae

(d) Common cloacal aperture

Answer: (c)

5. In Ascaris, the period of incubation outside the human body is

(a) More than 30 days

(b) 15-30 days

(d) 4-8 days

Answer: (b)

6. In the life cycle of Ascaris, the infective stage is

(a) Third lava

(b) Second larva

(d) Fertilized egg

Answer: (b)

7. The body cavity of Ascaris is pseudocoel as

(a) it is filled with pseudocoelomic fluid

(b) has very little parenchyma

(d) bound extremely by muscle layer and internally by intestines

Answer: (d)

8. Ascaris lumbricoides is found living in the intestine of

(a) Pig

(b) Homo sapiens

(d) Goat and sheep

Answer: (b)

9. The process of morphological differentiating male and female sexes is known as

(a) sexual dimorphism

(b) polymorphism

(d) none of the above

Answer: (a)

10. This has no alternate host

(a) Plasmodium vivax

(b) Tapeworm

(d) Ascaris lumbricoides

Answer: (d)

MCQ’S OF LAMARCKISM

1. This is an example of industrial melanism is

(a) Mutation

(b) Neo Darwinism

(d) Natural selection

Answer: (d)

2. Most likely, people who perform tough manual work can develop

(a) thick epidermis on their palms

(b) thick subcutaneous fat in their palms

(d) greater number of sweat pores in their hands

Answer: (a)

3. In Lamarck’s view, the key of organic evolution is that each progeny

(a) shows struggle for existence

(b) characters acquired by parental generation are inherited

(d) phylogeny is repeated in its ontogeny

Answer: (b)

4. 72 generations of Drosophila were kept in darkness by a scientist. Despite that, the first flies possessed eyes that were normal. This disapproves the theory of

(a) Acquired characters

(b) Synthetic theory

(d) use and disuse

Answer: (a)

5. This is a most popular example of Lamarck

(a) Primrose

(b) Snakes

(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer: (d)

6. The idea of use and disuse of organs was given by

(a) Lamarck

(b) Morgan

(d) Hugo de Vries

Answer: (a)

7. Acquired characteristics of Lamarck are not inherited and have an evolutionary value. Who gave this statement?

(a) Weismann

(b) Hugo de Vries

(d) Charles Darwin

Answer: (a)

8. Who stated this theory – organ in use will develop and if not used will weaken to turn vestigial

(a) Mendel

(b) De Vries

(d) Lamarck

Answer: (d)

9. Scientists regarded as Neo Lamarckists are

(a) Correns, Hugo de Vries and Tschermak

(b) August Weismann and T.H Morgan

(d) Kammerer and Mc Dougall

Answer: (d)

10. Germplasm theory against Lamarck’s principle was put forward by

(a) Darwin

(b) Lamarck

(d) Hugo de Vries

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON APOPTOSIS

1. This is an extracellular messenger of apoptosis

(a) tumor necrosis factor

(b) serine

(d) ribozyme

Answer: (a)

2. This is concerned with the intrinsic pathway of apoptosis

(a) cytochrome d

(b) cytochrome c

(d) cytochrome a

Answer: (b)

3. Apoptotic bodies can be recognized with the presence of these on the surface

(a) phosphatidyl tyrosine

(b) phosphatidylinositol

(d) phosphatidylserine

Answer: (d)

4. Apoptotic cells detach due to the inactivation of this

(a) PKC

(b) PKB

(d) FAK

Answer: (d)

5. Shrinking of the nucleus is caused when this inactivates

(a) gelsolin

(b) tubulin

(d) lamin

Answer: (d)

6. This cell organelle participates actively in animal apoptosis

(a) nucleus

(b) vacuoles

(d) chloroplast

Answer: (c)

7. This can stimulate cytochrome release from mitochondria

(a) Akt

(b) Bid

(d) Smac

Answer: (b)

8. This cannot be killed by apoptosis

(a) immune cells

(b) cells with DNA damage

(d) a cell infected with viruses

Answer: (c)

9. This is an anti-apoptotic protein

(a) Bim

(b) Bcl-Xs

(d) NOXA

Answer: (c)

10. This is an active cell death process

(a) necrosis

(b) lysis

(d) senescence

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON MANURES AND FERTILIZERS

1. Green manure plants are

(a) Poaceae

(b) Solanaceae

(d) Compositae

Answer: (c)

2. This chemical fertilizer is essential for better rhizobial nitrogen fixation

(a) calcium

(b) potassium

(d) phosphorus

Answer: (d)

3. Azolla is used as a biofertilizer as it possesses

(a) humus in large quantities

(b) rhizobium

(d) cyanobacteria

Answer: (d)

4. Pyrethrin is obtained from

(a) Chrysanthemum cinerariifolium

(b) Azadirachta indica

(d) Tagetes erecta

Answer: (a)

5. This is not included in organic farming

(a) crop rotation

(b) chemical fertilizer

(d) compost and farmyard manures

Answer: (b)

6. Appropriate use of cow dung is made in

(a) medicine

(b) fuel

(d) building/construction material

Answer: (c)

7. In children, this disease is caused due to excess nitrate fertilizers usage

(a) mumps

(b) jaundice

(d) methaemoglobinaemia

Answer: (d)

8. For paddy, the best fertilizer is

(a) Bacillus polymyxa

(b) Bacillus megaterium

(d) Rhizobium meliloti

Answer: (c)

9. Composted manure is formed from

(a) farm and household refuse

(b) animal refuse and rotten vegetables

(d) green and farmyard manure

Answer: (b)

10. Green manure is

(a) Maize

(b) Rice

(d) Sesbania

Answer: (d)

MCQ’S ON MITOCHONDRIA

1. Cristae in mitochondria serves as sites for

(a) oxidation reduction reaction

(b) protein synthesis

(d) flavoproteins are phosphorylated

Answer: (a)

2. Pick the incorrect statement

(a) mitochondrial DNA is known as mtDNA

(b) mitochondria is the powerhouse of the cell

(d) mitochondria is the site for krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation

Answer: (c)

3. Inner membrane of mitochondria is rich in phospholipid _______

(a) phosphatidylserine

(b) phosphatidylinositol

(d) cardiolipin

Answer: (d)

4. Mt DNA is

(a) simple single stranded circular DNA molecule

(b) simple double stranded circular DNA molecule

(d) simple single stranded linear DNA molecule

Answer: (b)

5. Inner mitochondrial membrane has

(a) cytochrome oxidase complex

(b) b-c 1 complex

(d) all of the above

Answer: (d)

6. This is not a function of mitochondria

(a) fatty acid breakdown

(b) non-shivering thermogenesis

(d) glycolysis and associated ATP production

Answer: (d)

7. This statement is incorrect about mitochondrial membrane

(a) outer membrane is permeable to all molecule types

(b) outer membrane is resembles a sieve

(d) none of these

Answer: (c)

8. Oxysomes of F0-F1 particles take place on

(a) Chloroplast surface

(b) Thylakoid

(d) Mitochondrial surface

Answer: (c)

9. Pick the incorrect statement

(a) generally, chloroplasts are larger than mitochondria

(b) mitochondria and chloroplasts both have DNA

(d) mitochondria and chloroplasts both have an internal compartment, the thylakoid space bound by thylakoid membrane

Answer: (d)

10. Typically, the inner membrane of mitochondria is highly convoluted to form a series of infolding known as

(a) grana

(b) thylakoids

(d) lamellae

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON GREENHOUSE EFFECT

1. These are features of higher energy level and shorter wavelengths

(a) infrared radiation

(b) alpha radiation

(d) ultraviolet radiation

Answer: (d)

2. The normal greenhouse effect is essential for sustenance of life on Earth as it helps in maintaining the average temperature of the earth to

(a) 15 ℃

(b) 33 ℃

(d) 50 ℃

Answer: (a)

3. The wavelength of infrared radiations is

(a) shorter

(b) longer

(d) zero

Answer: (b)

4. Greenhouse gases present in a very high quantity is

(a) ethane

(b) carbon dioxide

(d) methane

Answer: (b)

5. Gas molecules absorbing thermal infrared radiation and present in large quantity to change the climate system is known as

(a) ozone gases

(b) beta radiations

(d) greenhouse gases

Answer: (d)

6. Burning of fossil fuels

(a) increased oxygen level

(b) increases greenhouse gases

(d) increased ethane level

Answer: (b)

7. This is the most potent greenhouse gas in terms of efficiency

(a) N2O

(b) CFC

(d) CH4

Answer: (b)

8. This statement is false about the greenhouse effect

(a) life on the earth is possible due to the greenhouse effect

(b) the greenhouse effect is a natural process that maintains the earth’s temperature

(d) increased emission of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere increases earth’s temperature

Answer: (c)

9. The one which is not considered as naturally occurring greenhouse gas is

(a) CFCs

(b) methane

(d) nitrous oxide

Answer: (a)

10. The relative contribution of various greenhouse gases to total global warming will not be

(a) CFCs – 14%

(b) N2O – 12%

(d) Methane – 20%

Answer: (b)

MCQ’S ON PANCREAS

1. Inhibition of gastric secretions is brought about by

(a) GIP

(b) Cholecystokinin

(d) Pancreozymin

Answer: (a)

2. One of the constituents of the pancreatic juice while poured into the duodenum in humans is

(a) trypsin

(b) enterokinase

(d) chymotrypsin

Answer: (c)

3. Pancreatitis can be produced by the following drug

(a) Ciprofloxacin

(b) Nalidixic acid

(d) L-Asparaginase

Answer: (d)

4. Gasless abdomen in X-ray is a sign of

(a) Ulcerative colitis

(b) Acute pancreatitis

(d) Necrotizing enterocolitis

Answer: (b)

5. This is a major product of chief cells

(a) Mucus

(b) Vitamin B12

(d) HCl

Answer: (c)

6. The islets of Langerhans are found in

(a) Stomach

(b) Alimentary canal

(d) Liver

Answer: (c)

7. Secretion of pancreatic juice is triggered by

(a) secretin

(b) enterogastrone

(d) enterokinase

Answer: (a)

8. This is a common passage for bile and pancreatic juice

(a) stomach

(b) ampulla

(d) duct of wirsung

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Also referred to as the Ampulla of Vater, the Hepato-pancreatic duct is formed by the coming together of the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct. Consequently, this serves as the common passage for the pancreatic juice and bile.

9. Pancreas is not

(a) Elongated organ

(b) Compound

(d) Located above duodenum

Answer: (d)

10. This is most diagnostic investigation for acute pancreatitis

(a) Serum LDH

(b) Serum amylase

(d) Serum P-isoamylase

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON GLOBAL WARMING

1. This process is functional in removing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere

(a) lightning

(b) deforestation

(d) photosynthesis

Answer: (d)

2. Mainly, Ozonosphere is depleted by

(a) CFCs

(b) excess CO2

(d) excess CO

Answer: (a)

3. This is not a possible adverse effect of global warming

(a) sea level rise

(b) an increase of UVB radiation

(d) extraordinary weather patterns

Answer: (b)

4. Correct descending order of relative contribution of various greenhouse gases to total global warming is

(a) carbon dioxide; methane; CFCs; nitrous oxide

(b) carbon dioxide; methane; nitrous oxide; CFCs

(d) carbon dioxide; CFCs; methane; nitrous oxide

Answer: (a)

5. CFCs have a continuing effect on the ozone layer as

(a) they are efficiently absorbed by atmospheric water vapours

(b) they are being produced in increasing amounts all over the world

(d) Cl atoms formed by them only act as catalysts in reactions causing degradation of the ozone

Answer: (d)

6. CFCs are crucial in global warming along with their role in ozone depletion as it

(a) is known for destroying ozone, which cools the earth

(b) blocks ultraviolet-B radiation

(d) absorbs earthshine in 10 micron region

Answer: (d)

7. Which of the following is not a major greenhouse gas?

(a) ozone

(b) water vapour

(d) carbon dioxide

Answer: (a)

8. Ultraviolet radiations from sunlight cause a reaction producing

(a) carbon monoxide

(b) ozone

(d) sulphur dioxide

Answer: (b)

9. Surplus of atmospheric carbon dioxide causes an increase in the greenhouse effect as carbon dioxide

(a) is opaque to infrared rays

(b) is not opaque to infrared rays

(d) reduce atmospheric pressure

Answer: (a)

10. Checking of re radiating heat by atmospheric carbon dioxide, dust, methane, ozone is known as

(a) solar effect

(b) radioactive effect

(d) greenhouse effect

Answer: (d)

MCQ’S ON ECOLOGICAL SUCCESSION

1. In ecological succession, the intermediate developmental phase is known as

(a) ecesis

(b) climax

(d) sere

Answer: (d)

2. This is true about secondary succession

(a) follows primary succession

(b) takes place on a deforested site

(d) begins on a bare rock

Answer: (b)

3. Lithosphere serves as a reservoir for

(a) nitrogen cycles

(b) carbon cycles

(d) phosphorus cycles

Answer: (d)

4. This is not a climax vegetation

(a) grasses

(b) savannah

(d) hydrophytes

Answer: (d)

5. This about ecological succession is incorrect

(a) food chain relationships become more complex

(b) species diversity increases as succession proceeds

(d) is a random process

Answer: (d)

6. An example of plants occupying the second stage of hydrosere is

(a) Salix

(b) Vallisneria

(d) Typha

Answer: (b)

7. On the sand, ecological succession is

(a) halosere

(b) xerosere

(d) psammosere

Answer: (d)

8. Order of basic processes involved in succession is

(a) invasion -> stabilization -> completion and coaction -> reaction -> nudation

(b) nudation -> stabilization -> completion and coaction -> invasion -> reaction

(d) nudation -> invasion -> completion and coaction -> reaction -> stabilization

Answer: (d)

9. Process of the successful establishment of species in a new area is known as

(a) climax

(b) sere

(d) invasion

Answer: (c)

10. In ecological succession, the final stable community is known as

(a) climax community

(b) ultimate community

(d) seral community

Answer: (a)

MCQ’S ON SKELETAL TISSUE

1. Tendons and ligaments are ________.

(a) Muscular tissue

(b) Connective tissue

(d) Fibrous connective tissue

Answer: (d)

2. Skeletal muscle bundles are held together by a common connective tissue layer known as _______.

(a) Fascia

(b) Perimysium

(d) Endomysium

Answer: (a)

3. Composition of bone marrow is_______.

(a) Adipose tissue

(b) Adipose, areolar tissue and blood

(d) Adipose tissue and fibroblasts

Answer: (b)

4. The formation of erythrocytes in foetus takes place in_________.

(a) Redbone marrow

(b) Sarcoplasm

(d) Blood

Answer: (c)

5. Nasal septum gets damaged. Its recovery requires cartilage known as_______.

(a) Elastic cartilage

(b) Fibrous cartilage

(d) Hyaline cartilage

Answer: (d)

6. The membrane that surrounds the bone is known as as________.

(a) Pericardium

(b) Periosteum

(d) Endosteum

Answer: (b)

7. Mammalian pinna is supported by ________.

(a) Elastic cartilage

(b) Hyaline cartilage

(d) Calcified cartilage

Answer: (a)

8. Hyaline cartilage does not have__________.

(a) Blood capillaries

(b) Cells

(d) Fibres

Answer: (d)

9. Major inorganic components of vertebrate bone are______.

(a) Potassium hydroxide

(b) Calcium phosphate

(d) None of the above

Answer: (b)

10. Haversian canals occur in_______.

(a) Humerus

(b) Scapula

(d) Clavicle

Answer: (a)

MCQ’S ON INFERTILITY

1. This is a major reason for infertility in women

(a) Anovulation

(b) Weight

(d) All of these

Answer: (d)

2. Boosting the intake of _________ can help women trying to conceive

(a) Potassium

(b) Folic acid

(d) Nickel

Answer: (b)

3. Nerve supply of ovary is through

(a) Sacral fibers

(b) Pudendal nerve

(d) none of the above

Answer: (c)

4. Menstrual phase bleeding is due to

(a) necrosin

(b) fibrinolysis

(d) vasoconstriction and ischaemia

Answer: (d)

5. Fertility in women is impaired by

(a) Hernia

(b) High blood pressure

(d) Gallstones

Answer: (c)

6. Infertility is when a couple fails to conceive after

(a) 4 years of unprotected sex

(b) 3years of unprotected sex

(d) 1 year of unprotected sex

Answer: (d)

7. Procedures used to treat infertility are

(a) ICSI – Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection

(b) IVF – In Vitro Fertilization

(d) All of these

Answer: (d)

8. Right ovarian artery arises from

(a) Uterine artery

(b) Aorta

(d) Common iliac artery

Answer: (b)

9. This condition impairs infertility

(a) PCOD

(b) Fibroids

(d) All of these

Answer: (d)

10. In women, this sexually transmitted disease can result in infertility

(a) Human papillomavirus (HPV)

(b) Pelvic inflammatory disease

(d) None of the above

Answer: (b)

MCQ’S OF MORPHOLOGY OF RAT

1. Which of the following is the scientific name for the brown rat?

(a) Rattus rattus

(b) Rattus meltada

(d) Bandicota bengalensis

Answer: (c)

2. Which of the following are the parts of the limb of a rat from the centre to the distal end?

(a) Autopodium, zeugopodium and stylopodium

(b) Zeugopodium, autopodium and stylopodium

(d) Stylopodium, autopodium and zeugopodium

Answer: (c)

3. Scales in rats are present on______.

(a) Tail

(b) Head

(d) Hindlimbs

Answer: (a)

4. These teeth are not found in rats_______.

(a) Incisors and molars

(b) Canines and molars

(d) Incisors and premolars

Answer: (c)

5. Diastema is found in

(a) Man

(b) Rat

(d) None of the above

Answer: (b)

6. Which of the following statement is true about the function of Vibrissae?

(a) Tactile

(b) Auditory

(d) Olfactory

Answer: (a)

7. Which of the following organ is present in a rat and not in a frog?

(a) Ileum

(b) Stomach

(d) Duodenum

Answer: (b)

8. Which of the following is the largest gland in the body of a mammal?

(a) Pituitary

(b) Pancreas

(d) Thyroid

Answer: (c)

9. Which of the following is the important mammalian character of a rat?

(a) Hair

(b) Pinna

(d) Mammary glands

Answer: (d)

10. Which of the following is a close-set hair covering a rat’s body?

(a) Pili tactiles

(b) Muzzle

(d) Vibrissae

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON VASCULAR TISSUE

1. Lymph differs from blood in having ________.

(a) Much more of water content

(b) No WBC

(d) No protein

Answer: (c)

2. What happens to the red blood cells when it is kept in 0.8% NaCl?

(a) Burst

(b) Shrink

(d) None of the above

Answer: (c)

3. Division of White Blood Cells takes place by_______.

(a) Meiosis

(b) Amitosis

(d) None of the above

Answer: (d)

4. Least constancy of shape is exhibited by_______.

(a) Blood platelets

(b) Epithelial Cells

(d) Red blood Cells

Answer: (c)

5. Which of the following statement is true about the Camel’s erythrocytes?

(a) Oval and nucleated

(b) Oval and non-nucleated

(d) Circular, non-nucleated and biconcave

Answer: (a)

6. In adults, Red blood Cells is formed in ________.

(a) The liver

(b) The thymus

(d) The bone marrow of long bones

Answer: (d)

7. What is the average life span of human Red blood Cells?

(a) 90 days

(b) 100 days

(d) None of the above

Answer: (c)

8. When the count of white blood cells drops below the optimum level of blood it is known as ________?

(a) Anaemia

(b) Leukopenia

(d) All of the above

Answer: (b)

9. The protein content is the highest in the lymphatics of ________.

(a) Liver

(b) Kidney

(d) All the above

Answer: (a)

10. An abnormal rise in the number of RBC count is known as________.

(a) Polycythemia

(b) Anaemia

(d) All the above

Answer: (a)

MCQ’S ON CONSERVATION OF NATURAL RESOURCES

1. Soil conservation is the process where

(a) soil is aerated

(b) soil is protected against loss

(d) soil erosion is allowed

Answer: (b)

2. Which of the following is an anti-forest conservation activity?

(a) preservation of wild animals

(b) preservation of fires

(d) economy in lumbering

Answer: (c)

3. Soil erosion can be prevented by

(a) Afforestation

(b) overgrazing

(d) removal of vegetation

Answer: (a)

4. The energy produced by the hydel-power plant is

(a) Non-polluting and non-renewable

(b) Polluting and non-renewable

(d) Polluting and renewable

Answer: (c)

5. This is an example of non-polluting renewable type of energy

(a) tidal

(b) wind

(d) all of these

Answer: (d)

6. This group consists of non-renewable organic resources

(a) Water, air and minerals

(b) natural gas, oil and coal

(d) sand, air and clay

Answer: (b)

7. Which one represents the regulative function of forests?

(a) storage and release of gases

(b) production of essential oils

(d) conservation of water and soil

Answer: (a)

8. In many industries, tin, steel and copper are being substituted by

(a) ceramics

(b) high-strength glass fibres

(d) all of these

Answer: (d)

9. Demersal fish is obtained from

(a) open sea

(b) sea bottom

(d) lakes

Answer: (b)

10. Deforestation may reduce the chances of

(a) frequent landslides

(b) erosion of surface soil

(d) frequent cyclones

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON IMPLANTATION AND GASTRULATION

1. Implantation is the process of__________.

(a) Attachment of blastocyst to the uterine wall

(b) Egg movement

(d) Egg fertilization

Answer: (a)

2. Which of the following embryo has a parasitic mode of nutrition?

(a) Mammalian embryo

(b) Bird’s embryo

(d) Reptilian embryo

Answer: (a)

3. which of the following events is likely to take place, if the nuclei from an 8-celled stage of an embryo are transplanted into enucleated eggs?

(a) Recipient egg dies

(b) Donor nuclei die in the new environment

(d) Formation of the viable embryo in the recipient eggs

Answer: (d)

4. Egg implantation is followed by______.

(a) Parturition

(b) Copulation

(d) Gestation

Answer: (d)

5. Pseudopregnancy is a physiological condition, comparable to normal pregnancy except that there is no__________.

(a) endometrial changes

(b) developing foetus

(d) developing ovum

Answer: (b)
6. Which of the following organ is formed during gastrulation?

(a) Gill

(b) Vitelline membrane

(d) Archenteron

Answer: (d)

7. Mesoderm gives rise to all the structures except ______.

(a) Gonads

(b) Circulatory system

(d) Muscular system

Answer: (c)

8. In human females, the fertilized eggs get implanted in the uterus after ________.

(a) One month of fertilization

(b) Two months of fertilization

(d) Three weeks of fertilization

Answer: (c)

9. Brain, nerve cells and spinal cord or the central nervous system develops from embryonic ______.

(a) Mesoderm

(b) Endoderm

(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer: (c)

10. Which of the following options contains only the mesodermal structures?

(a) Heart, blood, bones, notochord

(b) Heart, blood, muscles, liver

(d) Liver, heart, bones, blood

Answer: (a)

MCQ’S ON MALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM

1. There is a connective tissue cord extending between the testis and abdominal wall known as

(a) mesenteric cord

(b) gubernaculum

(d) spermatic cord

Answer: (d)

2. Which of these is an accessory reproductive gland in male mammals

(a) Inguinal gland

(b) Prostate gland

(d) Gastric gland

Answer: (b)

3. There are some special types of cells present in the seminiferous tubules known as Sertoli cells which are

(a) somatic cells

(b) germinal cells

(d) reproductive cells

Answer: (c)

4. Seminiferous tubules develop central lumen after

(a) Old age

(b) Prepuberal time

(d) Puberty

Answer: (d)

5. Another name for Bulbourethral gland is

(a) Meibomian gland

(b) Prostate gland

(d) Cowper’s gland

Answer: (d)

6. In man, Cryptorchidism is the condition when

(a) testes do not descent into the scrotum

(b) there are two testes in each scrotum

(d) testis enlarges in the scrotum

Answer: (a)
7. The elastic tissue which connects the cauda epididymis to the scrotal sac is

(a) Caput epididymis

(b) Scrotal ligament

(d) Tendinous cord

Answer: (c)

8. By the contraction of the spermatic cord, the testis of man are not taken to the abdominal cavity due to this structure

(a) fat bodies and gubernaculum present over the testis

(b) attachment of testis by gubernaculum to the scrotal sac only

(d) both (b) and (c)

Answer: (b)

9. The seminiferous tubules of the testis are lined by the germinal epithelium consisting of

(a) spermatids

(b) cells of Sertoli

(d) spermatocytes

Answer: (b)

10. These cells of the testes secrete testosterone

(a) Sertoli cells

(b) cells of germinal epithelium

(d) secondary spermatocytes

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON CLEAVAGE BIOLOGY

1. The fertilized egg divides by the process of

(a) Oogenesis

(b) Cleavage

(d) Invagination

Answer: (b)

2. If an unfertilized egg is pricked with a microneedle, it will

(a) transform into a tadpole at a faster rate

(b) die immediately

(d) start dividing

Answer: (d)

3. A freshly unfertilized egg of hen contains

(a) 10,000 cells

(b) 1,000 cells

(d) one cell

Answer: (d)

4. How many cleavages are completed in the 16-celled stage of an egg?

(a) 12

(b) 8

(d) 3

Answer: (c)

5. The spindle in the determinate cleavage is

(a) Horizontal

(b) Oblique

(d) Sub-equatorial

Answer: (b)
6. This is also known as meroblastic cleavage

(a) Partial

(b) Unequal holoblastic

(d) Superficial

Answer: (a)

7. The type of cleavage found in insects

(a) Holoblastic

(b) Discoidal

(d) Meroblastic

Answer: (c)

8. Discoidal and superficial are which types of cleavage?

(a) Unequal holoblastic

(b) equal holoblastic

(d) Meroblastic

Answer: (d)

9. If the first cleavage furrow divides zygote completely into two, the cleavage type is

(a) meroblastic

(b) holoblastic

(d) radial

Answer: (b)

10. The only human system that is derived from all the three germ layers is

(a) Nervous system

(b) Digestive system

(d) Excretory system

Answer: (b)

MCQ’S ON FEMALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM

1. Graafian follicle are characteristically found in the

(a) ovary of frog

(b) testis of mammal

(d) ovary of mammal

Answer: (d)

2. In female mammals, Bartholin’s glands open into the

(a) fallopian tubes and release a secretion which makes sperms motile

(b) uterus and release a lubricating fluid during the birth of young ones

(d) vestibule and release a lubricating fluid in the vagina

Answer: (d)

3. After ovulation, the Graafian follicle becomes an endocrine organ called

(a) fibrin

(b) ovarian tube

(d) corpus luteum

Answer: (d)

4. The nutritive medium for the ejaculated sperms is given by

(a) fallopian tube

(b) vaginal fluid

(d) uterine lining

Answer: (c)

5. The stroma of the ovary consists of blood vessels, nerves, muscle fibres and a type of protein called

(a) Fibrin

(b) Collagen

(d) Globulin

Answer: (b)
6. Layer of cells immediately surrounding the ovum but outside the zona pellucida is called as

(a) germinal epithelium

(b) corona radiata

(d) membrana granulosa

Answer: (b)

7. Corpus luteum is the source of secretion of

(a) LH

(b) Estradiol

(d) Progesterone

Answer: (d)

8. The membrane investing the ovum just outside the membrana granulosa is

(a) theca interna

(b) discus proligerus

(d) vitelline membrane

Answer: (a)

9. In the female rabbit, the expanded proximal part of the oviduct is known as

(a) fimbriated funnel

(b) uterus

(d) vestibule

Answer: (b)

10. If after ovulation, pregnancy does not take place, then the corpus luteum

(a) produces lot of relaxin and oxytocin

(b) degenerates in a short time

(d) becomes active and secretes a lot of LH and FSH

Answer: (b)

MCQ’S ON FERTILIZATION

1. In female mammals, Bartholin’s glands open into the

(a) Fallopian tubes and release a secretion which makes sperms motile

(b) uterus and release a lubricating fluid during the birth of young ones

(d) urinary bladder and assist in release of urine

Answer: (c)

2. This is a minute cell which separates from the animal egg during maturation is known as

(a) Primary oogonia

(b) secondary oogonia

(d) polar bodies

Answer: (d)

3. The nutritive medium for the ejaculated sperms is given by

(a) fallopian tube

(b) uterine lining

(d) vaginal fluid

Answer: (c)

4. This helps in the penetration of the egg by the sperm

(a) fertilization membrane

(b) antifertilizin

(d) fertilizin

Answer: (c)
5. In a man, sperms move after ejaculation at a rate of nearly

(a) 2 to 4 inches/minute

(b) 2 to 4 mm/minute

(d) 2 to 4 feet/minute

Answer: (b)
6. Sperm lysin, the enzymatic substance produced by sperms in mammals is known as

(a) cryanogamone

(b) hyaluronic acid

(d) hyaluronidase

Answer: (d)

7. Egg development without fertilization is known as

(a) Parthenogenesis

(b) Metagenesis

(d) Oogenesis

Answer: (a)

8. After a sperm has penetrated an ovum in the process of fertilization, entry of further sperms is prevented by

(a) condensation of yolk

(b) development of the vitelline membrane

(d) development of the pigment coat

Answer: (c)

9. In the process of fertilization, this is true

(a) the entry of sperm activates the egg for completing meiosis

(b) only one sperm reaches the egg and enters it

(d) two haploid nuclei fuse and immediately divide to produce two nuclei, which are again haploid

Answer: (a)

10. In rabbits, humans and other placental mammals, fertilization occurs in

(a) vagina

(b) ovary

(d) uterus

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON ENERGY REQUIREMENT

1. The energy balance in nutrition refers to the

(a) equilibrium between energy intake and energy expenditure

(b) equilibrium of rate of reduction

(d) amount of starch in take

Answer: (a)

2. This provides the greatest energy value per gram of nutrient

(a) protein

(b) fat

(d) water

Answer: (b)

3. The following cooking processes does not rely on coagulation taking place

(a) making yoghurt

(b) boiling an egg

(d) frying chips

Answer: (d)

4. The everyday dietary requirement of an average adult active moderately is approximately

(a) 1000 kcal

(b) 2500 kcal

(d) 8000 kcal

Answer: (b)

5. Caloric values for proteins, carbohydrates and fats are

(a) 80 cal, 40 cal, and 100 cal respectively

(b) 5.65 cal, 4.1 cal, and 9.45 cal respectively

(d) 4.68 cal, 50 cal and 80 cal respectively

Answer: (b)

6. Among the energy values of nutrients, 9.3 calories is that of

(a) Carbohydrate

(b) Proteins

(d) Fats

Answer: (d)

7. What is the sequence in which organic compounds are used by the body during prolonged fasting

(a) Carbohydrates first, proteins and then lipids

(b) Carbohydrates first, lipids and then proteins

(d) Fats first, carbohydrates and then proteins

Answer: (b)

8. An approximate of how much protein does an average adult male require each day?

(a) 240g

(b) 24g

(d) 72g

Answer: (d)

9. Mammals can drink water and also derive it from

(a) conversion of oxyhaemoglobin to haemoglobin

(b) breakdown of glycogen into glucose

(d) saliva secretion

Answer: (c)

10. Cooking starch in moist conditions may

(a) oxidize it

(b) caramelize it

(d) coagulate it

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON INTERNAL STRUCTURE OF ROOT STEM AND LEAF

1. Well-developed pith is found in

(a) Monocot root and Dicot stem

(b) Dicot root and Dicot stem

(d) Dicot and Monocot stems

Answer: (a)

2. In monocot leaf

(a) Veins form a network

(b) Mesophyll is not differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma

(d) Bulliform cells are absent from epidermis

Answer: (b)

3. In orchids, Velamen tissues is found in

(a) Leaves

(b) Root

(d) Shoot

Answer: (b)

4. Polyarch and exarch vascular bundles occur in

(a) Dicot stem

(b) Monocot stem

(d) Monocot root

Answer: (d)
5. Collenchymatous hypodermis is characteristics of

(a) Hydrophytes

(b) Monocot and dicot stem

(d) Dicot stem

Answer: (d)

6. The lacunae in the vascular bundles of monocot stem is

(a) Metaxylem

(b) A mucilage canal

(d) A large sized protoxylem

Answer: (c)

7. The protoxylem in its midrid bundle in a vertical section of a dorsiventral leaf

(a) is not distinct

(b) faces the ventral epidermis of the leaf

(d) is surrounded by metaxylem

Answer: (c)

8. This is not a characteristic feature of anatomy of dicotyledonous root

(a) Pith little or absent

(b) Secondary growth

(d) Vascular bundles 15-20

Answer: (d)

9. Vascular bundles are scattered in

(a) Dicot stem

(b) Dicot root

(d) Monocot stem

Answer: (d)

10. The correct situation of mesophyll in isobilateral grass leaf is shown by

(a) Palisade along both the surface

(b) Undifferentiated mesophyll

(d) Palisade towards adaxial surface

Answer: (b)

MCQ’S ON SALIVARY GLANDS

1. Animals eating own faecal matter are

(a) Detritivorous

(b) Coprophagous

(d) Sanguivorous

Answer: (b)

2. Microphagial nutrition takes place in

(a) Hydra

(b) Paramecium

(d) Euglena

Answer: (b)

3. Osmotrophy is found in

(a) Taenia

(b) Pila

(d) Asterias

Answer: (a)

4. The alimentary canal is typically longer in

(a) herbivores

(b) carnivores

(d) omnivores

Answer: (a)

5. The duct of Bartholin is linked with

(a) sublingual glands

(b) maxillary glands

(d) infraorbital glands

Answer: (a)

6. Largest salivary gland is

(a) submaxillary

(b) parotid

(d) infraorbital

Answer: (b)

7. In rabbits, the number of salivary glands present are

(a) 5 pairs

(b) 4 pairs

(d) 2 pairs

Answer: (b)

8. Tongue is attached to the floor of buccal cavity by

(a) falciform ligament

(b) frenulum

(d) mesentery

Answer: (b)

9. Salivary glands are absent in

(a) Musca domestica

(b) Blatta orientalis

(d) Rana hexadactyla

Answer: (d)

10. Nuhn’s glands are present on

(a) stomach

(b) tongue

(d) intestine

Answer: (b)

MCQ’S ON HORMONAL CONTROL DIGESTION

1. _________regulates the enzymatic quantity in pancreatic juice.

(a) Cholecystokinin

(b) Gastrin

(d) Secretin

Answer: (c)

2. In a mammal, the release of pancreatic juice from the pancreas is triggered by ______.

(a) Cholecystokinin

(b) Trypsinogen

(d) Enterokinase

Answer: (c)

3. Which of the following secretes secretin hormone?

(a) Oesophagus

(b) Ileum

(d) Stomach

Answer: (c)

4. The hormone gastrin is secreted by_______.

(a) Pancreas

(b) Liver

(d) Intestine

Answer: (c)

5. Secretion of gastric juice is controlled by ______.

(a) Cholecystokinin

(b) Gastrin

(d) None of the above

Answer: (b)

6. Which of the following statement about Enterogastrone?

(a) The hormone secreted by the intestinal mucosa

(b) The hormone secreted by mucosa

(d) The hormone secreted by the gastric mucosa

Answer: (a)

7. Juice containing sodium glycocholate is secreted under the influence of _______.

(a) Enterogastrone

(b) Cholecystokinin

(d) Secretin

Answer: (b)

8. Gall bladder contractions and Pancreatic secretion are triggered by_______

(a) Enterogastrone

(b) Enterocrinin

(d) Cholecystokinin

Answer: (d)

9. Cholecystokinin hormone which is released from the intestinal epithelium triggers___.

(a) Release of bile from the gallbladder

(b) Conversion of protein to peptones

(d) Secretion of pancreatic juice

Answer: (a)

10. The hormone secretin triggers ______.
(a) Gallbladder

(b) Pancreas

(d) Stomach

Answer: (b)

MCQ’S ON DISEASES CAUSED BY BACTERIA

1. Diseases caused due to the inflammation of the vermiform appendix of the digestive system is known as ________.

(a) Appendectomy

(b) Appendicitis

(d) Amoebic dysentery

Answer: (b)

2. Which of the following is a set of bacterial diseases?

(a) Malaria, poliomyelitis, mumps

(b) Mumps, cholera, typhoid

(d) Measles, Tuberculosis, Tetanus

Answer: (c)

3. In Ayurveda, the __________disease is called as Vishuchika ?

(a) Chickenpox

(b) Smallpox

(d) Diphtheria

Answer: (c)

4. Vibrio cholerae is a motile bacteria, which belong to the group of _______.

(a) Lophotrichous

(b) Peritrichous

(d) Amphitrichous

Answer: (c)

5. ‘Syphilis’, a sexually transmitted disease is caused by ________.

(a) Vibrio

(b) Leptospira

(d) Pasteurella

Answer: (c)

6. Which of the following is the symptom of Diphtheria?

(a) Bleeding gum

(b) Hydrophobia

(d) Excessive watering

Answer: (c)

7. Widal test is used for the susceptibility of ________.

(a) Typhoid

(b) Cholera

(d) Cholera

Answer: (a)

8. Which of the following pathogens causes Tuberculosis _________.

(a) Virus

(b) Bacterium

(d) Malnutrition

Answer: (b)

9. Which of the following pathogens causes cholera in humans?

(a) Fungi

(b) Bacteria

(d) Protozoan

Answer: (b)

10. Which of the following pathogens causes Leprosy in humans?

(a) Salmonella

(b) Mycobacterium

(d) Monocystis

Answer: (b)

MCQ’S ON DISEASES CAUSED BY VIRUSES

1. The non-living characteristic of viruses is

(a) ability to multiply only inside the host

(b) ability to undergo mutation

(d) ability to cause diseases in the host

Answer: (c)

2. This virus contains both DNA and RNA

(a) Polio virus

(b) Herpes virus

(d) Leukovirus

Answer: (d)

3. The region in the body where polio virus multiplies is

(a) Muscle cells

(b) Nerve cells

(d) None of the above

Answer: (c)

4. Interferons curb infection of

(a) Fungi

(b) Bacteria

(d) None of these

Answer: (d)

5. This virus, for the first time, was synthesized in the form of non-living crystals

(a) Pox virus

(b) Flu virus

(d) Bacteriophage

Answer: (c)

6. Causative of Chickenpox is

(a) Bacteriophage T-2

(b) Varicella virus

(d) Adenovirus

Answer: (b)

7. Tetanus germs produce a toxin. It affects

(a) jaw bones

(b) involuntary muscles

(d) both voluntary and involuntary muscles

Answer: (c)

8. This is a viral disease

(a) Rickets

(b) Measles

(d) Syphilis

Answer: (b)

9. This is a communicable disease

(a) Rabies

(b) Cancer

(d) Phenylketonuria

Answer: (a)

10. Hydrophobia or rabies is a disease caused by

(a) Protozoan

(b) Nematode

(d) Helminth

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON DIABETES MELLITUS AND CARDIOVASCULAR DISEASES

Q. This statement regarding Angina is true

(a) blood flow is unaffected

(b) most common in children

(d) heart stops beating

Answer: (c)

Q. Pick the wrongly matched pair

(a) heart failure – not enough blood supply to the body

(b) angina pectoris – acute chest pain

(d) heart attack – not enough blood supply to cardiac muscles

Answer: (c)

Q. This disease is not related to the circulatory system

(a) Diabetes mellitus

(b) Hypertension

(d) Coronary thrombosis

Answer: (c)

Q. The probable cause of Erythroblastosis fetalis can be

(a) Bleeding

(b) Haemophilia

(d) Diapedesis

Answer: (c)

Q. This can help on the diagnosis of the genetic basis of a disorder

(a) PCR

(b) ELISA

(d) NMR

Answer: (a)

Q. This measure does not help to prevent diabetes complications

(a) controlling blood lipids and blood pressure

(b) Prompt detection of diabetic eye and kidney disease

(d) controlling blood glucose

Answer: (c)

Q. The disease as a result of prolonged clotting is due to lack of plasma thromboplastin component (PTC) necessary to the formation of thromboplastin, is

(a) Haemophilia

(b) Hypoprothrombinemia

(d) Stuart disease

Answer: (c)

Q. This diabetes drug acts by decreasing the amount of glucose produced by the liver

(a) Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

(b) Sulfonylureas

(d) Meglitinides

Answer: (c)

Q. Presence of RBC in urine is known as

(a) Proteinuria

(b) Hematuria

(d) Nephritis

Answer: (b)

Q. The disease characterized by extreme muscle weakness and brownish pigmentation of the buccal cavity and skin is

(a) Grave’s disease

(b) Myxoedema

(d) Cushing’s disease

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON DISEASES CAUSED BY PROTOZOA

Q. An important drug used for the treatment of malaria – Quinine is extracted from

(a) Red ants

(b) Calyx of cinnamon

(d) Bark of Cinchona

Answer: (d)

Q. Entamoeba gingivalis found in the buccal cavity of man causes

(a) No disease

(b) Pyorrhoea

(d) Amoebic dysentery

Answer: (a)

Q. “Trypanosomiasis” is transmitted by or carrier of Trypanosoma in man is

(a) Fruit fly

(b) Tse-tse fly

(d) Mayfly

Answer: (b)

Q. The malignant tertian malaria is caused by

(a) Plasmodium malariae

(b) Plasmodium ovale

(d) Plasmodium vivax

Answer: (c)
Q. Which of the following parasites is responsible for the cause of African sleeping sickness or Gambiense fever?

(a) Leishmania

(b) Trypanosoma

(d) Trichomonas

Answer: (b)

Q. Tse-tse fly is a vector for sleeping sickness. Which of the following parasite transmits the infective stage?

(a) Wuchereria bancrofti

(b) Leishmania donovani

(d) Trypanosoma gambiense

Answer: (d)

Q. Schaffner’s dots are related to _______________.

(a) Entamoeba histolytica

(b) Leucocytes of frog

(d) Epithelium of the stomach of the mosquito

Answer: (c)

Q. “Amoebiasis” or amoebic dysentery is caused by___________.

(a) Trypanosoma histolytica

(b) Entamoeba histolytica

(d) Plasmodium vivax

Answer: (b)

Q. Which of the following statement is true about the Malarial parasites?

(a) Malarial parasites can be best obtained from a patient when the temperature comes to normal

(b) Malarial parasites can be best obtained from a patient, an hour before the rise of temperature

(d) Malarial parasites can be best obtained from a patient when the temperature rises with rigour

Answer: (c)

Q. Which of the following “Glossina palpalis” is a vector for

(a) Filariasis

(b) Plague

(d) Gambian fever

Answer: (d)

MCQ’S ON HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASE

Q. Parkinson’s disease is caused due to deficiency of ________.

(a) Dopamine

(b) GABA

(d) Endorphins

Answer: (a)

Q. Gaucher’s disease is linked with________.

(a) Malnutrition

(b) Abnormal fat metabolism

(d) Abnormal carbohydrate metabolism

Answer: (b)

Q. LSD is obtained from _______.

(a) Cannabis Sativa

(b) Claviceps purpurea

(d) Erythroxylon coca

Answer: (b)

Q. Infectious proteins are present in ________.

(a) Prions

(b) Viroids

(d) Satellite viruses

Answer: (a)
Q. The low RBC count is seen in anaemia and ________.

(a) Myxoedema

(b) Influenza

(d) Leukaemia

Answer: (d)

Q. A child is suffering from Kwashiorkor and if this child is compared with other marasmus children then what additional symptoms are present in Kwashiorkor child?

(a) Oedema

(b) Wasted muscles

(d) Impaired physical growth

Answer: (c)

Q. Chronic anaemia and multiple sclerosis are

(a) Allergic diseases

(b) Hormonal diseases

(d) Hereditary diseases

Answer: (c)

Q. Which one of the following statements is correct about T-lymphocytes in mammals?

(a) These are produced in the thyroid

(b) These are originated in lymphoid tissues

(d) There are three main types – cytotoxic T-cells, helper T-cells and suppressor T-cells

Answer: (b)

Q. The antibody-dependent cytotoxicity is seen in ________.

(a) Local anaphylaxis

(b) Generalise anaphylaxis

(d) Non-compatible-blood transfusion

Answer: (d)

Q. Which of the following protein causes the dilation of blood vessels?

(a) Histamine

(b) Pyrogens

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

MCQ’S ON ARTHRITIS AND CANCER

Q. A painful disorder of the joints, Gouts is due to

(a) inflammation of synovial membrane

(b) deposition of uric acid at joints

(d) damage caused to ligaments

Answer: (b)

Q. Cancerous cells are more easily damaged by radiation than normal cells as they

(a) differ in structure

(b) undergo rapid division

(d) none of these

Answer: (b)

Q. Cancer is related to

(a) Non-malignant tumor

(b) uncontrolled growth of tissues

(d) none of the above

Answer: (b)

Q. The nucleus of cancerous cells becomes

(a) Unchanged

(b) Degenerated

(d) Hypertrophied

Answer: (c)

Q. This is cancerous state of blood

(a) Uremia

(b) Chloremia

(d) Proteinemia

Answer: (c)

Q. Benign tumour is the one which

(a) differentiated and capsulated

(b) shows metastasis

(d) undifferentiated and non capsulated

Answer: (a)

Q. If a muscle fails to give stimulation action and there is much ingestion of lactic acid, the conduction is termed as

(a) Fatigue

(b) Tonus

(d) Tetanus

Answer: (a)

Q. A patient is suspicious of having breast cancer. What type of test will a physician conduct to diagnose the cancer

(a) blood test

(b) mammography

(d) pap test

Answer: (b)

Q. Rheumatoid arthritis is different from some other forms of arthritis as it

(a) occurs below the waist

(b) is more painful than other forms

(d) is symmetrical, affecting the right and the left sides of the body

Answer: (d)

Q. Chemicals, that can induce cancer are called

(a) Carcinogens and produce malignant tumour

(b) carcinogens and produce non-malignant tumour

(d) mutagenic agents and produce benign tumour

Answer: (a)

MCQ’S ON METHOD OF BIRTH CONTROL

Q. Cancerous cells are more easily damaged by radiation than normal cells as they

(a) differ in structure

(b) undergo rapid division

(d) none of these

Answer: (b)

Q. Cancer is related to

(a) Non-malignant tumor

(b) uncontrolled growth of tissues

(d) none of the above

Answer: (b)

Q. The nucleus of cancerous cells becomes

(a) Unchanged

(b) Degenerated

(d) Hypertrophied

Answer: (c)
Q. This is cancerous state of blood

(a) Uremia

(b) Chloremia

(d) Proteinemia

Answer: (c)

Q. Benign tumour is the one which

(a) differentiated and capsulated

(b) shows metastasis

(d) undifferentiated and non capsulated

Answer: (a)

Q. If a muscle fails to give stimulation action and there is much ingestion of lactic acid, the conduction is termed as

(a) Fatigue

(b) Tonus

(d) Tetanus

Answer: (a)

Q. A patient is suspicious of having breast cancer. What type of test will a physician conduct to diagnose the cancer

(a) blood test

(b) mammography

(d) pap test

Answer: (b)

Q. Rheumatoid arthritis is different from some other forms of arthritis as it

(a) occurs below the waist

(b) is more painful than other forms

(d) is symmetrical, affecting the right and the left sides of the body

Answer: (d)

Q. Chemicals, that can induce cancer are called

(a) Carcinogens and produce malignant tumour

(b) carcinogens and produce non-malignant tumour

(d) mutagenic agents and produce benign tumour

Answer: (a)

Q. A painful disorder of the joints, Gouts is due to

(a) inflammation of synovial membrane

(b) deposition of uric acid at joints

(d) damage caused to ligaments

Answer: (b)

MCQ’S ON YEAST AND ALBUGO

Q. The species causing white rust of cruciferae has a botanical name, it is

(a) Pythium debaryanum

(b) Peronospora parasitica

(d) Puccinia graminis

Answer: (c)

Q. Yeast is not included in protozoans but in fungi because

(a) it has eukaryotic organization

(b) cell wall is made up of cellulose and reserve food material as starch

(d) it has no chlorophyll

Answer: (a)

Q. This is used in the preparation of alcohol

(a) Saccharomyces

(b) Acetobacter

(d) Penicillium

Answer: (a)

Q. Fungus without mycelium is

(a) Agaricus

(b) Albugo

(d) Saccharomyces

Answer: (d)

Q. Yeast produces an enzyme complex, which is responsible for fermentation. Which is the enzyme complex?

(a) Zymase

(b) Dehydrogenase

(d) Invertase

Answer: (a)

Q. In yeast, the sexual reproduction is by conjugation. After fusion, the zygotic nucleus divides meiotically and forms haploid spores. The unicellular structure with haploid spores is

(a) Gametangium

(b) Zoosporangium

(d) Ascus

Answer: (d)

Q. The rising of dough is due to

(a) sulphur dioxide

(b) hydrogen

(d) oxygen

Answer: (c)

Q. In manufacture of bread, it becomes porous due to the liberation of CO2 by the action of

(a) Yeast

(b) Virus

(d) Bacteria

Answer: (a)

Q. The food reserve in Albugo usually is

(a) Fat

(b) Protein granules

(d) Volutin granules

Answer: (c)

Q. This statement on Albugo is incorrect

(a) Non-flagellated female gametes

(b) Biflagellated zoospores

(d) All of these

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON PLANT MOVEMENT

Q. Factors that modify geotropic responses are

(a) root and shoot apices, humidity and temperature

(b) root and shoot apices, phytochrome, humidity and temperature

(d) none of these

Answer: (b)

Q. In Drosera, movement of tentacles are

(a) Thermonastic

(b) Photonastic

(d) Thigmonastic

Answer: (d)

Q. Nastic movements differ from tropic movements in being

(a) Nondirectional

(b) Movements of variation

(d) Directional

Answer: (a)

Q. Movements of leaves of the sensitive plant, Mimosa pudica are due to

(a) seismonasty

(b) chemonasty

(d) hydrotropism

Answer: (a)
Q. If the stem grows towards sunlight and root grows just opposite to it, the stem movement is known as

(a) phototropic movement

(b) negative phototropic movement

(d) none of these

Answer: (c)

Q. An apparatus commonly used to demonstrate phototropism is

(a) clinostat

(b) heliotropic chamber

(d) arc auxanometer

Answer: (b)

Q. Protoplasmic streaming movements are referred to as

(a) photonasty

(b) thigmonasty

(d) movements of curvature

Answer: (c)

Q. Tertiary roots are

(a) negatively geotropic

(b) ageotropic

(d) plagiogeotropic

Answer: (b)

Q. The best material for demonstrating streaming movements of protoplasm within living cells is

(a) pith cells

(b) onion peelings

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

Q. Pneumatophores show

(a) thigmotropism

(b) negative phototropism

(d) positive geotropism

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON ARCHAEBACTERIA

Q. Most abundant prokaryotes helpful to humans in making curd from milk and in the production of antibiotics are the ones categorized as _______.

(a) Archaebacteria

(b) Cyanobacteria

(d) Chemosynthetic autotrophs

Answer: (c)

Q. Methanogens belong to_______.

(a) Eubacteria

(b) Dinoflagellates

(d) Archaebacteria

Answer: (d)

Q. Which of the following features differs archaebacteria from eubacteria?

(a) Cell shape

(b) Mode of nutrition

(d) Cell membrane structure

Answer: (d)

Q. Methanococcus, Thermococcus and Methanobacterium exemplify

(a) bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and ribosomes

(b) bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively supercoiled but which have a

cytoskeleton as well as mitochondria

whose DNA is negatively supercoiled

(d) archaebacteria that contain protein homologous to eukaryotic core histones

Answer: (c)

Q. After the new classification of living organisms into three domains of life (bacteria, archaea and eukarya) which one of the following is true about archaea?

(a) Resembles eukarya in all respects

(b) Completely differ from prokaryotes

(d) Have some novel features that are absent in other eukaryotes and prokaryotes

Answer: (d)

Q. Which of the following are likely to be present into the deep seawater?

(a) Eubacteria

(b) Archaebacteria

(d) Blue-green algae

Answer: (b)

Q. Methanogens belong to _____.

(a) Eukarya

(b) Archaea

(d) None of the above

Answer: (b)

Q. Which of the following are found in extreme saline conditions?

(a) Halophiles

(b) Thermophiles

(d) None of the above

Answer: (a)
Q. Which of the following bacteria thrive in extreme environmental conditions, such as high temperature and acidic pH, the absence of oxygen and high salt concentration?

(a) Eubacteria

(b) Cyanobacteria

(d) All of the above

Answer: (c)

Q. Which of the following statement is true for archaebacteria?

(a) Archaebacteria are fossils

(b) Archaebacteria are halophiles

(d) Archaebacteria are old living entities

Answer: (d)

Q. Some hyperthermophilic organisms that grow in highly acidic (pH2) habitats belong to the two groups called _______.

(a) Cyanobacteria and Diatoms

(b) Liverworts and Yeasts

(d) Eubacteria and Archaea

Answer: (d)

Q. Which of the following bacterium is found in extreme saline conditions?

(a) Eubacteria

(b) Mycobacteria

(d) Cyanobacteria

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON HETEROTROPHIC NUTRITION

Q. Assertion: mode of nutrition in higher animals is heterotrophic

Reason: Animals can use different trophic levels for heterotrophic nutrition

(a) if the assertion is true but the reason is false

(b) if both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion

(d) if both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion

Answer: (d)

Q. The mutualistic association between certain fungi and roots of vascular plants are known as

(a) haustoria

(b) mycelium

(d) mycorrhizae

Answer: (d)

Q. What is the mode of nutrition in bacteria?

(a) heterotrophic

(b) autotrophic

(d) none of the above

Answer: (c)

Q. Digestion of food in amoeba occurs in

(a) cytoplasm

(b) nucleus

(d) none of the above

Answer: (c)

Q. The mode of nutrition found in fungi is

(a) saprotrophic or parasitic

(b) only parasitic

(d) none of the above

Answer: (a)

Q. A stable ecosystem is maintained with the interaction of

(a) predators

(b) prey

(d) predator-prey

Answer: (d)
Q. Absorptive heterotrophic nutrition is exhibited by

(a) fungi

(b) algae

(d) bryophytes

Answer: (a)

Q. The mode of nutrition in which one organism obtains nutrition from other organisms is known as

(a) symbiosis

(b) autotrophic nutrition

(d) heterotrophic nutrition

Answer: (d)

Q. Heterotrophic nutrition is

(a) oxidation of glucose

(b) breakdown of glucose into energy

(d) all the above

Answer: (d)

Q. The parasitic fungus which destroys wheat plant is

(a) lice

(b) leech

(d) Puccinia

Answer: (d)

MCQ’S ON BLOOD GROUPS

Q. Under this circumstance, an antigen-antibody reaction will occur. A person with

(a) Type A blood is given type O blood

(b) Type AB blood is given type O blood

(d) Type AB blood is given type B blood

Answer: (c)

Q. When typing blood, a positive reaction

(a) shows which antigens are present

(b) shows clumping

(d) all of the above

Answer: (d)

Q. If a blood type ends in + (positive) that means

(a) your attitude is positive

(b) you are positive for an Rh protein

(d) + sign at the end is insignificant

Answer: (b)

Q. In the context of the ABO blood group, a transfusion of AB blood may be given to a person who has blood type

(a) A

(b) O

(d) AB

Answer: (d)

Q. Human blood types in the ABO blood group are identified by

(a) clotting factors in plasma

(b) microscopic examination of white blood cells

(d) series of enzyme controlled reactions

Answer: (c)

Q. Red blood cells that do not contain either A or B antigens on their surface are normally found in the person with blood type

(a) A

(b) O

(d) AB

Answer: (b)
Q. In the ABO system, blood group ‘O’ is characterized by the:

(a) presence of antigen O

(b) presence of both antigen A and antigen B

(d) presence of antigen A and absence of antigen B

Answer: (c)

Q. Antiserum is

(a) blood serum containing specific antibodies

(b) blood serum containing specific antigens

(d) blood serum in which antigens and antibodies are both absent

Answer: (a)

Q. A false positive result is best described as one that is given

(a) by a substance other than that being tested for

(b) when the substance being tested for is present in large amounts

(d) when substance being tested for is absent

Answer: (a)

Q. Which antibodies are found in the plasma of a person with type A blood?

(a) anti-A, but not anti B

(b) neither anti-A nor anti B

(d) anti-B, but not anti-A

Answer: (d)

MCQ’S ON OSMOREGULATION

1. What is the function of osmoregulation in Paramoecium?

(a) Cytostome

(b) Contractile vacuole

(d) Trichocysts

Answer: (b)

2. Osmoregulators carry out excretion of salt through_________.

(a) gills

(b) fins

(d) bladder

Answer: (a)

3. What happens to the cell, when the excess amount of water passes out from the tissues of the kidney without restoration?

(a) The cell is not affected

(b) The cell shrivel and die

(d) The cell takes water from plasma

Answer: (a)

4. Which of the following is used as an osmolyte in humans to increase medullary interstitial osmolality during concentration of urine?

(a) Urea

(b) TMAO

(d) Uric acid

Answer: (a)

5. A person on a long hunger strike, surviving only on the water will have ______.

(a) Less amino acids in his urine

(b) More sodium in hir urine

(d) More glucose in his blood

Answer: (c)

6. Mechanism of regulation, typically between entities and its environment of solutes and the loss and gain of water is known as _______.

(a) Homeostasis

(b) Hemostasis

(d) Osmoregulation

Answer: (d)

7. Most of the marine invertebrates are _______.

(a) Osmoregulation

(b) Osmoconformers

(d) None of the above

Answer: (b)

8. Kidney matrix retains some quantity of urea to maintain_________.

(a) Metabolism

(b) Micturition

(d) Balance of the body

Answer: (c)

9. Which of the following is not a primary function of protonephridia?

(a) Excretion

(b) Osmoregulation

(d) Ionic volume regulation

Answer: (a)

10.Which of the following is the product of both osmoregulator and a nitrogenous?

(a) Urea

(b) NH3

(d) All of the above

Answer: (a)

MCQ’S ON plastids

Q. Plastids are present in ______

(a) Euglenoides

(b) Plants

(d) All protists

Answer: (c)

Q. Which of the following cell organelle are found only in a plant cell?

(a) Plastids

(b) Mitochondria

(d) Ribosomes

Answer: (a)

Q. Plastids are absent in ________.

(a) Fungi

(b) Bacteria

(d) All of the above

Answer: (d)

Q. Plant cells and animal cells differ from each other in having ________.

(a) Vacuole

(b) Centrosome

(d) Golgi body

Answer: (c)

Q. Which of the following type of plastids helps in pollination?

(a) Leucoplasts

(b) Chloroplasts

(d) All of the above

Answer: (c)

Q. Fret channels are associated with _________

(a) Two lamellae of a granum

(b) Two grana of a chloroplast

(d) Two plastids of a cell

Answer: (b)
Q. All three types of plastids have evolved from _________.

(a) Leucoplast

(b) Chloroplast

(d) Chromoplast

Answer: (c)

Q. Which of the following species lack plastids?

(a) Fungi and animals

(b) Plants and animals

(d) None of the above

Answer: (c)

Q. Which of the following is a common feature of plastids and mitochondria?

(a) Both have Double-stranded DNA

(b) Both contain 70s ribosomes

(d) All of the above.

Answer: (d)

Q. Which of the following is not a colourless plastid?

(a) Amyloplast

(b) Elaioplast

(d) Proteinoplast

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON LICHENS

1. This is a crustose lichen

(a) Peltigera

(b) Usnea

(d) None of the above

Answer: (c)

2. Most of the scientists deem the algal-fungal relationship in lichens as helotism. Helotism is a

(a) master-master relationship

(b) master-slave relationship

(d) a kind of symbiotic association

Answer: (b)

3. Majorly, lichens are the pollution indicators of

(a) CO

(b) Mercury

(d) SO2

Answer: (d)

4. The symbiotic association of algae and fungi is known as

(a) Mycorrhiza

(b) lichen

(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (b)

5. Vegetative reproduction in lichens takes place by

(a) isidia

(b) soredia

(d) all of the above

Answer: (d)

6. In the studies on the atmospheric pollution, lichens are important as they

(a) can readily multiply in polluted atmosphere

(b) are very sensitive to pollutants

(d) can also be grown in greatly polluted atmosphere

Answer: (b)

7. This lichen is pioneer in xerosere

(a) fruticose lichen

(b) foliose lichen

(d) leprose lichen

Answer: (c)

8. A common phycobiont in lichens are

(a) Cetraria

(b) Microcystis

(d) Oedogonium

Answer: (c)

9. Reindeer moss is a lichen known as

(a) Usnea

(b) Rocella

(d) Parmelia

Answer: (c)

10. This about lichens is incorrect

(a) Lichens are indicators of pollution

(b) They grow rapidly about 2cm every day

(d) They have symbiotic relationship between alga and fungus

Answer: (b)

MCQ’S ON LAC OPERON

Q. Lac Operon will be turned on when

(a) Lactose is less than glucose

(b) Lactose is less in the medium

(d) Glucose is enough in the medium

Answer: (c)

Q. In a cell as per the Operon Concept, the regulator gene governs the chemical reactions by

(a) Inhibiting the substrate in the reaction

(b) Inhibiting migration of mRNA into cytoplasm

(d) Enzyme-reaction inactivation

Answer: (d)

Q. In Lac-operon, the gene product of LacA gene is

(a) Beta-galactoside permease

(b) Beta-galactoside transacetylase

(d) Beta-galactoside isomerase

Answer: (b)

Q. This condition in lac operon facilitates the condition of lac genes being transcribed at high levels

(a) low glucose, high lactose

(b) low glucose, low lactose

(d) high glucose, low lactose

Answer: (a)

Q. The correct option regarding the lac operon in E.coli from the following is

(a) Lac operon is switched on in the absence of lactose

(b) Lac repressor binds to the lac promoter

(d) lac operon messenger RNA is a polycistronic mRNA

Answer: (d)
Q. Lac operon is an example of

(a) only positive regulation

(b) only negative regulation

(d) sometimes positive sometimes negative

Answer: (c)

Q. In the presence of lactose, how long does it take for the lac operon to be expressed?

(a) when lactose equals glucose concentration

(b) when glucose is more than lactose concentration

(d) as long as lactose is more than galactose concentration

Answer: (c)

Q. Which of these acts as an inducer of the lac operon?

(a) Allolactose

(b) Lactose

(d) Glucose

Answer: (a)

Q. The sequence of the structural genes in the lac operon is

(a) lacA-lacZ-lacY

(b) lacZ-lacY-lacA

(d) lacA-lacY-lacZ

Answer: (b)

Q. Regulation of the lac operon can be envisioned as regulation of enzyme synthesis by its

(a) lactose

(b) substrate

(d) all of the above

Answer: (d)

MCQ’S ON PENICILLIUM

1. Filaments of fungi, which have thread-like appearance are called

(a) Hyphae

(b) Sporangium

(d) Mycorrhiza

2. Penicillium belongs to

(a) Deuteromycetes

(b) Phycomycetes

(d) Basidiomycetes

3. Formation of dikaryon is characteristic of

(a) Phycomycetes

(b) Basidiomycetes

(d) Both (b) and (c)

4. Penicillium camemberti and Penicillium roqueforti are known for

(a) causing disease to animals

(b) causing disease to plants

(d) none of the above

5. Penicillium is used in the production of

(a) antibiotics

(b) cheese fermentation

(d) none of the above

6. Number of ascospores formed in each ascus of Penicillium is

(a) 4

(b) 8

(d) 16

7. The fruiting body (ascocarp) of Penicillium is

(a) Apothecium

(b) Cleistothecium

(d) Acrostroma

8. Which of the following is true about conidiophores of Penicillium?

(a) binucleate and colourless

(b) binucleate and pigmented

(d) Uninucleate and colourless

9. Which one of the following is known as blue mould?

(a) Penicillium

(b) Rhizopus

(d) Aspergillus

10. Asexual spores produced terminally on hyphae are called

(a) Meiospores

(b) Anthospores

(d) Conidia

Answer

1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (c)
6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (d)

MCQ’S ON VOLVOX

1. Coenobium refers to

(a) a group of filaments

(b) Palmelloid form

(d) None of these

2. Algae with motile colony is

(a) Nostoc

(b) Spirogyra

(d) Volvox

3. In Chlorophyta, structure for protein and starch reserve is

(a) Pyrenoid

(b) Eye spot

(d) Paramylum

4. Volvox and Chlamydomonas are similar because they

(a) belong to Chlorophyta

(b) both are motile

(d) none of the above

5. Volvox belongs to which of the following classes of algae?

(a) Chlorophyceae

(b) Phaeophyceae

(d) Chrysophyceae

6. The chloroplast present in Volvox is

(a) cup-shaped

(b) ribbon-shaped

(d) star-shaped

7. Sexual reproduction in Volvox is

(a) Isogamous

(b) Anisogamous

(d) None of the above

8. Find the incorrect match

(a) Laminaria – Flattened leaf like thallus

(b) Volvox – Colonial, non flagellated

(d) Chlamydomonas – Unicellular flagellated

9. The chlorophyll pigment present in Volvox are

(a) Chlorophyll a

(b) Chlorophyll b

(d) both (a) and (b)

10. Find the incorrect statement about Volvox

(a) Sexual reproduction is oogamous

(b) true coelom and no metamerism

(d) phototaxis movement is present

Answer

1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (a)
6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c)

MCQ’S ON PARTURITION

Q. The sex of the unborn takes shape during

(a) start of the cleavage

(b) implantation

(d) fertilization by female gamete

Answer: (c)

Q. When does lactation start?

(a) During pregnancy

(b) at the end of first trimester

(d) at the end of pregnancy

Answer: (d)

Q. After how many days of fertilization does implantation occur?

(a) 8 days

(b) 7 days

(d) 5 days

Answer: (b)

Q. This structure ruptures when “water breaks” in pregnancy

(a) placenta

(b) amniotic fluid

(d) amniochorionic membrane

Answer: (b)

Q. Scientifically, the delivery of the developed fetus is termed as

(a) ovulation

(b) abortion

(d) parturition

Answer: (d)

Q. Which of these events is unlikely to happen if the mammalian ovum does not get fertilized?

(a) primary follicle starts to develop

(b) secretion of the estrogen increases

(d) disintegration of corpus luteum

Answer: (b)

Q. Colostrum is

(a) milk of lactation period

(b) milk of initial few days

(d) milk on day one

Answer: (b)

Q. In humans, the location of the Bartholin’s glands are

(a) either side of the fallopian tube

(b) either side of the penis

(d) either side of the vagina

Answer: (d)

Q. What does colostrum contain?

(a) four antibodies

(b) two antibodies

(d) one antibody only

Answer: (c)

Q. The Graafian follicle regresses to this after ovulation

(a) corpus albicans

(b) corpus atresia

(d) corpus luteum

Answer: (d)

MCQ’S ON CLIMATE

Q. Identify the phenomena taking place in this statement – Climate system is affected due to an increasingly large quantity of gas molecules absorbing thermal infrared radiations.

(a) alpha radiations

(b) ozone gases

(d) greenhouse gases

Answer: (d)

Q. The reason why presence of ample carbon dioxide causes an increase in the greenhouse effect is because carbon dioxide

(a) reduces atmospheric pressure

(b) precipitates atmospheric dust

(d) is opaque to infrared rays

Answer: (d)

Q. Identify the incorrect statement

(a) Eutrophication is a natural process seen in fresh water bodies

(b) Greenhouse effect occurs naturally

(d) In tropical areas, most of the forests have been lost

Answer: (c)

Q. The phenomena instrumental in eliminating atmospheric carbon dioxide is

(a) burning of fossil fuels

(b) deforestation

(d) lightning

Answer: (c)
Q. In terms of efficiency, the most potent greenhouse gas is

(a) N2O

(b) CH4

(d) CFC

Answer: (d)

Q. This ecological factor is the strongest determinant of different biomes

(a) wind and soil

(b) precipitation and temperature

(d) humidity and pH

Answer: (b)

Q. On the ozone layer, the CFC has continuing effect as

(a) Reactions use up by the Cl atoms formed by them leading to the degradation of ozone

(b) their efficient absorption by water vapours of the atmosphere

(d) they are constantly produced in increasing quantities, globally

Answer: (c)

Q. Regions having severe and long winters and growing season consists of a few months of summers represent

(a) Tundra ecosystem

(b) Taiga ecosystem

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

Q. This is the wavelength of infrared radiations

(a) zero

(b) infinite

(d) shorter

Answer: (c)

Q. This is not one of the possible adverse effects of the phenomena of global warming

(a) extraordinary weather patterns

(b) retreat of glaciers

(d) rise in the sea levels

Answer: (c)

MCQ’S ON POLIO

Q. The causative of the disease, Polio is

(a) Fungus

(b) Virus

(d) Toxin

Answer: : (b)

Q. Interferons curb infection of

(a) cancer

(b) bacteria

(d) none of the above

Answer: : (d)

Q. The region where the polio virus multiplies in the body is

(a) intestinal cells

(b) nerve cells

(d) none of the above

Answer: : (a)

Q. This can eradicate Polio

(a) live polio vaccine

(b) killed polio vaccine

(d) attention to sewage control and hygiene

Answer: : (c)
Q. In 1955, the person who invented the Polio vaccine was

(a) Hiram Maxim

(b) Theodore Roosevelt

(d) Joseph Stalin

Answer: : (c)

Q. Pick the correct statement regarding vaccines of Polio

(a) Salk is an inactivated polio vaccine

(b) Sabin is live attenuated polio vaccine

(d) All the above are correct

Answer: : (c)

Q. This virus has RNA and DNA both

(a) Herpes Virus

(b) Leuko Virus

(d) Cyanophage

Answer: : (b)

Q. Which serious ailment does the Poliovirus cause all over the world?

(a) mental retarded ness

(b) brain haemorrhage

(d) poliomyelitis

Answer: : (d)

Q. For the very first time, this virus was synthesized in the form of non-living crystals

(a) Bacteriophage

(b) Tobacco mosaic virus

(d) Pox virus

Answer: : (b)

Q. This technique is commonly used for most viral vaccines

(a) Molecular biology

(b) Animal tissues in vitro

(d) traditional cell culture

Answer: : (d)

MCQ’S ON PEM (Protein–energy malnutrition)

Q. A newborn infant, as part of routine is immediately assessed with this procedure after delivery

(a) infant functionality scale

(b) Apgar scoring system

(d) Dubowitz-Ballard scale

Answer: : (b)

Q. Phenylketonuria is a genetic disorder impairing the metabolism of

(a) amino acid phenylalanine

(b) Polyunsaturated fatty acids

(d) none of these

Answer: : (a)

Q. This can be the first indication that PEM has led to the permanent damage to the brain

(a) low birth weight

(b) premature birth

(d) slowed reflexes during birth

Answer: : (c)

Q. The type of nutrition in which more nutrients are consumed than the required quantity for normal growth of the body

(a) pepsin-enzyme malnutrition

(b) mineral deficiency diseases

(d) protein energy malnutrition

Answer: : (c)
Q. Protein-energy malnutrition (PEM) corresponds to a state where the infant’s dietary intake is deficient in

(a) Carbohydrates

(b) overall calories

(d) both (b) and (c)

Answer: : (d)

Q. The availability of proteins and energy and inadequate absorption in the body is known as

(a) pepsin energy malnutrition

(b) pepsin enzyme malnutrition

(d) protein excess malnutrition

Answer: : (c)

Q. PEM is mostly seen and has the most destructing consequences in

(a) adulthood and adolescence

(b) adolescence and early childhood

(d) only infancy

Answer: : (c)

Q. Up to the age of six months, this is the ideal food for newborns and young infants

(a) soy milk

(b) rice cereal

(d) iron-fortified formula

Answer: : (c)

Q. Disorders related to nutritions is known as

(a) balancing of nutrition

(b) insolubility of nutrition

(d) malnutrition

Answer: : (d)

Q. Which of the following diseases is caused by protein-energy malnutrition?

(a) angina

(b) goiter

(d) tuberculosis

Answer: : (c)

MCQ’S ON Marasmus

Q. This is a common feature of Kwashiorkor and Marasmus

(a) thinning of limbs

(b) failure of development of brain and growth

(d) all the above

Answer: : (d)

Q. Which is not a vitamin deficiency disease

(a) Cheilosis

(b) Scurvy

(d) Marasmus

Answer: : (d)

Q. If protein deficiency is seen in a child more than a year old, it may lead to

(a) Deficiency disorder

(b) Protemia

(d) Marasmus

Answer: : (c)

Q. Pick the incorrect statement about Marasmus

(a) pregnancy in lactation period

(b) protein rich diet replaces mother’s milk

(d) simultaneously deficiency of calories and proteins

Answer: : (b)

Q. Extensive oedema, fat underneath skin, swelling of parts of body are all associated with

(a) Kwashiorkor

(b) Marasmus

(d) Protemia

Answer: : (a)
Q. Which disorder are kids of age below one year more likely to suffer from if breastfeeding is replaced by foods low in calories and proteins?

(a) Rickets

(b) Kwashiorkor

(d) Pellagra

Answer: : (c)

Q. The deficiency of protein alone is a symptom of

(a) Protemia

(b) Indigestion

(d) Marasmus

Answer: : (c)

Q. This is a feature of marasmus and not Kwashiorkor

(a) Edema

(b) Voracious appetite

(d) Fatty change in liver

Answer: : (b)

Q. Marasmus is not characterized by

(a) swelling of limbs

(b) replacing tissue proteins

(d) protein deficiency

Answer: : (a)

Q. There is a considerable decline in the weight of the body and growth rate along with the mental faculties getting impaired. Which of these diseases are associated with the mentioned symptoms?

(a) Epilepsy

(b) Indigestion

(d) Marasmus

Answer: : (d)

MCQs on Micropropagation

Q. An excised piece of stem tissue or leaf used in micropropagation is

(a) scion

(b) explant

(d) microshoot

Answer: : (b)

Q. Protoplasts are devoid of

(a) cell wall

(b) cell membrane

(d) none of these

Answer: : (a)

Q. This plant propagation technique uses girdling

(a) cuttings

(b) grafting

(d) layering

Answer: : (d)

Q. __________ is used to develop virus free plants

(a) cell suspension culture

(b) protoplast culture

(d) organ culture

Answer: : (c)
Q. Micro propagation involves

(a) small explants used for vegetative multiplication of plants

(b) microbes used for vegetative multiplication of plants

(d) megaspores and microspores used for non-vegetative multiplication of plants

Answer: : (a)

Q. Pick the incorrect statement – Agar is a gelling agent in plant tissue culture medium

(a) it is not digested by the enzymes of plants

(b) it is not used in micropropagation work

(d) remains stable at incubation temperature

Answer: : (b)

Q. Solidifying agent that is used in plant tissue culture is

(a) Agar

(b) EDTA

(d) Nicotinic acid

Answer: : (a)

Q. Benefit of clonal propagation or micropropagation is

(a) multiplication of sexually derived sterile hybrids

(b) multiplication of disease free plants

(d) all of these

Answer: : (d)

Q. Protoplasts can be synthesized from suspension cultures, intact tissues or callus tissues by the enzymatic treatment with

(a) proteolytic enzymes

(b) both pectolytic and cellulolytic enzymes

(d) cellulolytic enzymes

Answer: : (b)

Q. In artificial media, the growth of plant tissues is

(a) gene expression

(b) transgenesis

(d) cell hybridization

Answer: : (c)

MCQs on Cytokinins

Q. This is capable of delaying yellowing of leaves

(a) auxins

(b) ABA

(d) gibberellins

Answer: : (c)

Q. In a culture medium, the use of an old sample of DNA is associated with the discovery of which of these?

(a) ABA

(b) Cytokinins

(d) Vitamin K

Answer: : (b)

Q. The hormone Cytokinin has the main function of

(a) causing dormancy

(b) cell movement

(d) induction of cell division and delay in senescence

Answer: : (d)

Q. This plant hormone is responsible for the ripening of fruits

(a) Cytokinins

(b) Auxin

(d) None of the above

Answer: : (c)
Q. This causes delay in senescence

(a) ascorbic acid

(b) gibberellins

(d) cytokinins

Answer: : (d)

Q. ___________ is a coconut milk factor

(a) cytokinin

(b) morphactin

(d) none of these

Answer: : (a)

Q. Which of these can prevent the falling of leaves

(a) abscisic acid

(b) cytokinins

(d) florigen

Answer: : (b)

Q. The first one to synthesize cytokinin was

(a) Thimman and Went

(b) Calvin and Bensan

(d) Skoog and Miller

Answer: : (d)

Q. This hormone prevents the crop from falling

(a) ethylene

(b) auxin

(d) cytokinin

Answer: : (b)

Q. The cambial tissue of Pinus radiata has

(a) cytokinin

(b) gibberellins

(d) none of these

Answer: : (a)

MCQs on Saprophytes

Q. Parasitic and saprobiotic mode of nutrition are found in

(a) Fungi

(b) Bacteria

(d) Viruses

Answer: : (c)

Q. This one is saprophytic in nutrition

(a) virus

(b) cyanobacteria

(d) all of these

Answer: : (c)

Q. When one organism obtains nutrition from the other, the mode of nutrition is

(a) heterotrophic

(b) symbiosis

(d) none of these

Answer: : (a)

Q. This has a saprophytic mode of nutrition

(a) Mushroom

(b) Leech

(d) roundworm

Answer: : (a)

Q. This can be used to demarcate a facultative parasite

(a) can become a parasite but is actually a saprophyte

(b) can become a saprophyte but is actually a parasite

(d) requires a living host inevitably

Answer: : (c)

Q. Pick the incorrect statement about Fungi

(a) Can be anaerobic

(b) Can be photosynthetic

(d) Can be saprophytic

Answer: : (b)

Q. The reason why there is a close association between fungi and algae in lichen is because the fungus

(a) releases oxygen for algae

(b) fixes atmospheric nitrogen for algae

(d) provides anchorage, protection and absorption for algae

Answer: : (d)

Q. Facultative saprophyte is

(a) always a saprophyte

(b) always a parasite

(d) may adapt a parasitic lifestyle

Answer: : (c)

Q. Lichens are a known combination of fungi and algae where the fungus is

(a) a symbiotic relationship with algae

(b) a parasitic relationship with algae

(d) a saprophytic relationship with algae

Answer: : (a)

Q. Fungi are ____________ when they feed on dead organic matter

(a) Saprophytes

(b) Parasites

(d) None of the above

Answer: : (a)

NEET MCQs on Sporulation

Q. Spores produced endogenously are found in all except this

(a) Rhizopus

(b) Mushroom

(d) Albugo

Answer: : (b)

Q. _____________ is used to refer to the growth of bacteria or microbes

(a) increase in the number of cells

(b) change in the total population

(d) increase in the size of an individual entity

Answer: : (a)

Q. In bacteria, sporulation takes place in this growth phase

(a) phase of decline

(b) log phase

(d) stationary phase

Answer: : (d)

Q. Rhodopseudomonas acidophila follows this mode of reproduction

(a) Budding

(b) Sporulation

(d) Binary fission

Answer: : (a)

Q. The daughter cells that are formed when the septum forms near the poles of the cell is known as

(a) daughter cell

(b) macrocell

(d) microcell

Answer: : (c)

Q. _____________ is also used to address lag phase

(a) generation time

(b) transitional period

(d) none of the above

Answer: : (c)

Q. This can best describe a microbial control protocol inhibiting the growth of molds and yeasts

(a) fungistatic

(b) bactericidal

(d) bacteriostatic

Answer: : (a)

Q. In gram-positive cells, during its reproduction, synthesis of new membrane material is carried out by this organelle

(a) cytoplasmic membrane

(b) endoplasmic reticulum

(d) nucleus

Answer: : (c)

Q. A fold or bleb like formation is seen in this bacteria

(a) E.coli

(b) Bacillus subtilis

(d) Streptococcus faecalis

Answer: : (a)

Q. This is not a characteristic of a growth curve

(a) every growth curve has 4 distinct stages

(b) Graph numbers of microbes versus time

(d) under relatively stable environmental conditions, development of microbial population is seen

Answer: : (a)

MCQs on Protein Synthesis

Q. This drug inhibits the initiation step of translation

(a) ricin

(b) tetracycline

(d) cyclohexylamine

Answer: : (c)

Q. In translation, this is not an essential component

(a) amino acid

(b) ligase

(d) anticodon

Answer: : (b)

Q. This identifies a particular amino acid and its cognate tRNA molecule

(a) topoisomerase

(b) rRNA

(d) tRNA synthetase

Answer: : (d)

Q. Protein synthesis corresponds to the process of

(a) duplicating required DNA for synthesis of proteins

(b) formation of amino acids from mRNA

(d) formation of amino acids from DNA template directly

Answer: : (b)

Q. This is considered to be the start codon

(a) AGG

(b) UAG

(d) AUG

Answer: : (d)
Q. This best describes a polysome

(a) active site for synthesis of lipids

(b) active site for synthesis of proteins

(d) all of these

Answer: : (b)

Q. In protein synthesis, translocation is initiated with the movement of

(a) tRNA from P-site to the A-site

(b) dipeptidyl tRNA from A-site to P-site

(d) tRNA from P-site to E-site

Answer: : (b)

Q. The process by which protein synthesis from genetic code occurs is best described by

(a) transcription

(b) translation

(d) reproduction

Answer: : (b)

Q. This is incorrect about the nature of genetic code.

Codons are

(a) universal

(b) overlapping

(d) triplet

Answer: : (b)

Q. This elongation factor is known as translocase

(a) EFG

(b) EF2

(d) EF-Tu and EF-Ts

Answer: : (c)

MCQs on Cycas

Q. __________ is a connecting link between gymnosperms and angiosperms

(a) Cycadales

(b) Ginkgoales

(d) Gnetales

Answer: : (d)

Q. In Cycas, the endosperm is a

(a) post fertilization product and diploid

(b) post fertilization product and haploid

(d) pre fertilization product and haploid

Answer: : (d)

Q. This is considered to be a living fossil

(a) Podocarpus

(b) Zamia

(d) Pinus

Answer: : (c)

Q. The reason why Cycas is not classified under dicotyledons plants even though it has an embryo with two cotyledons is

(a) it appears as a palm tree

(b) it possesses megasporophyll

(d) its ovules are naked

Answer: : (d)

Q. This is the most commonly occurring ornamental species of Cycas

(a) Cycas revoluta

(b) Cycas beddomei

(d) Cycas rumphii

Answer: : (a)
Q. In Cycas, the fern characteristic is

(a) reticulate venation

(b) circinate venation

(d) coralloid roots

Answer: : (b)

Q. In Cycas, the spermatozoid is

(a) Multiciliated

(b) uniflagellate

(d) biflagellate

Answer: : (a)

Q. The stem of the Cycas is a source of edible starch known as

(a) sigo

(b) cycas starch

(d) cyco

Answer: : (c)

Q. The Cycas has

(a) oil ducts

(b) resin ducts

(d) mucilage ducts

Answer: : (d)

Q. The largest sperms are found in this plant

(a) Pinus

(b) Sunflower

(d) Cycas

Answer: : (d)

MCQs on Morphology of a Bacteria
Q. Which of this bacteria is resistant to penicillin as it lacks a cell wall?

(a) Spirochetes

(b) Cyanobacteria

(d) Bdellovibrios

Answer: :: (c)

Q. What is a cluster of polar flagella called?

(a) Petritrichous

(b) Monotrichous

(d) Lophotrichous

Answer: :: (d)

Q. Which of these is a cocci occurring in single or pairs?

(a) Diplococci

(b) Streptococci

(d) None of the above

Answer: :: (a)

Q. Flagella in bacteria enable them to

(a) reproduce

(b) locomote

(d) Adhere to tissue surfaces

Answer: :: (b)

Q. This about cell wall of gram-positive bacteria is true

(a) cell wall comprises of many layers

(b) the cell wall is thicker than the associated gram-negative bacteria

(d) All of the above

Answer: :: (d)

Q. What is Chemotaxis?

(a) Swimming towards a bacteria

(b) Swimming away of a bacteria

(d) None of these

Answer: :: (c)

Q. Which of these is exposed on the outer surface of a gram-negative bacterium?

(a) Braun lipoprotein

(b) O-antigen of lipopolysaccharide (LPS)

(d) Electron transport system components

Answer: :: (b)

Q. The covalent bond which links the cell walls of gram-positive bacteria containing two modified sugars – N – acetylmuramic acid (NAM) and N-acetyl glucosamine (NAG) is

(a) glycosidic bond

(b) 1,4-glycosidic bond

(d) glycosidic bond

Answer: :: (b)

Q. Which one of these has a Chinese letter arrangement?

(a) Clostridium tetani

(b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

(d) Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Answer: :: (d)

Q. This is analogous to mesosomes of bacteria

(a) Golgi apparatus of eukaryotes

(b) Lysosomes of eukaryotes

(d) None of the above

Answer: :: (c)
—————————————————————————————————————————————-
MCQs on Meiosis
Q. The evolutionary advantage of meiosis can be best explained by which of these statements?

(a) Meiosis alternates with mitosis from one to the next generation

(b) Meiosis is essential for sexual reproduction

(d) Genetic recombination is possible from one to next generation

Answer: :: (d)

Q. One of these events does not take place during meiosis

(a) One successive division without any DNA replication

(b) Chiasmata formation and crossing over

(d) Separation of sister chromatids

Answer: :: (a)

Q. The meiotic division takes place in

(a) Meristematic cells

(b) Conductive cells

(d) Vegetative cells

Answer: :: (c)

Q. Name the event wherein the paternal and maternal chromosomes change their material with each other in cell division

(a) Crossing over

(b) Synapsis

(d) Bivalent forming

Answer: :: (a)

Q. The reason for daughter cells to differ from parent cells and also each other in meiosis is;

(a) Segregation and crossing over

(b) Segregation and independent assortment

(d) Independent assortment and crossing over

Answer: :: (c)

Q. Continuous variations are due to

(a) Mutation

(b) Crossing over

(d) Chromosomal aberrations

Answer: :: (b)

Q. Synapsis takes place between

(a) Spindle fibre and centromere

(b) mRNA and ribosomes

(d) Two homologous chromosomes

Answer: :: (d)

Q. Mendelian factor (Aa) is segregated during

(a) Anaphase I

(b) Anaphase II

(d) Zygotene/Pachytene

Answer: :: (a)

Q. The stage of prophase I wherein crossing over occurs is

(a) Zygotene

(b) Diplotene

(d) Pachytene

Answer: :: (d)

Q. Meiosis I is reductional division and meiosis II is equational division because of

(a) Separation of chromatids

(b) Crossing over

(d) The pairing of homologous chromosomes

Answer: :: (a)
—————————————————————————————————————————————
MCQs on Muscular Dystrophy
Q. One of the ways scientists suggest to find a treatment for muscular dystrophy is

(a) replacing muscles

(b) create customized diets for them to be healthier and stronger

(d) none of these

Answer: :: (c)

Q. Define muscular dystrophy

(a) Diseases which destruct the muscles of the body

(b) diseases which cause the muscles to get disproportionate

(d) diseases which do not allow muscles to grow

Answer: :: (a)

Q. Muscular dystrophy can affect

(a) Only humans

(b) Only animals

(d) Only plants

Answer: :: (c)

Q. Another way that scientists propose as a treatment to cure muscular dystrophy is

(a) Removal of defective genes

(b) Replacing defective genes after removing with parents genes again

(d) none of these

Answer: :: (c)

Q. _____________ is not a form of muscular dystrophy

(a) Lunar dystrophy

(b) Myotonic dystrophy

(d) Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy

Answer: :: (a)

Q. The protein whose production gets affected in Duchenne muscular dystrophy is

(a) Actin

(b) Myotropin

(d) Leucovorin

Answer: :: (c)

Q. The gene responsible for causing Duchenne muscular dystrophy is found on

(a) Y chromosome

(b) X chromosome

(d) Autosomal chromosome number 8

Answer: :: (b)

Q. The enzyme, whose blood levels is increased in patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy is

(a) Carbonic anhydrase

(b) Dystrophin kinase

(d) Creatinine phosphokinase

Answer: :: (d)

Q. Duchenne muscular dystrophy can be cured with

(a) Allopurinol

(b) Creatinine phosphokinase inhibitors

(d) None of these

Answer: :: (d)

Q. The involvement of this muscle affects the breathing in Duchenne muscular dystrophy

(a) Triceps

(b) Biceps

(d) Quadriceps

Answer: :: (c)
—————————————————————————————————————————————-
MCQs on ECG
Q. ECG (Electrocardiogram) was developed first by

(a) Wilhelm His

(b) Steward

(d) Willem Einthoven

Answer: :: (d)

Q. This is the classic ECG change in MI (myocardial infarction)

(a) ST-segment elevation

(b) T-wave inversion

(d) All of these

Answer: :: (d)

Q. In which of these conditions can widen QRS and Tall-tented T waves be observed?

(a) Hyponatremia

(b) Hyperkalemia

(d) Hyperphosphatemia

Answer: :: (b)

Q. Hypokalemia is the condition of low potassium levels in your blood. Hypokalemia ECG changes are observed by

(a) ST segment elevation

(b) U wave (a position deflection after the T wave)

(d) Widening of the QRS complex and increased amplitude

Answer: :: (b)

Q. A normal ECG report must consist of the following information

(a) Rhythm, cardiac axis

(b) Conduction intervals

(d) All of these

Answer: :: (d)

Q. For the normal heartbeat, depolarization stimulus originates in

(a) His-bundle areas

(b) Epicardium

(d) Atrioventricular (AV) node

Answer: :: (c)

Q. The characteristics – slurring of the initial QRS deflection, shortened PR interval, and prolonged QRS duration are of this condition

(a) Atrial tachycardia

(b) Left bundle branch block

(d) Myocardial ischemia

Answer: :: (c)

Q. P wave indicates

(a) Depolarization of right ventricle

(b) Depolarization of left ventricle

(d) Atria to ventricular conduction time

Answer: :: (c)

Q. Ventricular muscle depolarization is indicated by

(a) PR interval

(b) P wave

(d) The QRS complex

Answer: :: (d)

Q. ECG identified by the PR interval tends to become longer with every succeeding ECG complex until there is a P wave not followed by a QRS is observed in

(a) Third-Degree Atrioventricular Block

(B) Second-Degree Atrioventricular Block, Type II

(D) First-Degree Atrioventricular Block, Type II

Answer: :: (c)
———————————————————————————————————————————————
MCQs on Coronary artery
Q. Coronary artery disease (CAD) can be determined by this test

(a) Cardiac catherization

(b) Electrocardiogram

(d) all of these

Answer: :: (d)

Q. The modifiable risk factor associated with coronary artery disease is

(a) Age

(b) Obesity

(d) Gender

Answer: :: (b)

Q. This is one of the symptoms of Coronary artery disease

(a) Sleep problems

(b) Headache

(d) Pain or discomfort in the chest, lower jaw or arms

Answer: :: (d)

Q. If a stent is not used in a few cases who have coronary angioplasty done, the artery tends to narrow down or get blocked again in 6 months. This is more likely to happen if:

(a) one smokes

(b) one has unstable angina before the procedure

(d) all of these

Answer: :: (d)

Q. Coronary angioplasty, part of CAD’s treatment involves:

(a) A new part of artery replaces the blocked section

(b) to expand artery, medication is used

(d) None of these

Answer: :: (c)

Q. Doctors place a stent inside the artery during angioplasty. A stent is a

(a) A new fragment of the artery

(b) A wire mesh tube

(d) A slow-release medicine capsule

Answer: :: (b)

Q. The __________ branches into Circumflex artery and left anterior descendary artery

(a) Left main coronary artery

(b) right marginal artery

(d) None of these

Answer: :: (a)

Q. One of these is not a symptom of acute coronary syndrome

(a) ST Segment elevation myocardial infarction

(b) Non ST segment elevation myocardial infarction

(d) No episodes of dyspnea

Answer: :: (d)

Q. Ischemia is

(a) restriction of blood supply to tissues

(b) Overflow of blood to tissues

(d) the medical term for shortness of breath

Answer: :: (a)

Q. This is the role of the coronary artery

(a) to carry blood away from the heart muscles

(b) to supply blood to heart muscles

(d) none of these

Answer: :: (b)
————————————————————————————————————————————-
Plant Taxonomy MCQs
Q. Which of these is the most advanced phylogenetically among the dicotyledonous families?

(a) Scrophulariaceae

(b) Acanthaceae

(d) Compositae

Answer: :: (d)

Q. The substitute for the newly collected specimen when the original type material is missing in a herbarium is entitled as

(a) Holotype

(b) Neotype

(d) Isotype

Answer: :: (b)

Q. If all the puddles and ponds are destroyed, the entities likely to be destroyed are

(a) Plasmodium

(b) Ascaris

(d) Trypanosoma

Answer: :: (a)

Q. In the five-kingdom system of classification, into which kingdom would you classify nitrogen-fixing organisms and archaea?

(a) Fungi

(b) Plantae

(d) Monera

Answer: :: (d)

Q. This is considered as a demerit of the ‘Engler and Prantl’ in the system of classification

(a) Gymnosperms are placed between monocotyledons and dicotyledons

(b) Dicotyledons are placed after monocotyledons

(d) Gymnosperms are placed among Dicotyledons

Answer: :: (b)

Q. Phenetic classification is based on

(a) Observable characteristics of existing entities

(b) The ancestral lineage of existing organisms

(d) Sexual characteristics

Answer: :: (a)

Q. Difference between the natural system of plant classification and artificial system of classification is

(a) Considers only one vegetative character

(b) Considers all the similarities between plants

(d) All of the above

Answer: :: (b)

Q. This system of classification was used by Linnaeus

(a) Phylogenetic system

(b) Natural system

(d) Asexual system

Answer: :: (c)

Q. Pick the right sequence of taxonomic categories

(a) division-class-family-tribe-order-genus-species

(b) division-class-family-order-tribe-genus-species

(d) division-order-class-family-genus-tribe-species

Answer: :: (c)

Q. ‘New Systematics’ term was coined by

(a) Linnaeus

(b) Bentham and Hooker

(d) Juliane Huxley

Answer: :: (d)
—————————————————————————————————————————————–
MCQs on Thyroid Gland
Q. The main hormone secreted by the Thyroid gland

(a) T4

(b) T3

(d) TSH

Answer: :: (C)

Q. Iodine deficiency can cause

(a) Goitre

(b) Thyroid cancer

(d) Thyroiditis

Answer: :: (a)

Q. Grave’s disease or Basedow’s disease is due to

(a) Hyperactivity of adrenal cortex

(b) Hypoactivity of the thyroid gland

(d) Hypoactivity of islets of Langerhans

Answer: :: (c)

Q. The four small glands in the thyroid gland are known as

(a) Adrenal gland

(b) Pineal gland

(d) Endocrine and exocrine gland

Answer: :: (c)

Q. Sometimes, the thyroid symptoms are mistaken for which condition?

(a) Menopause

(b) Posttraumatic stress

(d) Crohn’s disease

Answer: :: (a)

Q. Medications for hypothyroidism include treatment that:

(a) Replaces insulin

(b) Replaces ADH

(d) Replaces surfactant

Answer: :: (c)

Q. Which of these diseases is not related to thyroid glands?

(a) Cretinism

(b) Myxoedema

(d) Acromegaly

Answer: :: (d)

Q. In chronically deficient patients, this abnormality is directly related to the enlargement of the thyroid gland

(a) Impaired conversion of T3 and T4

(b) Reduced activity of thyroperoxidase

(d) An antibody that binds to the TSH receptor in the thyroid gland

Answer: :: (c)

Q. ____________ encloses thyroid, responsible for its movement during swallowing

(a) Prevertebral fascia

(b) Pretracheal fascia

(d) Superficial fascia

Answer: :: (b)

Q. This condition of chronic inflammation of the thyroid leading to under-activity is

(a) Thyroiditis

(b) Goitre

(d) Hyperthyroidism

Answer: :: (a)
———————————————————————————————————————————-
MCQs on Plant systematics
Q. The level of taxonomic study related to biological aspects of taxa, inclusive of intraspecific populations, speciation, evolutionary trends and rates is

(a) theta taxonomy

(b) alpha taxonomy

(d) gamma taxonomy

Answer: :: (d)

Q. The process wherein the labellum in Orchidaceae surfaces at the anterior side via the twisting of the ovary through 180 degree

(a) Articulation

(b) Adnation

(d) Resupination

Answer: :: (d)

Q. The organization of taxonomic information in logical classification is known as

(a) Phenetic

(b) Systematics

(d) Phylogenetic

Answer: :: (b)

Q. One of these is not a plant fossil

(a) Rhynia

(b) Lepidocarpon

(d) Archaeopteryx

Answer: :: (d)

Q. The primary advantage of Bentham and Hookers classification is

(a) It is a system whose basis is on evolutionary concepts

(b) It is a natural system of classification of all plant groups

(d) The taxa description is based on the actual examination of the specimens

Answer: :: (d)

Q. Α taxonomy pertains to

(a) Chemotaxonomy

(b) Phylogeny

(d) Experimental taxonomy

Answer: :: (c)

Q. To comprehend general plant relationships, this is one of the best methods

(a) Experimental Taxonomy

(b) Numerical Taxonomy

(d) Chemotaxonomy

Answer: :: (d)

Q. The condition of Polyadelphous can be found in

(a) Rutaceae

(b) Leguminosae

(d) Liliaceae

Answer: :: (a)

Q. Linnaeus is credited with the following

(a) Law of Limiting factor

(b) Binomial nomenclature

(d) Theory of heredity

Answer: :: (b)

Q. The reason why the system of plant classification proposed by Carolus Linnaeus was artificial is

(a) Because it considered the physiological facts along with the morphological traits

(b) Because it was based on the similarities and differences in floral and other morphological characters only

(d) None of these

Answer: :: (b)
—————————————————————————————————————————————–
MCQs on Diversity in Living World
Q. Compared to genus, which of the following is less general in characters?

(a) Family

(b) Species

(d) Class

Answer: :: (b)
Q. For wheat, which of the following combinations is correct?

(a) Genus Triticum, family Poaceae, order Poales, Class Monocotyledonae

(b) Genus Triticum, family Poaceae, order Poales, Class Dicotyledonae

(d) Genus Triticum, family Anacardiaceae, order Poales, Class Monocotyledonae

Answer: :: (a)

Q. Regulation of cells’ activity takes place through

(a) Flow of substances

(b) Flow of energy

(d) Flow of smoke

Answer: :: (b)

Q. Assertion(a): “Biological species” concept helps to ask how species are formed

Reason(r): Concept of biological species is centred around the question of how reproductive isolation comes about

(a) Both (a) and (r) are correct, but (r) is not the explanation for (a)

(b) Both (a) and (r) are correct, (r) is the correct explanation for (a)

(d) (a) is true, (r) is incorrect

Answer: :: (d)

Q. The correct sequence of taxonomic categories is:

(a) Species -> genus -> order -> phylum

(b) Species -> order -> genus-> kingdom

(d) None of these

Answer: :: (a)

Q. Taxonomic hierarchy refer to

(a) Classification of species based on the fossil record

(b) A list of botanists or zoologists who have worked on the taxonomy of a species or group

(d) Stepwise arrangement of all categories for classification of animals and plants

Answer: :: (d)

Q. Which one of these categories has real existence?

(a) Species

(b) Genus

(d) Phylum

Answer: :: (a)

Q. A true species comprises of a population

(a) Interbreeding

(b) Sharing the same niche

(d) Feeding over the same food

Answer: :: (c)

Q. Nicotiana sylvestris flowers only during long days while N.tabacum flowers only during short days. Under different photoperiods, they can be induced to flower at the same time and can be cross-fertilized to produce self-fertile offsprings. What is the best reason for considering Nicotiana sylvestris and N.tabacum as separate species?

(a) They are reproductively distinct

(b) They fail to interbreed in nature

(d) They are distinct morphologically

Answer: :: (b)

Q. One of the first acts in taxonomy is

(a) Identification

(b) Description

(d) Classification

Answer: :: (a)

Q. The common characteristics between tomato and potato will be maximum at the level of their

(a) family

(b) genus

(d) order

Answer: :: (a)

Q. A taxon is

(a) a type of living organisms

(b) a group of related species

(d) a taxonomic group of any ranking

Answer: :: (d)

Q. The living organisms can be unexceptionable distinguished from the nonliving things on the basis of their ability for

(a) responsiveness to touch

(b) reproduction

(d) growth and movement

Answer: :: (a)

Q. ICBN stands for

(a) International Code of Botanical Nomenclature

(b) Indian Congress of Biological Names

(d) Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature

Answer: :: (a)

Q. Biosystematics aims at

(a) delimiting various taxa of organisms and establishing their relationships

(b) the classification of organisms based on broad morphological characters

(d) the classification of organisms based on their evolutionary history and establishing their phylogeny on the totality of various parameters from all fields of studies

Answer: :: (d)

Q. The label of a herbarium sheet does not carry information on

(a) local names

(b) name of collector

(d) height of the plant

Answer: :: (d)

Q. Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is contrary to the rules of nomenclature?

(a) The first word in a biological name represents the genus name and the second is a specific epithet.

(b) The names are written in Latin and are italicised.

(d) When written by hand the names are to be underlined.

Answer: :: (c)
—————————————————————————————————————————————-
MCQs on Amniocentesis
Q. Amniocentesis, chorionic villi and alpha-fetoprotein sampling are performed to determine_____.

(a) The most likely date of birth of the foetus

(b) Whether the baby will be normal or abnormal

(d) A and B

Answer: :: (b)

Q. Which of the following tests cannot be examined by Amniocentesis procedure?

(a) Chromosome analysis

(b) Detecting genetic defects

(d) None of these

Answer: :: (d)

Q. The fluid sample required for performing the Amniocentesis test is ________.

(a) The amnion

(b) The placenta

(d) All of the above

Answer: :: (c)

Q. How many days are required for the Amniocentesis tests results?

(a) 1 day

(b) 1-2 days

(d) 3-4 weeks

Answer: :: (d)

Q. The amniocentesis procedure is not done before the _________ week after conception.

(a) 4th-5th

(b) 6th-8th

(d) 15th-16th

Answer: :: (d)

Q. Which of these procedures has the least risk for an unborn child?

(a) Amniocentesis

(b) Alpha-fetoprotein sampling

(d) All have the same risk level

Answer: :: (b)

Q. Amniocentesis is a prenatal diagnostic test, which can also determine whether an unborn child will have __________ or not.

(a) Obesity

(b) Diabetes

(d) All of the above

Answer: :: (c)

Q. Which of the following sentence is true for the chorion?

(a) The organ in the uterus connected to the fetus by the umbilical cord

(b) The sac or pouch-like organ within uterus containing the amniotic fluid surrounding the fetus

(d) None of the above

Answer: :: (c)

Q. Which of the following procedure is involved in injecting a small flexible plastic tube into the uterus through the vagina?

(a) Amniocentesis

(b) Alpha-fetoprotein screening

(d) None of the above

Answer: :: (c)

Q. Which of the following medical conditions are responsible for producing incorrect Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) screening results and indicating a fetus has genetic defects?

(a) The mother is anaemic

(b) The mother has Rh-negative blood

(d) All the above

Answer: :: (b)
————————————————————————————————————————————-
Thalassemia MCQs
Q. This statement is true about Thalassemia

(a) There is a type of thalassemia depending on the number of mutations in genes

(b) It is caused by mutations in the DNA of cells which make up the haemoglobin

(d) All of these

Answer: :: (d)

Q. This is not a symptom of Thalassemia disease

(a) Abdominal cramps

(b) Weakness and slow growth

(d) Facial bone deformities

Answer: :: (a)

Q. This type of thalassemia disease is Cooley anaemia

(a) Alloimmunization

(b) Beta-thalassemia

(d) None of these

Answer: :: (b)

Q. Name the blood test which can detect if a person is a carrier of thalassemia

(a) Prenatal testing

(b) A complete blood count (CBC)

(d) All of these

Answer: :: (d)

Q. Treatment that can be given to thalassemia patients

(a) Stem cell or bone marrow transplant

(b) Blood transfusions

(d) All of the above

Answer: :: (d)

Q. Possible complications of thalassemia

(a) Infection

(b) Iron overload

(d) Both A and B

Answer: :: (d)

Q. The complications that can occur in severe thalassemia is

(a) Enlarged spleen

(b) Bone deformities

(d) All of these

Answer: :: (d)

Q. Factors leading to an increase in the risk of thalassemia disease

(a) Certain ancestry

(b) Family history of thalassemia

(d) Both A and B

Answer: :: (d)

Q. This about alpha-thalassemia is correct

(a) Number of gene mutations decide the severity of the condition

(b) Haemoglobin fails to produce enough alpha protein in alpha-thalassemia

(d) All of the above

Answer: :: (d)

Q. This about beta-thalassemia is true

(a) two genes are necessary to make beta-globin chains

(b) Mutation of genes decide the severity of the condition

(d) All of these

Answer: :: (d)
——————————————————————————————————————————————
Apiculture MCQs

1. Amongst honey bees, the workers are:

(a) Female

(b) Male

(d) Hermaphrodite

Answer: :: (a)

2. The generic name of which of these is Apis?

(a) Fish

(b) Honey bee

(d) Prawn

Answer: :: (b)

3. Apis dorsata is used to refer to

(a) Little bee

(b) Indian bee

(d) Rock bee

Answer: :: (d)

4. The honey bee is of greatest use to mankind as:

(a) It is of medicinal benefits

(b) Helps in cross-pollination

(d) None of these

Answer: :: (b)

5. Nature of honey is

(a) Acidic

(b) Alkaline

(d) Turns basic after a few days

Answer: :: (a)

6. Honey is

(a) Nectar of a flower

(b) Nectar stored in the honey sac

(d) Nectar and water sucked by honey bee

Answer: :: (c)

7. The bee carries the pollen back to its colony on:

(a) Its body

(b) Its middle legs

(d) Its rear legs

Answer: :: (d)

8. The chief constituent of honey is

(a) Disaccharides

(b) Monosaccharide

(d) Fats

Answer: :: (b)

9. For how long does a worker bee live in the summer?

(a) For 2 weeks

(b) For 2 months

(d) For 6 months

Answer: :: (b)

10. The development of a male bee (drone) takes how long?

(a) 16 days

(b) 19 days

(d) 24 days

Answer: :: (d)
——————————————————————————————————————————————–
MCQ’S ON Amoebiasis

Q. Amoebiasis causes

(a) Headache and cold

(b) Dysentry

(d) Severe cold

Answer: :: (b)

Q. Amoebiasis is caused by

(a) Toxoplasma gondii

(b) Entamoeba histolytica

(d) None of these

Answer: :: (b)

Q. Entamoeba histolytica can be cultured in

(a) Diamond’s medium

(b) CLED medium

(d) MacConkey agar

Answer: :: (a)

Q. Presence of ingested RBCs is a characteristic feature of

(a) Entamoeba histolytica

(b) Dientamoeba fragilis

(d) Iodamoeba butcheli

Answer: :: (a)

Q. The most common site for amoebiasis is:

(a) Cecum

(b) Sigmoid colon

(d) Hepatic flexure

Answer: :: (a)

Q. Amoebiasis is transmitted by

(a) Direct contact with dirty hands

(b) Sexual contact

(d) All of these

Answer: :: (d)

Q. Differentiation between pathogenic and non-pathogenic strains can be done by

(a) Phagocytic activity

(b) Use of genetic markers

(d) All of these

Answer: :: (d)

Q. In tissues, amoebiasis is treated with

(a) Tinidazole

(b) Nitazoxanide

(d) Any of these

Answer: :: (d)

Q. The karyosome of Entamoeba histolytica is

(a) liver

(b) progressive

(d) even

Answer: :: (c)

Q. Entamoeba histolytica cysts have _________ nuclei

(a) 1-4

(b) 5

(d) 6-8

Answer: :: (a)

Q. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. amoebiasis.

(a) Causes dysentery

(b) Parasite of the small intestine

(d) Symptoms include constipation, abdominal pain and cramp.

Answer: :: (b)
———————————————————————————————————————————–
Parenchyma Cells MCQs
Q. Mostly, the flesh of fruit is made of

(a) Collenchyma

(b) Parenchyma

(d) Schlerids

Answer: :: (b)
Q. Prosenchyma is a type of

(a) Chlorenchyma

(b) Collenchyma

(d) Parenchyma

Answer: :: (d)

Q. The tissue where cells are thin-walled, living, isodiametric along with intercellular spaces is

(a) Arenchyma

(b) Prosenchyma

(d) Parenchyma

Answer: :: (d)

Q. The plant tissue with the following characteristics is –

– Oval/round-shaped cells

– Cells have a living protoplasm and are dense

– Cell wall is made of cellulose or hemicellulose

– Thin-walled cells

(a) Parenchyma

(b) Collenchyma

(d) Epidermis

Answer: :: (a)

Q. The main purpose that the aerenchyma serves in Parenchyma is

(a) Offers flexibility

(b) Renders Buoyancy

(d) Provides mechanical support

Answer: :: (b)

Q. Which of this is not a function that Parenchyma performs

(a) Stores nutrients and food

(b) Aids in regeneration, healing and repairs wounds

(d) None of these

Answer: :: (d)

Q. The tissue that provides maximum mechanical strength to the plant is

(a) Xylem

(b) Phloem

(d) Collenchyma

Answer: :: (a)

Q. Parenchyma cells in the spongy mesophyll exhibit large intercellular spaces promoting:

(a) To become nutrients for the future germinating embryo

(b) Greater exposure to carbon dioxide

(d) No specific reason

Answer: :: (b)

Q. Vessels are found in

(a) Most of the angiosperms and few gymnosperms

(b) All angiosperms and some gymnosperms

(d) All pteridophytes

Answer: :: (a)

Q. The main difference between parenchyma, collenchyma and sclerenchyma is that

(a) Parenchyma is involved in photosynthesis, secretion and storage

(b) Collenchyma is involved in support and transportation of nutrients

(d) All of these

Answer: :: (d)
—————————————————————————————————————————————————-
Parthenocarpy MCQs
Q. The process by which fruits are developed without fertilization is called _________.

(a) Apomixis

(b) Parthenocarpy

(d) Self-pollination

Answer: :: (b)

Q. In which of the plant species, parthenocarpy takes place?

(a) Mango

(b) Banana

(d) Jackfruit

Answer: :: (b)

Q. Which of these plants will lose their economic value if its fruits are as a result of induced parthenocarpy?

(a) Banana

(b) Orange

(d) Pomegranate

Answer: :: (d)

Q. Which of the following plant hormones stimulates the development of parthenocarpic fruit?

(a) Auxin

(b) Cytokinin

(d) All of the above

Answer: :: (d)

Q. Which of the following statement is false about parthenocarpy?

(a) Fruits developed are seedless

(b) The Ovary is stimulated with pollination

(d) None of the above

Answer: :: (b)

Q. The fruit in tomato is classified into _____.

(a) Pepo

(b) Pome

(d) Berry

Answer: :: (d)

Q. Which of the following statement is false about Fabaceae?

(a) It was earlier mentioned to as Papilionoideae

(b) It is widely distributed across the world

(d) It is a subfamily of family Leguminosae

Answer: :: (c)

Q. Which of the following statement is false about Hilum?

(a) Hilum lies underneath micropyle

(b) Ccar over the seed coat

(d) All of the above

Answer: :: (a)

Q. What is the fruit of wheat and rice called?

(a) Follicle

(b) Caryopsis

(d) Achene

Answer: :: (b)

Q. Which of the following is not an agricultural product?

(a) Rice

(b) Jute

(d) Cotton

Answer: :: (c)
—————————————————————————————————————————————-
MCQ’S ON Pteridophyta
Q. In which of the following groups would you place a plant that produces spores, lacks seeds and has vascular tissue?

(a) Bryophyte

(b) Algae

(d) Gymnosperm

Answer: :: (c)

Q. In Pteridophytes, the dominant generation is

(a) gametophytic

(b) haploid

(d) triploid

Answer: :: (c)

Q. Reduction division in pteridophytes occurs in

(a) Prothallus is formed

(b) Gametes are formed

(d) sex organs are formed

Answer: :: (c)

Q. Prothallus represents

(a) sporophytic phase in a fern

(b) gametophytic phase in a fern

(d) gametophytic phase in a gymnosperm

Answer: :: (b)

Q. Pteridophytes and Bryophytes differ in having

(a) Spermatozoids

(b) Archegonia

(d) conducting system

Answer: :: (d)

Q. Which of the following is deemed to be vital in the development of seed habit?

(a) Heterospory

(b) Dependant sporophyte

(d) Haplontic life cycle

Answer: :: (a)

Q. Sporophytic and gametophytic phases are independent in

(a) Bryophytes

(b) Pteridophytes

(d) Gymnosperms

Answer: :: (b)

Q. ‘Club moss’ belongs to

(a) Fungi

(b) Algae

(d) Pteridophyta

Answer: :: (d)

Q. Phloem is without ___________ in pteridophytes

(a) Bast fibres

(b) Companion cells

(d) sieve cells

Answer: :: (b)

Q. This group does not have seeds but has vascular tissues and produces spores

(a) Pteridophyta

(b) Bryophyta

(d) Gymnosperms

Answer: :: (a)

————————————————————————————————————————————
Seed Germination MCQs

Q. A few normal seedlings of tomato were placed in a dark room. After a few days, they were found to have turned white-coloured like albinos. Which of these can be used to describe them?

(a) Defoliated

(b) Etiolated

(d) Mutated

Answer: :: (b)

Q. Gibberellins can facilitate seed germination due to their influence on

(a) synthesis of abscisic acid

(b) rate of cell division

(d) absorption of water through the hard seed coat

Answer: :: (c)

Q. An enzyme which can stimulate the germination of barley seeds is

(a) Invertase

(b) Lipase

(d) α-amylase

Answer: :: (d)

Q. During the germination of seeds, the seed coat ruptures due to

(a) massive imbibition of water

(b) differentiation of cotyledons

(d) massive glycolysis in cotyledons and endosperm

Answer: :: (a)

Q. The proteinaceous part of maize endosperm is

(a) Peripheral layer

(b) scutellum

(d) Aleurone layer

Answer: :: (d)

Q. One of these gases is required for the germination of pea seeds

(a) nitrogen

(b) oxygen

(d) hydrogen

Answer: :: (b)

Q. Seed dormancy allows the plants to

(a) develop healthy seeds

(b) reduce viability

(d) prevent deterioration of seeds

Answer: :: (c)

Q. The protective covering over radical during the germination of seeds is

(a) Coleoptile

(b) Epithelium

(d) Coleorhiza

Answer: :: (d)

Q. Which of these compounds can induce seed dormancy?

(a) Potassium nitrate

(b) ABA

(d) Ethylene

Answer: :: (b)

Q. An albuminous seed showing hypogeal germination is

(a) bean

(b) castor

(d) maize

Answer: :: (d)
———————————————————————————————————————————————–
Life Processes MCQs
Q. Entities exhibiting properties of both non-living and living are:

(a) diatoms

(b) lichens

(d) viruses

Answer: :: (d)

Q. This has a smaller intestine

(a) carnivore

(b) herbivore

(d) none of the above

Answer: :: (a)

Q. Which of these substances is transported by the blood plasma?

(a) Carbon dioxide

(b) Nitrogenous waste

(d) All of the above

Answer: :: (d)

Q. Here, the maximum exchange of material between blood and surrounding cells takes place

(a) Veins

(b) Heart

(d) Arteries

Answer: :: (c)

Q. In photosynthesis, the chlorophyll is used for

(a) No function

(b) reduction of carbon dioxide

(d) absorbing light

Answer: :: (d)

Q. The enzymes found in intestinal juice finally convert

(a) fats into fatty acids and glycerol

(b) proteins to amino acids

(d) all of these

Answer: :: (d)

Q. The respiratory pigment in human beings is

(a) insulin

(b) enzymes

(d) none of these

Answer: :: (c)

Q. This structure guards the opening of the hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum

(a) Pyloric sphincter

(b) Sphincter of Oddi

(d) Ileocaecal valve

Answer: :: (b)

Q. Pick the correct one

(a) Serum = Blood + Fibrinogen

(b) Lymph = Plasma + RBC + WBC

(d) Blood = Plasma + RBC + WBC

Answer: :: (d)

Q. Reduction of blood pH will

(a) reduces the rate of heartbeat

(b) reduces the blood supply to the brain

(d) decrease the affinity of haemoglobin with oxygen

Answer: :: (d)
——————————————————————————————————————————————
MCQ’S ON ECOSYSTEM
Q. In an ecosystem, which one of the following types of entities occupies more than one trophic level?

(a) Frog

(b) Phytoplankton

(d) Fish

Answer: :: (d)

Q. The rate at which food energy is assimilated at the trophic level of consumers is known as

(a) Gross primary productivity

(b) Net primary productivity

(d) None of the above

Answer: :: (c)

Q. Limitations of ecological pyramids involve all these statements, except

(a) they assume a simple food chain and do not consider food webs

(b) in the ecological pyramids, saprotrophs are not given any place

(d) they do not represent relationships between organisms at different trophic levels

Answer: :: (d)

Q. This entity will be the first one to colonize a bare rock

(a) Herbs and shrubs

(b) Annual plants

(d) Perennial plants

Answer: :: (c)

Q. During ecological succession

(a) types and numbers of animals remain constant

(b) establishment of a new biotic community is fast in its primary phase

(d) changes lead to a community that is in near equilibrium with the environment and is

referred to as pioneer community

Answer: :: (c)

Q. This ecosystem has the maximum biomass

(a) Grassland ecosystem

(b) Pond ecosystem

(d) Forest ecosystem

Answer: :: (d)

Q. These are the primary producers of the deep-sea hydrothermal vent ecosystem

(a) blue-green algae

(b) coral reefs

(d) green algae

Answer: :: (c)

Q. This is a characteristic feature of cropland ecosystem

(a) Absence of weeds

(b) Ecological succession

(d) absence of soil entities

Answer: :: (c)

Q. At the producer level, if 20J of energy is trapped, then how much energy will be available to a peacock as food in the subsequent chain?

Plant -> Mice -> Snake -> Peacock

(a) 0.2 J

(b) 0.02 J

(d) 0.0002 J

Answer: :: (b)
———————————————————————————————————————————————
Human Brain MCQs
Q. The stimulation of a muscle fibre by a motor neuron occurs at the

(a) myofibril

(b) transverse tubules

(d) sarcoplasmic reticulum

Answer: :: (c)

Q. An injury sustained by the hypothalamus is most likely to interrupt

(a) coordination during locomotion

(b) short term memory

(d) executive function like decision making

Answer: :: (c)

Q. In humans, the Alzheimer disease is linked with the deficiency of

(a) acetylcholine

(b) dopamine

(d) Gamma Amino Butyric Acid (GABA)

Answer: :: (a)

Q. What is the person with these symptoms suffering from? Outbursts of emotions, unpredictable moods, quarrelsome behaviour, conflicts with others

(a) Mood disorders

(b) Addictive diroders

(d) Borderline personality disorder (BPD)

Answer: :: (d)

Q. Even after the brain of a frog has been crushed, it still responds to a pinch on the leg by drawing it away. This act is an example of

(a) Conditioned reflex

(b) Simple reflex

(d) Neurotransmitter induced response

Answer: :: (b)

Q. Which of these functions will be affected if the medulla oblongata is damaged?

(a) Vision

(b) Thermoregulation

(d) Tactile sensation – response when prickled with a needle

Answer: :: (d)

Q. This part of the human brain is also known as the emotional brain

(a) Epithalamus

(b) Limbic system

(d) Corpus callosum

Answer: :: (b)

Q. This is the outermost cranial appendage

(a) Dura mater

(b) Pia mater

(d) Arachnoid

Answer: :: (a)

Q. This cranial meninges is in close proximity of the brain tissue

(a) Dura mater

(b) Pia mater

(d) Skull tissue

Answer: :: (b)

Q. This statement is not associated with midbrain

(a) the ventral portion of the midbrain is composed of mainly four, round swellings known as

corpora quadrigemina

(b) located between thalamus of the forebrain and pons of the hindbrain

(d) hindbrain and midbrain constitute the brain stem

Answer: :: (a)
—————————————————————————————————————————————-
Structure of Eye MCQs

1. The main function of the cornea present in the human eye is

(a) structural support to the eye

(b) bends light before it reaches the lens

(d) contains a concentrated amount of cone cells on the correct orientation

Answer: :: (b)

2. The type of cells found in retina are

(a) Purkinje cells

(b) Schwann cells

(d) Amacrine cells

Answer: :: (d)

3. Where will the image of a distant object be formed when a person using a concave lens to correct vision, is not using glasses?

(a) behind retina

(b) in front of the retina

(d) on the yellow spot

Answer: :: (b)

4. A cornea transplant is never rejected in humans because

(a) it consists of enucleated cells

(b) it is a non-living layer

(d) its cells are least penetrable by bacteria

Answer: :: (c)

5. This is an incorrect statement

(a) rhodopsin is the purplish-red protein situated in rods only

(b) Retinal is a derivative of Vitamin C

(d) the rods in the retina have rhodopsin, a photopigment while cones have three different photopigments

Answer: :: (b)

6. The fovea is the mammalian eye is the centre of the visual field wherein

(a) the optic nerve exits the eye

(b) only rods are found

(d) no rods but a high density of cones occur

Answer: :: (d)

7. In the human eye, the photosensitive compound is composed of

(a) guanosine and retinol

(b) transducin and retinene

(d) opsin and retinal

Answer: :: (d)

8. The eye lens is

(a) Concave

(b) Convex

(d) Biconvex

Answer: :: (d)

9. The persistence of vision for the human eye is

(a) 1/6th of a second

(b) 1/10th of a second

(d) 1/18th of a second

Answer: :: (c)

10. What does the tapetum lucidum do?

(a) it is the coloured part of the eye

(b) gives animals night vision

(d) it is the area where the optic never attaches

Answer: :: (b)

11. The innermost layer and the most delicate layer of the eyeball where the photoreceptors are located are

(a) Chloroid

(b) Sclera

(d) Retina

Answer: :: (d)

12. This part of the eye dilates and contracts based on the environment

(a) Sclera

(b) Cornea

(d) Pupil

Answer: :: (d)

13. The transparent lens in the human eye is held in its place by

(a) smooth muscles attached to the iris

(b) ligaments attached to the ciliary body

(d) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body

Answer: :: (b)

14. The eye of octopus and the eye of cats show different patterns of structure, yet they perform similar functions. This is an example of

(a) Homologous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution

(b) Homologous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution

(d) Analogous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution

Answer: :: (c)

15. Which of these colours is least scattered by dust, fog, smoke?

(a) Yellow

(b) Red

(d) Violet

Answer: :: (b)
—————————————————————————————————————————————–
Carbon Cycle MCQs
1. This factor contributes to the carbon cycle

(a) fossil fuel combustion

(b) respiration

(d) all of these

Answer: :: (d)

2. The source of carbon to plants in the carbon cycle is

(a) fossil fuels

(b) carbonate rocks

(d) all of the above

Answer: :: (c)

3. The role of bacteria in the carbon cycle is

(a) Breakdown of organic compounds

(b) Chemosynthesis

(d) Assimilation of nitrogen compounds

Answer: :: (a)

4. In the carbon cycle, the human body returns carbon to the atmosphere through this way:

(a) formation of glucose

(b) waste products

(d) cellular respiration

Answer: :: (d)

5. Respiration and photosynthesis are central to this process

(a) nitrogen cycle

(b) phosphorous cycle

(d) sulphur cycle

Answer: :: (c)

6. The difference between the phosphorous cycle and carbon cycle lies in the fact that

(a) the phosphorous cycle does not include a gaseous phase but the carbon cycle does

(b) phosphorous does not enter living entities but carbon enters

(d) primary reservoir of the phosphorous cycle is the atmosphere, but rocks are the primary reservoirs for carbon cycle

Answer: :: (a)

7. Most of the global warming is due to the perturbation of which of these cycles?

(a) Global nitrogen cycle

(b) Global carbon cycle

(d) All of these cycles equally contribute

Answer: :: (b)

8. This carbon isotope is radioactive and very rare

(a) Carbon – 11

(b) Carbon – 12

(d) Carbon – 14

Answer: :: (d

9. By this method, the majority of carbon moves from the lithosphere to the atmosphere

(a) erosion

(b) deposition

(d) fossil fuel burning

Answer: :: (d)

10. These entities sequester most carbon from the atmosphere

(a) Plants

(b) Archaea

(d) Insects

Answer: :: (a)
————————————————————————————————————————————————–
MCQs on Enzyme
1. The nature of an enzyme is

(a) Lipid

(b) Vitamin

(d) Protein

Answer: :: (d)

2. In alcoholism, this enzyme is elevated

(a) acid phosphatase

(b) hepatitis

(d) glutamyl transpeptidase

Answer: :: (d)

3. With regards to enzyme action, this statement is incorrect

(a) Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase

(b) the substrate binds with the enzyme at its active site

(d) addition of a lot of succinates does not reverse the inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate

Answer: :: (d)

4. What is the count of genes that determine the synthesis of one enzyme?

(a) One

(b) Four

(d) Sixteen

Answer: :: (a)

5. This enzyme was first isolated and purified in the form of crystals

(a) Urease

(b) pepsin

(d) Ribonuclease

Answer: :: (a)

6. Macromolecule chitin is

(a) a simple polysaccharide

(b) sulphur containing polysaccharide

(d) nitrogen containing polysaccharide

Answer: :: (d)

7. Enzyme-driven metabolic pathways can be made more efficient by

(a) grouping enzymes into multienzyme free-floating complexes

(b) concentrating enzymes with specific cellular compartments

(d) all of these

Answer: :: (d)

8. Tryptophan synthetase of E.coli, a typical bifunctional oligomeric enzyme consists of

(a) a protein A and one subunit A

(b) a protein designated A

(d) a protein designated B

Answer: :: (c)

9. This statement about enzymes is true

(a) enzymes accelerate reactions by lowering the activation energy

(b) enzymes are proteins whose three-dimensional form is key to their function

(d) all of these

Answer: :: (d)

10. The enzyme COX-1 is vital for human health in this way:

(a) it is a chemical derivative of aspirin

(b) catalyzes the hormone-production which maintains the stomach lining

(d) helps in the transportation of carbon dioxide in the blood

Answer: :: (b)
—————————————————————————————————————————————–
DNA structure MCQs

Q. DNA fingerprinting recognizes the differences in

(a) satellite DNA

(b) bulk DNA

(d) both (a) and (c)

Answer: :: (d)

Q. This force can stabilize a DNA double-helix

(a) Hydrophilic sugar-phosphate groups are found on the exterior of the helix where interaction with water occurs

(b) Hydrophobic bases are present in the interior of the helix, each base-pair is stabilized by the same number of hydrogen bonds

(d) non-covalent N-glycosidic bonds may form between nitrogenous bases in opposite strands in the helix

Answer: :: (a)

Q. In this type of DNA replication, of the two newly formed molecules, one is purely a new one and the other is an old one

(a) dispersive

(b) conservative

(d) both (b) and (c)

Answer: :: (c)

Q. The process of DNA replication is affected by an enzyme known as

(a) Mutase

(b) Ligase

(d) Ribonuclease

Answer: :: (c)

Q. A DNA molecule in which both strands have radioactive thymidine is permitted to replicate in an environment that contains non-radioactive thymidine. What is the right number of DNA molecules which possess some radioactive thymidine post three duplications?

(a) one such molecule

(b) two such molecules

(d) eight such molecules

Answer: :: (b)

Q. If the DNA strand has nitrogenous base sequence ATTGCC, the mRNA will have?

(a) ATTGCA

(b) UGGACC

(d) ATCGCC

Answer: :: (c)

Q. The type of coiling in DNA is

(a) Zig-zag

(b) Left-handed

(d) Right-handed

Answer: :: (d)

Q. In DNA, the enzyme which breaks the H2 bonds is

(a) Ligase

(b) Helicase

(d) Polymerase

Answer: :: (b)

Q. The total DNA comprises what amount of cytoplasmic DNA in cells?

(a) 95-99%

(b) 65-75%

(d) 1-5%

Answer: :: (d)

Q. The bases are held together in a DNA double helix by hydrogen bonds. These bonds are

(a) Ionic bonds

(b) Covalent bonds

(d) Van der Waals forces

Answer: :: (c)
——————————————————————————————————————————————
Biodiversity MCQs

1. The most important reason for biodiversity loss in today’s age is

(a) over-exploitation

(b) co-extinctions

(d) fragmentation and habitat loss

Answer: :: (d)

2. Biodiversity loss can lead to everything except this

(a) increased resistance to the environmental perturbance

(b) a decline in plant production

(d) increased variability in pest and disease cycle

Answer: :: (a)

3. Which of these is not a reason accounting for greater biodiversity of tropics?

(a) more niche specialization

(b) availability of more solar energy

(d) large seasonal variations in environmental factors

Answer: :: (d)

4. The main difference between the ‘Sixth extinction’ and the previous five extinctions is that, the sixth extinction

(a) mainly affects plants

(b) mainly occurs on islands

(d) is exclusive of human activities

Answer: :: (c)

5. The hot spots of biodiversity are characterized by:

(a) low endemicity and low threat of extinction

(b) low endemicity and high threat of extinction

(d) high endemicity and high threat of extinction

Answer: :: (d)

6. Presence of plants organised into well defined vertical layers based on their heights can be best observed in

(a) grassland

(b) tropical savannah

(d) temperate forest

Answer: :: (c)

7. Which of these is related to Ex-situ conservation of threatened plants and animals?

(a) Biodiversity hotspots

(b) Wildlife safari parks

(d) Himalayan region

Answer: :: (b)

8. The region of biosphere reserve that is protected legally, where no human activity takes place is known as

(a) transition zone

(b) buffer zone

(d) restoration zone

Answer: :: (c)

9. Pick the correct match

(a) Stratification – Population

(b) Aerenchyma – Opuntia

(d) Parthenium hysterophorus – a threat to biodiversity

Answer: :: (d)

10. The National aquatic animal of India is

(a) Sea horse

(b) River Dolphin

(d) Gangetic shark

Answer: :: (b)
————————————————————————————————————————————————

Parts Of Plants MCQs

1. Which of the following factors promotes the opening of the stomatal aperture?

(a) A decrease in guard cell turgidity

(b) When the outer walls of the guard cells contracts

(d) The longitudinal orientation of the cellulose microfibrils in the cell wall of guard cells

Answer: :: (c)

2. Which of the following is made of dead cells?

(a) Phloem

(b) Phellem

(d) Xylem parenchyma

Answer: :: (b)

3. Which of the following statement are true about the Tyloses – the balloon-shaped structures?

(a) Characterise the sapwood

(b) Original in the lumen of vessels

(d) Are extensions of the xylem parenchyma cells into vessels

Answer: :: (d)

4. Which of the following events takes place in a ring girdled plant?

(a) The eath of the root first

(b) The death of the shoot first

(a) The shoots and the root dies first

(d) Neither the shoot nor the root will die

Answer: :: (c)

5. This is one of the most recent and valid explanations for stomatal movements.

(a) Starch hydrolysis

(b) Transpiration

(d) Potassium efflux and the influx

Answer: :: (d)

6. Which of the following are the primary water-conducting elements of xylem in gymnosperms?

(a) Fibres

(b) Vessels

(d) Transfusion tissue

Answer: :: (c)

7. Which of the following is not a lateral meristem?

(a) Phellogen

(b) Cork cambium

(d) Interfascicular cambium

Answer: :: (c)

8. In monocots, grafting is not possible as _________

(a) They show parallel venation

(b) they have scattered vascular bundles

(d) they are herbaceous

Answer: :: (c)

9. Vascular bundles are closed in monocots as:

(a) presence of vascular cambium between xylem and phloem

(b) presence of xylem and phloem

(d) xylem and phloem occur in separate bundles

Answer: :: (c)

10. Difference between heartwood and sapwood is that heartwood

(a) shows the presence of fibres and rays

(b) has dead and non-conducting elements

(d) is susceptible to pathogens and pests

Answer: :: (b)
——————————————————————————————————————————————–
Kingdom Fungi MCQs

1. This fungi division includes ‘Club fungi’

(a) Zygomycota

(b) Deuteromycota

(d) Ascomycota

Answer: :: (c)

2. This group is used to represent pathological fungi

(a) Penicillium

(b) Truffles, mushrooms and morels

(d) All of the above

Answer: :: (c)

3. The fungi which derive their food directly from dead organic matter are known as

(a) Predators

(b) Decomposers

(d) Parasitic fungi

Answer: :: (b)

4. What is the name of the special hyphal tips through which parasitic fungi absorb nutrients directly from the cytoplasm of the living host?

(a) Haustoria

(b) Mildew

(d) All of the above

Answer: :: (a)

5. Which of these entities is an indicator of the SO2 pollution of air?

(a) Puffballs

(b) Mushrooms

(d) Lichens

Answer: :: (d)

6. The fungal disease – the black rust of wheat is caused by

(a) Melampsora lini

(b) Claviceps purpurea

(d) Albugo candida

Answer: :: (c)

7. What does ‘Perfect stage’ of a fungus indicate?

(a) indicates that it can reproduce asexually

(b) indicates that it is perfectly healthy

(d) All of the above

Answer: :: (c)

8. Death angel/death cap (amanita) and Jack O Lantern mushroom are all examples of

(a) Poisonous mushrooms

(b) Edible mushrooms

(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer: :: (a)

9. Covered smut of Sorghum is caused by

(a) Sphacelotheca sorghi

(b) Sphacelotheca cruenta

(d) Tolyposporium ehrenbergii

Answer: :: (a)

10. Oyster mushroom is an example of predator fungi that attacks

(a) Tapeworms

(b) Pinworms

(d) Roundworms
Answer: :: (d)
————————————————————————————————————————————–

Haemophilia MCQs

1. Haemophilia is caused by

(a) Bacteria

(b) Virus

(d) Cause unknown

Answer: :: (c)

2. This is a complication of haemophilia

(a) Bleeding in the head

(b) joint swelling

(d) all of these

Answer: :: (d)

3. In patients with haemophilia, which of these can increase the risk of cerebral microbleeds?

(a) cardiovascular risk factors

(b) increased age

(d) all of these

Answer: :: (d)

4. This disease falls under the same category as colourblindness in man

(a) Presbyopia

(b) Night blindness

(d) Haemophilia

Answer: :: (d)

5. This is ineffective against antibiotics

(a) bacterial infected gonorrhoea

(b) bacterial infected wound

(d) bacterial infected throat

Answer: :: (c)

6. This lacks in patients with haemophilia A

(a) X chromosome

(b) Calcium

(d) Plasma thromboplastin

Answer: :: (c)

7. Rarely females experience the physiological defect of haemophilia as they do so only when they are

(a) carrier for the defect

(b) wives of haemophilic husbands

(d) heterozygous for the defect

Answer: :: (c)

8. Haemophilia is

(a) X – linked

(b) Y – linked

(d) Autosomal

Answer: :: (a)

9. Haemophilia is as a result of a lack of

(a) STH

(b) ADH

(d) ACTH

Answer: :: (c)

10. The reason why haemophilia is more commonly observed in human males than in females is due to

(a) the disease is due to Y-linked recessive mutation

(b) the disease is due to X-linked recessive mutation

(d) the disease is due to X-linked dominant mutation

Answer: :: (b)
————————————————————————————————————————————————
MCQ’S ON Species Diversity

1. The following practice has led to the maximum damage to the diversity of Indian forests

(a) Block cutting

(b) Selective harvesting

(d) Taungya cultivation

Answer: :: (c)

2. Plant species on the verge of extinction as a result of over-exploitation is

(a) Gloriosa

(b) Centella

(d) All of the above

Answer: :: (c)

3. This endangered animal is the source of the world’s finest, lightest, warmest and the most expensive wool – the shahtoosh

(a) Cheetal

(b) Kashmiri goat

(d) Chiru

Answer: :: (d)

4. This group of vertebrates comprises of the highest number of endangered species

(a) Fishes

(b) Birds

(d) Mammals

Answer: :: (d)

5. Indri-indri lemur is found in

(a) India

(b) Sri lanka

(d) Mauritius

Answer: :: (c)

6. This is not under situ conservation

(a) Botanic Garden

(b) National park

(d) Biosphere reserve

Answer: :: (a)

7. One of the endangered species of the Indian medicinal plants is

(a) Garlic

(b) Ocimum

(d) Podophyllum

Answer: :: (d)

8. Siberian crane is a regular visitor of bird sanctuary

(a) Bharatpur (Rajasthan)

(b) Ranaganathittu (Karnataka)

(d) Vedanthangal (T.N)

Answer: :: (a)

9. Sacred groves are useful in

(a) Preventing soil erosion

(b) generating environmental awareness

(d) year-round flow of water in rivers

Answer: :: (c)

10. Species very near to extinction if conservation measures are promptly not take up are

(a) Rare species

(b) threatened species

(d) vulenrable species

Answer: :: (c)
————————————————————————————————————————————————-
MCQ on Apomixis
1. In many laboratories, active research is on to comprehend the genetics of apomixis

(a) Apomixis generates genetically different individuals

(b) Apomixis is the method to produce seeds without fertilization

(d) Transfer of apomictic genes into hybrid varieties that shall prevent hybrid vigour loss over the years

Answer: :: (d)

2. Apomixis is a form of

(a) Vernalization

(b) Parthenogenesis

(d) None of the above

Answer: :: (b)

3. Geitonogamy and autogamy both are prevented in which one of these?

(a) Cucumber

(b) Maize

(d) Papaya

Answer: :: (d)

4. In plants, apomixis pertains to plant development

(a) from root cuttings

(b) from cuttings of stem

(d) fusion of gametes

Answer: :: (c)

5. The reason why hybrid seeds have to be produced every year is

(a) hybrid seed industry tends to increase the cost of seeds

(b) hybrid plants turn sterile in coming years

(d) hybrid vigour is not maintained in more than one generation as segregation of genes is initiated in the second generation

Answer: :: (d)

6. In adventive embryony, a type of apomixis, the embryo develops directly from the

(a) Zygote

(b) accessory embryo sacs in the ovule

(d) integuments or nucleus

Answer: :: (d)

7. Megasporium is equivalent to

(a) ovule

(b) embryo sac

(d) Nucleus

Answer: :: (a)

8. One of these statements about apomixis is incorrect

(a) formation of seeds without fertilization

(b) Meiotic division and fertilization of gametes takes place to form a zygote

(d) None of these

Answer: :: (b)

9. This about apomixis is true:

(a) There is no fertilization involved in both apomixis and parthenocarpy

(b) Apomixis produces genetically identical mother cells

(d) All of the above

Answer: :: (d)

10. The difference between perisperm and endosperm is that perisperm:

(a) has reserve food

(b) forms by fusion of the secondary nucleus with several sperms

(d) is a haploid tissue

Answer: :: (c)
—————————————————————————————————————————–
MCQ’S ON Stress Hormones

1. This hormone is produced under condition of stress which stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver of human beings

(a) Insulin

(b) Thyroxin

(d) Adrenaline

Answer: :: (d)

2. Fight or flight reactions causes the activation of

(a) the parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic rate

(b) adrenal medulla leading to increased secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine

(d) the kidney, causing suppression of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone pathway

Answer: :: (b)

3. After trying for several years, a couple finally learnt that they are going to have a baby. They are experiencing this type of stress

(a) Strain

(b) Anxiety

(d) Eustress

Answer: :: (d)

4. This part of the autonomic nervous system provides the body with energy for the fight-or-flight response

(a) Central nervous system

(b) Sympathetic nervous system

(d) Parasympathetic nervous system

Answer: :: (b)

5. A real or perceived challenge or threat which causes the body to produce a response is a(n)

(a) injury

(b) phobia

(d) frustration

Answer: :: (c)

6. The hormone released by the adrenal glands allows the body to make energy more readily available from the stored nutrients

(a) ACTH

(b) Cortisol

(d) Norepinephrine

Answer: :: (b)

7. When danger or stress is perceived/experienced, this response occurs in the body

(a) Exhaustion

(b) Adaption

(d) Resistance

Answer: :: (c)

8. This branch of science investigates the relationship between stress and the nervous and immune systems

(a) Neurolinguistics

(b) Sociology

(d) Psychoneuroimmunology

Answer: :: (d)

9. All of the following is true about the hormone epinephrine except that it

(a) is released by the pituitary gland

(b) is also known as adrenaline

(d) prepares the body for action

Answer: :: (a)

10. The primary hormone responsible for stress-related physiological responses, such as an increase in heart rate is

(a) insulin

(b) cortisol

(d) thyroxin

Answer: :: (c)

————————————————————————————————————————————————
MCQ’S ON Symptoms Of Hyperthyroidism In Females

1. Rapid heartbeat, shortness of breath, high body temperature are the symptoms of ___________.

(a) Thyroid crisis

(b) Thyroid storm

(d) Thyroid death

Answer: :: (b)

2. Thyroid disorders are often mistaken for this condition.

(a) Pregnancy

(b) Menopause

(d) Posttraumatic stress disease

Answer: :: (b)

3. A 35-years-old female present to the hospital with symptoms of sudden onset of pain in the anterior neck spreading to the jaw from the past 2 days. Other than these symptoms, she also reported a full recovery from ‘a cold a week ago’. Which of the following findings are not consistent with her diagnosis.

(a) Formation of microabscesses

(b) Dense fibrosis of the thyroid gland

(d) Plasma cells aggregating around damaged thyroid follicles

Answer: :: (b)

4. A condition marked by low TSH levels is called ___________.

(a) Hypothyroidism

(b) Goitre

(d) Thyroid cancer

Answer: :: (c)

5. A 30-year old female presents with fatigue, fever, swelling in the neck area along with pain and difficulty in swallowing. Upon diagnosing, tenderness on palpation of thyroid in elicited. The lab reports showed elevated ESR, elevated T4, T3, and thyroglobulin levels. The 24hrs RAIU report is lesser than 5 per cent. What is diagnosed according to the patient’s lab reports?

(a) Grave’s disease

(b) Subacute thyroiditis

(d) Acute infectious thyroiditis

Answer: :: (b)

6. Which of the following body function is regulated by the thyroid producing hormones?

(a) Digestion

(b) Temperature

(d) Blood pressure

Answer: :: (c)

7. Rapid heart rate, weight loss, heat sensitivity are most likely the symptoms of _________

(a) Thyroid cancer

(b) Hyperthyroidism (overactive thyroid)

(d) All of the above

Answer: :: (b)

8. Exophthalmic goitre is due to ________.

(a) Hyposecretion of thyrocalcitonin

(b) Hyposecretion of thyroxine

(d) Hypersecretion of thyrocalcitonin

Answer: :: (c)

9. Which type of epithelium is found in thyroid follicles?

(a) Columnar

(b) Squamous

(d) Transitional

Answer: :: (c)

10. Which of the following is the major causative for Grave’s disease?

(a) Hyperactivity of thyroid gland

(b) Hyperactivity of adrenal cortex

(d) Hyperactivity of the islets of Langerhans

Answer: :: (d)

11. Select the common hyperthyroidism symptoms in females

(a) Weight loss

(b) Goitre

(d) Fever

Answer: :: (a). (b), (c)
—————————————————————————————————————————————-
MCQ’S ON Artificial Hybridization

1. This is the correct sequence for artificial experiment in bisexual flowers

(a) Self-pollination -> Bagging -> Emasculation -> Rebagging

(b) Cross pollination -> Bagging -> Emasculation -> Rebagging

(d) Bagging -> Emasculation -> Cross pollination -> Rebagging

Answer: :: (c)

2. Both geitonogamy and autogamy are prevented in

(a) Cucumber

(b) Papaya

(d) Castor

Answer: :: (b)

3. The pollen tube releases the two male gametes into the

(a) the cytoplasm of antipodal cells

(b) one male gamete in cytoplasm of synergids and other in cytoplasm of central cell

(d) both in cytoplasm of synergids

Answer: :: (d)

4. Who first used artificial hybridization in fruit crops?

(a) Karpocho

(b) Knight

(d) Mendel

Answer: :: (b)

5. This will lose its economic value if fruits are produced through parthenocarpy

(a) Banana

(b) Citrus

(d) Grape

Answer: :: (c)

6. After reaching the ovary, pollen tube does not display this of the following events

(a) may enter the ovule through chalaza

(b) enters one of the synergids through filiform apparatus

(d) chemotactic movement of pollen tube towards synergid

Answer: :: (d)

7. This statement is incorrect

(a) the seed dormancy is the internal or innate inhibition of generation of normal or viable seeds

(b) embryo in the dormant seeds show higher rate of general metabolic rate

(d) as the seeds mature, its water content is reduced and seeds become relatively dry

Answer: :: (b)

8. When dioecious plants are considered for artificial hybridization, this step would not be relevant

(a) collection of pollen

(b) bagging of female flower

(d) emasculation

Answer: :: (d)

9. Aleurone layer participates in

(a) enzyme synthesis

(b) transfer of food to cotyledons

(d) protection of delicate embryo

Answer: :: (a)

10. The external conditions required for seed germination are

(a) light, moisture and appropriate temperature

(b) oxygen, carbon dioxide and appropriate temperature

(d) oxygen, moisture and suitable temperature

Answer: :: (d)

————————————————————————————————————————————
MCQ’S ON Chromosome Structure

1. The least level of chromosome organization is

(a) 30nm fibre

(b) solenoid

(d) none of the above

Answer: :: (c)

2. This has the largest number of chromosomes

(a) Pisum sativum

(b) Giant redwood tree

(d) Ophioglossum reticulatum

Answer: :: (d)

3. A chromosome with a very short arm and a very long arm is referred to as

(a) Metacentric

(b) telocentric

(d) Sub-metacentric

Answer: :: (c)

4. A chromosome is the thickest during

(a) anaphase

(b) prophase

(d) metaphase

Answer: :: (d)

5. The diagrammatic representation of karyotype (morphological representation of chromosomes) of a species is known as

(a) Cladogram

(b) Ecogram

(d) Idiogram

Answer: :: (d)

6. If Bb is a gene pair of an individual then the alleles for this gene pair are

(a) A and B

(b) a and A

(d) b and B

Answer: :: (d)

7. Euchromatin

(a) stains lightly

(b) is partially condensed

(d) all of the above

Answer: :: (d)

8. The point at which polytene chromosomes appear to be attached together is known as

(a) centriole

(b) centromere

(d) chromocenter

Answer: :: (d)

9. In which typical stage are Lampbrush chromosomes observed?

(a) meiotic prophase

(b) mitotic metaphase

(d) mitotic anaphase

Answer: :: (a)

10. Each of the chromosome at the anaphase stage of a bone marrow cell in our body has

(a) one chromatid

(b) two chromatids

(d) no chromatids

Answer: :: (a)
——————————————————————————————————————————————–
MCQ’S ON Neural Communication

1. The mode of communication between the neurons by sending electrical impulses known as _______.

(a) Membrane potentials

(b) Neuromodulators

(d) Action potentials

Answer: :: (d)

2. If the cell stimulation is strong, then the strength of the action potential produced would be ______.

(a) Weaker than the produced by weak stimulation

(b) Stronger than the produced by weak stimulation

(d) No different to the produced by weak stimulation

Answer: :: (d)

3. Dopamine, serotonin and noradrenaline are collectively called _______.

(a) Amines

(b) Hallucinogens

(d) Neurotransmitters

Answer: :: (a)

4. The excess amount of produced neurotransmitters by presynaptic neurons is __________.

(a) Taken up by postsynaptic neurons

(b) Recycled back into the presynaptic neuron

(d) Eliminated by substances contained within the cell body

Answer: :: (b)

5. Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter enabling communication between muscles and nerves. In case of an interruption in the interaction between acetylcholine and acetylcholine receptor sites on the muscles, this condition can occur in _______.

(a) Botulism

(b) Myasthenia gravis

(d) Both A and B

Answer: :: (b)

6. Which of the following disorder causes dopamine neurons to die?

(a) Seizure disorder

(b) Multiple sclerosis

(c)Parkinson’s disease

(d) Lou Gehrig’s disease

Answer: :: (c)

7. Which of the following is a genetic disorder that induces neurons in the brain to drain away and die?

(a) Poliomyelitis

(b) Encephalitis

(d) Huntington’s disease

Answer: :: (d)

8. Which of the following is called the common neurotransmitter?

(a) Acetylcholine

(b) Dopamine

(d) All of the above

Answer: :: (d)

9. The cavity of the diencephalon is known as _______.

(a) First ventricle

(b) Third ventricle

(d) Fourth ventricle

Answer: :: (b)

10. Which of the following is the cause for transmission of nerve impulse through nerve fibre in a single direction?

(a) Neurotransmitters released by dendrites.

(b) Neurotransmitters released by axon endings.

(d) None of the above.

Answer: :: (b)
————————————————————————————————————————————————-
MCQ’S ON Transcription In Eukaryotes

1. The enzyme required for transcription is

(a) RNAase

(b) DNA polymerase

(d) Restriction enzymes

Answer: :: (c)

2. Transcription is the transfer of genetic information from

(a) DNA to RNA

(b) DNA to mRNA

(d) tRNA to mRNA

Answer: :: (b)

3. Sigma factor is a component of

(a) DNA ligase

(b) DNA polymerase

(d) RNA polymerase

Answer: :: (d)

4. The main function of tRNA with regards to protein synthesis is

(a) Proofreading

(b) identifies amino acids and transports them to ribosomes

(d) all of the above

Answer: :: (b)

5. One end of tRNA matches genetic code in three-nucleotide sequences known as

(a) codon

(b) genetic code

(d) anticodon

Answer: :: (d)

6. The longest primary transcript is generated by

(a) dystrophin gene

(b) Tintin gene

(d) centromere protein A

Answer: :: (a)

7. A DNA sequence is read by an RNA polymerase that produces complementary antiparallel RNA strand known as

(a) Hexa transcript

(b) secondary transcript

(d) tertiary transcript

Answer: :: (c)

8. Which of these subunits of RNA polymerase is totally required to initiate transcription?

(a) alpha (α)

(b) sigma (σ)

(d) beta (β)

Answer: :: (b)

9. In both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, the synthesis of protein chains is initiated with

(a) Arginine

(b) Methionine

(d) Valine

Answer: :: (b)

10. Transcription in eukaryotes is initiated when

(a) RNA strand is present

(b) RNA polymerase is present

(d) None of these

Answer: :: (c)
————————————————————————————————————————————-
MCQ’S ON Earthworm Digestive System

1. The earthworm is placed under the group

(a) Polychaeta

(b) Hirudinea

(d) Crustacea

Answer: :: (c)

2. The parasite found in the seminal vesicle of earthworms are

(a) Nosema

(b) Sarcocystis

(d) Nyctotherus

Answer: :: (c)

3. The typhlosole in earthworm is related to

(a) respiration

(b) excretion

(d) reproduction

Answer: :: (c)

4. Colour of the body in earthworms is due to the presence of

(a) Haemoglobin

(b) Blood

(d) Haemocyanin

Answer: :: (c)

5. Region of earthworm that is a forest of nephridia is

(a) Pharyngeal region

(b) Clitellar region

(d) Intestinal region

Answer: :: (b)

6. Chloragogen cells are found in

(a) Blood of earthworm

(b) The coelomic fluid of the earthworm

(d) The body wall of leucosolenia

Answer: :: (b)

7. This animal does not show any metamorphosis of larval stage

(a) Asteria

(b) Musca domestica

(d) Butterfly

Answer: :: (c)

8. The most effective organ for food digestion in earthworm is

(a) Mouth

(b) Buccal cavity

(d) Stomach

Answer: :: (c)

9. The typhlosole found in Pheretima occurs in

(a) Stomach

(b) Intestine

(d) Gizzard

Answer: :: (b)

10. In earthworm, the mouth is located on

(a) Stomium

(b) Peristomium

(d) Protostomium

Answer: :: (b)
—————————————————————————————————————————————–
MCQs On Parenchyma Tissue

1. Mostly, the flesh of the fruit is made of ___________.

(a) Collenchyma

(b) Meristem

(d) Parenchyma

Answer: :: (d)

2. In plants, the most common ground tissue is___________.

(a) Cortex

(b) Epidermis

(d) Parenchyma

Answer: :: (d)

3. From mature parenchyma, plant regeneration can occur as__________.

(a) there are no cell walls

(b) they are nucleate

(d) it forms the bulk of the ground tissue

Answer: :: (c)

4. The plant tissues that are known for photosynthesis, secretion and storage are______.

(a) Parenchyma

(b) Collenchyma

(d) Vascular cambium

Answer: :: (a)

5. Simple permanent tissue that is food storing is ___________.

(a) Parenchyma

(b) Collenchyma

(d) None

Answer: :: (a)

6. Which of the following statement is true about the spongy parenchyma?

(a) Round or oval loosely arranged cells

(b) Abaxially placed to palisade parenchyma

(d) All of the above

Answer: :: (d)

7. Which of the following statement is true about the palisade parenchyma?

(a) Elongated cells

(b) Adaxially placed

(d) All of these

Answer: :: (d)

8. The mesophyll of a dicot leaf is differentiated into _________.

(a) Spongy parenchyma

(b) Palisade parenchyma

(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer: :: (d)

9. In TS of the dicotyledonous root, the parenchymatous cells which lie between the xylem and phloem are called ________.

(a) Cortex

(b) Cambium

(d) Conjunctive tissue

Answer: :: (d)

10. Aerenchyma and chlorenchyma are types of ________.

(a) Xylem

(b) Phloem

(d) Parenchyma

Answer: :: (d)
————————————————————————————————————————————–
MCQs on Krebs Cycle

1. Product of Krebs cycle essential for oxidative phosphorylation is _______

(a) NADPH and ATP

(b) Acetyl CoA

(d) NADH and FADH2

Answer: :: (d)

2. A single molecule of glucose generates _________ molecules of acetyl CoA, which enters the Krebs cycle.

(a) 4

(b) 3

(d) 1

Answer: :: (c)

3. ___________ accepts hydrogen from malate

(a) FAD

(b) NAD

(d) FMN

Answer: :: (b)

4. Which of the intermediate of the Kreb’s cycle is utilised in the formation of amino acids?

(a) Citric acid

(b) Malic acid

(d) 𝛼-ketoglutaric acid

Answer: :: (d)

5. Krebs cycle occurs in aerobic respiration due to

(a) Electron transport chain requires aerobic conditions to operate

(b) Oxygen is a reactant

(d) All of the above

Answer: :: (a)

6. Acetyl CoA is formed from pyruvate by__________ reaction

(a) Dehydration

(b) Reduction

(d) Dephosphorylation

Answer: :: (c)

7. Which of the following is not formed during the Krebs cycle?

(a) Lactate

(b) Isocitrate

(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer: :: (a)

8. The entry of pyruvate into the TCA cycle is inhibited by the presence of a high cellular concentration of

(a) Pyruvate

(b) NADH

(d) AMP

Answer: :: (b)

9. ATP synthesis is powered by

(a) Coenzyme motive force

(b) cAMP

(d) GTP hydrolysis

Answer: :: (c)

10. FAD is reduced in which of the reaction of the Kreb’s cycle?

(a) Isocitrate to oxaloacetate

(b) Succinyl CoA to Succinate

(d) Succinate to fumarate

Answer: :: (d)
———————————————————————————————————————————-
Multinodular Goitre Questions

1. Which of the following disease is caused due to the deficiency of iodine?

(a) Solitary thyroid nodules

(b) Goitre

(d) Thyroid cancer

Answer: :: (b)

2. Which of the following is the main cause for Goitre?

(a) Hypothyroidism

(b) Hyperthyroidism

(d) All of the above

Answer: :: (d)

3. When the progressive enlargement of a multinodular goitre causes symptomatic tracheal compression, the typically preferred treatment management in otherwise good-risk patients is ____.

(a) Radioactive iodine treatment

(b) Thyroid hormone treatment

(d) Surgical resection of abnormal thyroid

Answer: :: (d)

4. Which of the following is the most precise diagnostic screening procedure for differentiating benign thyroid nodules from malignant ones?

(a) Thyroid scintiscan

(b) Thyroid ultrasonography

(d) Fine-needle-aspiration biopsy (FNAB)

Answer: :: (d)

5. Which of the following is the most common cause of goitrous hypothyroidism in adults?

(a) Hashimoto’s disease

(b) Grave’s disease

(d) De Quervain’s thyroiditis

Answer: :: (a)

6. A person with the enlarged thyroid gland protruded eyeball, increased BMR and weight loss is suffering from _______.

(a) Grave’s disease

(b) Exophthalmic goitre

(d) Addison disease

Answer: :: (c)

7. Which of the following statement is incorrect about thyroid hormones?

(a) Regulates BMR

(b) Maintains water and electrolyte balance

(d) Controls blood phosphate level

Answer: :: (d)

8. Which of the following statement is true about thyroid swelling?

(a) Always elevates on swelling

(b) An ultrasound of the swelling is the best test to determine whether the nodule is

actively secreting hormone

(d) A functional nodule on isotope scanning is unlikely to be due to cancer

Answer: :: (d)

9. Which of the following statement is true about Grave’s disease of the thyroid?

(a) It is the cause for ophthalmoplegia

(b) It is the cause for large multi-nodular goitre

(d) It is most common in males than in females

Answer: :: (a)

10. Which of the following statement is true about complications of a large goitre?

(a) Dysphagia is an indication for surgery

(b) Causes stridor due to compression of the oesophagus

(d) Causes more florid thyrotoxicosis than a smaller goitre

Answer: :: (a)
—————————————————————————————————————————————-
MCQs on Epithelial Tissue

1. Find the correct match

(a) The moist surface of the buccal cavity has glandular epithelium

(b) The tubular parts of nephrons have cuboidal epithelium

(d) The inner lining of salivary ducts have ciliated epithelium

2. The ciliated columnar epithelium is present in

(a) bronchioles and Fallopian tube

(b) bile duct and oesophagus

(d) Eustachian tube and stomach lining

3. Which types of cells line blood vessels?

(a) columnar epithelium

(b) smooth muscle tissue

(d) squamous epithelium

4. Gap, tight and adhering junctions are found in

(a) epithelial tissue

(b) connective tissue

(d) neural tissue

5. Which types of epithelial cells form Stratum germinativum?

(a) cuboidal

(b) ciliated

(d) squamous

6. An epithelial tissue having thin flat and closely packed cells that are arranged edge to edge are found in

(a) the inner lining of cheeks

(b) the inner lining of the stomach

(d) the outer surface of the ovary

7. Which of the following layer has actively dividing cells?

(a) stratum lucidum

(b) stratum corneum

(d) stratum malpighi

8. Tissue having very less or no intercellular matrix is

(a) epithelial

(b) connective

(d) muscular

9. The inner lining of the vagina, urethra and oesophagus is made up of

(a) Columnar epithelium

(b) Stratified squamous epithelium

(d) Ciliated epithelium

10. Simple cuboidal epithelium is found in

(a) Thin bronchioles

(b) Choroid of eye

(d) All of the above

Answer: :

1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (c)
6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (d)
————————————————————————————————————————————————-
MCQs on Rhizopus

1. The cell wall of most of the fungi contains ________.

(a) Hemicellulose

(b) Chitin

(d) Cellulose

2. Absorptive heterotrophic mode of nutrition is present in_______.

(a) Pteridophytes

(b) Bryophytes

(d) Algae

3. Zygospore formation is a characteristic feature of_______.

(a) Mucour/ Rhizopus

(b) Puccinia

(d) Penicillium

4. Asexual reproduction in Rhizopus is by the formation of_______.

(a) Zygospores

(b) Motile zoospores

(d) Zoogametes

5. Which of the following class does Rhizopus belong to?

(a) Ascomycetes

(b) Chytridiomycetes

(d) Zygomycetes

6. ________ is commonly known as black bread mould.

(a) Rhizobium sp

(b) Rhizopus oryzae

(d) Rhizopus stolonifer

7. Sexual reproduction in Rhizopus takes place by fusion of_______.

(a) Two sporangia

(b) Two gametangia

(d) Two hyphae

8. Mycelium of Rhizopus is

(a) Aseptate and multinucleate

(b) Septate and multinucleate

(d) Septate and coenocyte

9. Meiosis occurs in the life cycle of Rhizopus during_______.

(a) Asexual reproduction

(b) Formation of gametangium

(d) Formation of sporangium

10. Asexual reproduction in Rhizopus is by the formation of_______.

(a) Chlamydospores

(b) Aplanospores

(d) All of the above

Answer: ::

1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (d)
6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (d)
—————————————————————————————————————————————-
MCQs on Endosperm

1. The primary endosperm nucleus is

(a) tetraploid

(b) triploid

(d) haploid

2. The white edible part of maize is

(a) pericarp

(b) seed coat

(d) seed

3. The polar nuclei and male gamete fuse to form

(a) secondary nucleus

(b) zygote

(d) PEN

4. The outermost proteinaceous layer of maize endosperm is called

(a) pericarp

(b) epidermis

(d) tunica

5. Glyoxysomes are present in

(a) root hairs

(b) palisade cells of leaf

(d) endosperm of castor

6. The sunflower embryo has

(a) 3 cotyledons

(b) 2 cotyledons

(d) cotyledon is absent

7. If the endosperm cell of a dicot plant contains 30 chromosomes, find the number of chromosomes present in the root cells of the plant

(a) 40

(b) 10

(d) 15

8. Which one of the following dicot plant lacks cotyledon

(a) Ranunculus

(b) Cuscuta

(d) Dianthus

9. Which of the tissue culture will form a triploid plant

(a) endosperm

(b) pollen

(d) ovule

10. In the angiosperms, the endosperm is formed

(a) before fertilization

(b) after fertilization

(d) None of the above

Answer: :

1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (d)
6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (b)
———————————————————————————————————————————-
MCQs on Nucleotide

1. A phosphodiester bond is present in

(a) Nucleic acids in a nucleotide

(b) Monosaccharides in a polysaccharide

(d) Fatty acids in a diglyceride

2. Uridine present in RNA is

(a) nucleotides

(b) pyrimidine

(d) nucleoside

3. Nucleic acids are a polymer of nucleotide monomeric units. Each nucleotide consists of

(a) base-sugar-OH

(b) sugar-phosphate

(d) (base-sugar-phosphate)x

4. A DNA segment contains 100 Adenine and 100 cytosines, how many nucleotides are present in the segment?

(a) 100

(b) 200

(d) 50

5. Nucleoside contains

(a) base-sugar

(b) base-phosphate

(d) sugar-phosphate

6. ATP is a

(a) nucleoside

(b) nucleotide

(d) nucleic acid

7. Find the correct statement about phosphodiester linkage between adjacent nucleotides in nucleic acids

(a) 3’-phosphate of one nucleotide joins the 3’-hydroxyl of the next nucleotide

(b) 3’-phosphate of one nucleotide joins the 5’-hydroxyl of the next nucleotide

(d) 5’-phosphate of one nucleotide joins the 3’-hydroxyl of the next nucleotide

8. The sugar molecule present in nucleotide is

(a) triose

(b) tetrose

(d) hexose

9. Which of the following nucleotide contains only ribose sugar and not deoxyribose?

(a) Thymine – pentose sugar-phosphate

(b) Uracil – pentose sugar-phosphate

(d) Cytosine – pentose sugar-phosphate

10. Purine base found in RNA is

(a) Cytosine

(b) Thymine

(d) Uracil

Answer: :

1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (a)
6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c)
——————————————————————————————————————————————
MCQs on Paramecium

1. Unicellular eukaryotes are grouped in

(a) Protista

(b) Monera

(d) Archaea

2. In Paramecium, osmoregulation occurs through

(a) body surface

(b) pseudopodia

(d) contractile vacuole

3. In Paramecium, genetic information is stored in

(a) all the nuclei present

(b) mitochondria

(d) macronucleus

4. Phylum Protozoa is classified based on

(a) size

(b) shape

(d) locomotory organ

5. Conjugation as a mode of reproduction is present in

(a) ciliata

(b) flagellata

(d) sporozoa

6. In Paramecium, food is ingested through

(a) cytoproct

(b) cytopyge

(d) cytopharynx

7. Trichocyst of Paramecium is required for

(a) osmoregulation

(b) nutrition

(d) defence

8. Paramecium are

(a) holophytic

(b) holozoic

(d) saprobiotic

9. In Paramecium, metabolic activities and growth is regulated by

(a) macronucleus

(b) micronucleus

(d) contractile vacuole

10. In Paramecium, both autogamy and conjugation are called sexual reproduction because of

(a) rejuvenation

(b) gene combination

(d) involvement of two individuals

Answer: :

1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (a)
6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (c)
————————————————————————————————————————————————–
MCQs on Nostoc

1. Find the correct statement

(a) Paramecium, Penicillium and Plasmodium belong to the same kingdom

(b) Nostoc and Anabaena come under Protista

(d) Yeast is a fungus and is used in bread and beer production

2. Cyanobacteria are

(a) oxygenic without nitrogenase

(b) non-oxygenic without nitrogenase

(d) non-oxygenic with nitrogenase

3. Blue-green algae are included in

(a) Prokaryotes

(b) Protista

(d) Bryophytes

4. An organism that forms a symbiotic association with Anthoceros

(a) Spirogyra

(b) Nostoc

(d) All of the above

5. Which of the following structure contains a polar nodule on both ends

(a) heterocyst

(b) hormogonia

(d) None of the above

6. Nostoc form

(a) compound colony

(b) simple colony

(d) None of these

7. Which of the angiosperm contains Nostoc as an endophyte?

(a) Gunnera manicata

(b) Arachis hypogea

(d) None of the above

8. Coloured portion of the nostoc cell is

(a) genophore

(b) inner centroplasm

(d) central body

9. Heterocyst of Nostoc are

(a) intercalary

(b) terminal

(d) none

10. Sexual reproduction is absent in

(a) Volvox

(b) Nostoc

(d) Ulothrix

Answer: :

1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a)
6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (b)
—————————————————————————————————————————————-
MCQs on Slime Moulds

1. Slime moulds were included in which of the following kingdom?

(a) Monera

(b) Protista

(d) Plantae

Answer: ::(b)

2. Which of the following characteristic structure is found in slime mould?

(a) Pseudoelaters

(b) Elaters

(d) Capillitium

Answer: ::(d)

3. Where does the spore formation occur in cellular slime mould?

(a) Plasmodium

(b) Sporangium

(d) Pseudoplasmodium

Answer: ::(b)

4. Spores of slime moulds develop into

(a) Amoeboid cells

(b) Biflagellated cells

(d) All of the above

Answer: ::(d)

5. Which is the example of slime mould?

(a) Anabaena

(b) Rhizopus

(d) Thiobacillus

Answer: ::(c)

6. Slime moulds, algae, protozoa are related in having

(a) Eukaryotic cell

(b) Prokaryotic cell

(d) Pseudopodia

Answer: ::(a)

7. A characteristic feature of a “true slime mould” is

(a) Occurs as an independent cell

(b) A multinucleate plasmodial stage

(d) None of the above

Answer: ::(b)

8. Slug formation is induced by

(a) Over crowding

(b) Plentiful resources

(d) Unfavourable conditions

Answer: ::(d)

9. Slime mould differ from fungi in having

(a) Phagocytosis mode of nutrition

(b) Amoeboid cells

(d) None of the above

Answer: ::(c)

10. Sporangia of slime mould contain

(a) Haploid spores

(b) Diploid zygotes

(d) None of the above

Answer: ::(a)
————————————————————————————————————————————————–
MCQs on Chromoplast

1. Which of the following plastid is found in ripe fruits?

(a) chromoplast

(b) chloroplast

(d) amyloplast

Answer: :: (a)

2. Anthocyanin pigments are

(a) water-insoluble and located in chromoplasts

(b) water-soluble and located in chloroplasts

(d) water-insoluble and located in vacuoles

Answer: :: (c)

3. Chloroplast does not contain

(a) xanthophyll

(b) anthocyanin

(d) chlorophyll ‘b’

Answer: :: (b)

4. Which of the following pigment impart a red colour to tomato?

(a) erythrocyanin

(b) anthocyanin

(d) lycopene

Answer: :: (d)

5. Which of the following plastid doesn’t store food?

(a) aleuroplasts

(b) amyloplasts

(d) elaioplasts

Answer: :: (c)

6. Protein storing plastid is

(a) chromoplast

(b) elaioplast

(d) aleuroplast

Answer: :: (d)

7. Which of the following pigment is present in carrots?

(a) 𝝱-carotene

(b) lycopene

(d) fucoxanthin

Answer: :: (a)

8. Which of the plastid(s) contains carotenoids?

(a) leucoplast

(b) chloroplast

(d) both (b) and (c)

Answer: :: (d)
9. In which of the following organelle, peptide synthesis takes place?

(a) ribosomes

(b) chromoplasts

(d) mitochondria

Answer: :: (a)

10. Colour of tomato changes from green to red due to

(a) chromoplast gets converted to the chloroplast

(b) chromoplast disappears and chloroplast is formed

(d) chloroplast disappears and chromoplast is formed

Answer: :: (c)
—————————————————————————————————————————————————–
MCQs on Ascomycetes

1. Which of the following is incorrect for ascomycetes

(a) they are unicellular as well as multicellular

(b) they are parasitic, saprophytic or coprophilous

(d) coenocytic mycelium

Answer: :: (d)

2. Dikaryophase and septate mycelium are characteristic features of which of the following class?

(a) Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes

(b) Phycomycetes and Ascomycetes

(d) All of the above

Answer: :: (a)

3. Which of the fungi produces toxins in crop plants?

(a) Colleotrichum

(b) Aspergillus

(d) both (b) and (c)

Answer: :: (d)

4. Which one of the following is incorrect

(a) Neurospora is widely used in genetic studies

(b) Yeast reproduces by budding

(d) None of the above

Answer: :: (d)

5. Ergot is caused by

(a) Penicillium

(b) Rhizobium

(d) Aspergillus

Answer: :: (c)

6. Which of the organism produces aflatoxin?

(a) fungi

(b) virus

(d) bacteria

Answer: :: (a)

7. Aspergillus has _______ hyphae

(a) aseptate and uninucleate

(b) aseptate and multinucleate

(d) septate and multinucleate

Answer: :: (d)

8. Dikaryon phase has

(a) diploid nucleus

(b) two similar nuclei

(d) two haploid nuclei

Answer: :: (c)

9. Claviceps produces

(a) LSD

(b) marijuana

(d) charas

Answer: :: (a)

10. Mycorrhiza shows

(a) endemism

(b) antagonism

(d) symbiosis

Answer: :: (d)
————————————————————————————————————————————————–
MCQs on Mitosis

1. DNA synthesis takes place during_________ phase

(a) M phase

(b) G2 phase

(d) S phase

Answer: :: (d)

2. Where does spindle fibres attach to during metaphase?

(a) kinetochore of the chromosome

(b) kinetosome of the chromosome

(d) telomere of the chromosome

Answer: :: (a)

3. Nucleolus and endoplasmic reticulum start disappearing at

(a) late prophase

(b) early prophase

(d) early metaphase

Answer: :: (b)

4. Early prophase of a diploid cell has_____ sets of chromosomes; telophase of a diploid cell has ____ sets of chromosomes

(a) 1;2

(b) 2;1

(d) 1;1

Answer: :: (c)

5. A protein complex, that links sister chromatids, is

(a) actin

(b) cohesin

(d) actomyosin

Answer: :: (b)

6. Formation of cell plate starts at

(a) G2 phase

(b) prophase

(d) S phase

Answer: :: (c)

7. If you want to count the number of chromosomes, which is the best stage to do so?

(a) telophase

(b) interphase

(d) metaphase

Answer: :: (d)

8. Mitotic anaphase and metaphase have

(a) chromosomes are halved at anaphase

(b) chromatids are halved at anaphase

(d) both chromosomes and chromatids are halved at anaphase

Answer: :: (a)

9. Colchicine arrests cell division at

(a) interphase

(b) prophase

(d) anaphase

Answer: :: (c)

10. Cell division occurring during cleavage

(a) meiosis

(b) mitosis

(d) closed mitosis

Answer: :: (d)
———————————————————————————————————————————————-
MCQs on Reptilia

1. Find the correct statement about class Reptilia

(a) dry and cornified skin, epidermal scales and absence of external ears

(b) marine habitat, endoskeleton is cartilaginous and have placoid scales

(d) moist skin and body is devoid of scales, the ear is represented by the tympanum

2. Reptilian ancestry of birds can be indicated by

(a) Eggs with the calcareous shell

(b) four-chambered heart

(d) presence of crop and gizzard

3. Find the correctly matched pairs

(i) Sea Urchin – parapodia

(ii) Obelia – Metagenesis

(iii) Crocodile – four-chambered heart

(iv) Lemur – thecodont

(a) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(b) only (i) and (ii)

(d) only (i) and (iv)

4. Uricotelism is found in

(a) frogs and toads.

(b) birds, land reptiles and insects

(d) fish and freshwater protozoans

5. Most reptiles are

(a) ammonotelic

(b) ureotelic

(d) uricotelic

6. Animals that get most affected by the change in the environmental temperature are

(a) aquatic

(b) homeothermic

(d) desert living

7. Bones of the reptiles are covered by

(a) Keratin

(b) Chitin

(d) none of the above

8. Which of the following is a living fossil?

(a) Dinosaurs

(b) Snakes

(d) Lizards

9. The respiratory organ in reptiles is

(a) gills

(b) epidermis

(d) lungs

10. Find the correctly matched pair without any exceptions

(a) Chondrichthyes- cartilaginous endoskeleton

(b) Reptilia- 3 chambered heart with undivided ventricle

(d) Chordata- have mouth with a lower and upper jaw

Answer: :

1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (d)
6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (a)
———————————————————————————————————————————–
MCQs on Coelom

1. Find the correct match

(a) Molluscs – acoelomate

(b) Platyhelminthes – coelomate

(d) Insects – pseudocoelomate

2. The fluid that comes out of earthworm while piercing it (without damaging its gut) is

(a) slimy mucous

(b) excretory fluid

(d) coelomic fluid

3. Which of the following is not true about Annelida?

(a) Ventral nerve cord

(b) Closed circulatory system

(d) Pseudocoelom

4. How platyhelminthes differ from annelids?

(a) bilateral symmetry

(b) pseudocoel

(d) none of the above

5. Where does true coelom present in the body?

(a) between mesoderm and endoderm (body wall)

(b) between body wall and ectoderm

(d) ectoderm and endoderm

6. The body cavity found in echinoderms and chordates is

(a) haemocoel

(b) enterocoelom

(d) schizocoelom

7. Which of the following develops into pseudocoelom?

(a) Archenteron

(b) Blastocoel

(d) Blastopore lip

8. Which of the following has haemocoel?

(a) Earthworm

(b) Hydra

(d) Nereis

9. Common characteristics of coelenterates and sponges are

(a) triploblastic and pseudocoelomate

(b) triploblastic and acoelomate

(d) monoblastic and acoelomate

10. The characteristic feature of Ascaris is

(a) pseudocoelom and no metamerism

(b) true coelom and no metamerism

(d) true coelom and metamerism

Answer: :

1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (a)
6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (a)

—————————————————————————————————————————————
MCQs on Dinoflagellates

1. Dinoflagellates belong to

(a) Monera

(b) Protista

(d) Animalia

2. In which of the following organisms, the cell wall is made up of two overlapping shells?

(a) Chrysophytes

(b) Euglenoids

(d) Dinoflagellates

3. Most of the Dinoflagellates are

(a) Multicellular

(b) Unicellular

(d) both (a) and (b)

4. Dinoflagellates are

(a) biflagellate

(b) uniflagellate

(d) non flagellate

5. Food reserve in Dinoflagellates is

(a) Alginic acid

(b) Fucoxanthin

(d) Mannitol

6. Which of the following pigments are not present in Dinoflagellates?

(a) Fucoxanthin

(b) Chlorophyll a

(d) Chlorophyll c

7. Which of the following protozoans show bioluminescence?

(a) Opaline

(b) Noctiluca

(d) Entamoeba

8. Marine phytoplankton is mostly represented by

(a) Brown algae

(b) Green algae

(d) Diatoms and Dinoflagellates

9. The function of pusule in Dinoflagellate is

(a) Osmoregulation

(b) Food production

(d) Movement

10. Dinoflagellates are

(a) Photosynthetic

(b) Holophytic

(d) All of these

Answer: :

1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c)
6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (d)
———————————————————————————————————————————————
MCQs on Nucleolus

1. Ribosomes are produced and assembled in

(a) mitochondria

(b) cytoplasm

(d) Golgi apparatus

2. An outer membrane is not present in

(a) lysosomes

(b) mitochondria

(d) nucleoli

3. Nucleoproteíns are synthesised in

(a) cytoplasm

(b) nucleoplasm

(d) nucleolus

4. Which of the components of nucleolus disappears during late prophase and reappears during telophase?

(a) Nucleolus

(b) Nucleoplasm

(d) Nuclear pore

5. The main function of nucleolus is

(a) Protein synthesis

(b) ATP production

(d) rRNA synthesis

6. Which of the following can pass through a nuclear pore?

(a) Ribosomal subunits

(b) Mitochondria

(d) both (a) and (c)

7. Which of the following are synthesised in the nucleolus?

(a) tRNA

(b) rRNA

(d) all of the above

8. Nucleoli were discovered by

(a) Felice Fontana

(b) Robert Hook

(d) Leeuwenhoek

9. Synthesis of ribosomes in prokaryotes occurs in

(a) nucleus

(b) nucleolus

(d) nucleoplasm

10. Find the incorrect statement

(a) nucleoli are synthesised around nucleolar organizing regions

(b) only one nucleolus is found in the nucleus

(d) nucleolus contains a high concentration of iron in various plant species

Answer: :

1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (d)
6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (b)
———————————————————————————————————————————————–
MCQs on Kranz Anatomy

1. Who discovered the C4 pathway?

(a) Melvin Kelvin

(b) Hatch and Slack

(d) Robert Brown

2. Which of the following is a C4 plant?

(a) Wheat

(b) Cactus

(d) Sugarcane

3. C4 pathway takes place in

(a) Xylem

(b) Bundle sheath cells

(d) Mesophyll cells

4. Which of the following pathways of carbon fixation has phosphoenol pyruvate as a primary CO2 acceptor?

(a) C3 plant

(b) C4 plants

(d) C2 plants

5. Which of the following is true about bundle sheath cells present in the leaves having Kranz anatomy?

(a) they have thin walls with many intercellular spaces and chloroplasts are absent

(b) they have thin walls with no intercellular spaces and many chloroplasts

(d) they have thick walls with no intercellular spaces and many chloroplasts

6. C4 pathway is a more efficient photosynthetic pathway than C3, because of

(a) lower photorespiration rate

(b) cells contain more chloroplasts in leaves

(d) spore formation

7. In leaves with Kranz anatomy, formation of malic acid during CO2 fixation occurs in

(a) epidermis

(b) phloem

(d) bundle sheath

8. In C4 plants, Calvin cycle occurs in

(a) chloroplasts present in the grana of bundle sheath

(b) chloroplasts present in the grana of mesophyll

(d) chloroplasts present in the stroma of bundle sheath

9. The difference between C3 and C4 pathway is

(a) photorespiration

(b) Calvin cycle

(d) glycolysis

10. The final product of C4 pathway is

(a) Malate

(b) Oxalate

(d) Aspartate

Answer: :

1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (d)
6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (a)
————————————————————————————————————————————————–
MCQs on Plasmid

1. Which of the following gene helps in identifying transformed cells?

(a) plasmid

(b) selectable marker

(d) vector

2. If the plasmid and the foreign DNA are cut by the same restriction endonuclease, recombinant DNA can be formed by joining both by

(a) Polymerase III

(b) EcoRI

(d) Taq polymerase

3. Find the incorrect statement about plasmids

(a) they are circular

(b) they replicate independently

(d) they are single stranded

4. The DNA molecule used for integrating foreign gene for cloning is called

(a) vector

(b) carrier

(d) transformer

5. Which one of the following is correct for the plasmid pBR322 of E.coli.?
https://cdn1.byjus.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/03/pbr322.png
(a) ampR and tetR – antibiotic resistance genes

(b) Hind III and EcoRI – selectable markers

(d) ori – original restriction enzyme

6. The Ti plasmid is found in

(a) Agrobacterium

(b) Yeast as a 2mm plasmid

(d) Azotobacter

7. Replication of plasmid DNA other than initiation is controlled by

(a) bacterial gene

(b) mitochondrial gene

(d) none of these

8. Antibiotics are used in genetic engineering. They are useful

(a) to keep culture free of microbial infections

(b) to select healthy vectors

(d) as selectable markers

9. A single-stranded, radiolabelled molecule of nucleic acids is called

(a) plasmid

(b) vector

(d) selectable marker

10. A vector that can clone only a small DNA fragment is

(a) cosmid

(b) plasmid

(d) Bacterial artificial chromosome

Answer: :

1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (a)
6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (b)
———————————————————————————————————————————
MCQs on Protozoa
1. Unicellular eukaryotes are grouped in

(a) Monera

(b) Protista

(d) Fungi

2. Which of the following organisms will vanish if all the ponds and puddles are destroyed?

(a) Plasmodium

(b) Trypanosoma

(d) Ascaris

3. In Amoeba and Paramecium, the cell organelle for osmoregulation is

(a) nucleus

(b) body surface

(d) pseudopodia

4. Which class does the malarial parasite belong to?

(a) dinophyceae

(b) sarcodina

(d) sporozoa

5. Protozoa are classified on the basis of

(a) locomotory organelle

(b) shape

(d) size

6. Organ of defense in protozoans is

(a) statocysts

(b) trichocysts

(d) nematocysts

7. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of prtozoans

(a) binary fission

(b) contractile vacuole

(d) pseudopodia

8. Which of the following class of protozoa does not generally contain contractile vacuole?

(a) Sporozoa

(b) Rhizopoda

(d) Cilliata

9. Trypanosoma belongs to which of the following group?

(a) mastigophora

(b) sarcodina

(d) ciliata

10. Which of the following protozoan causes African sleeping sickness

(a) Plasmodium vivax

(b) Entamoeba gingivalis

(d) Trypanosoma gambiense

Answer: :

1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (a)
6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (d)
———————————————————————————————————————————————–

Cookie	Duration	Description
cookielawinfo-checkbox-analytics	11 months	This cookie is set by GDPR Cookie Consent plugin. The cookie is used to store the user consent for the cookies in the category "Analytics".
cookielawinfo-checkbox-functional	11 months	The cookie is set by GDPR cookie consent to record the user consent for the cookies in the category "Functional".
cookielawinfo-checkbox-necessary	11 months	This cookie is set by GDPR Cookie Consent plugin. The cookies is used to store the user consent for the cookies in the category "Necessary".
cookielawinfo-checkbox-others	11 months	This cookie is set by GDPR Cookie Consent plugin. The cookie is used to store the user consent for the cookies in the category "Other.
cookielawinfo-checkbox-performance	11 months	This cookie is set by GDPR Cookie Consent plugin. The cookie is used to store the user consent for the cookies in the category "Performance".
viewed_cookie_policy	11 months	The cookie is set by the GDPR Cookie Consent plugin and is used to store whether or not user has consented to the use of cookies. It does not store any personal data.

MCQ’S ON FILARIASIS

MCQ’S ON PRIONS

MCQ’S ON SERICULTURE

MCQ’S ON FUNARIA AND RICCIA

Answer: (a) ———————————————————————————————————————————————————– MCQ’S ON RESPIRATORY QUOTIENT

Answer: (d) ———————————————————————————————————————————————– MCQ’S ON AVES

MCQ’S ON FAUNA

MCQ’S ON SPECIATION

MCQ’S ON CHEMIOSMOTIC HYPOTHESIS

Answer: (c) ————————————————————————————————————————————————– MCQ’S ON FAUNA

Answer: (d) —————————————————————————————————————————————————- MCQ’S ON SPECIATION

MCQ’S ON LEG BONES

Answer: (c) —————————————————————————————————————————————— MCQ’S ON LYMPHOCYTES

MCQ’S ON PHYLOGENY

MCQ’S ON SATURATED FAT

MCQ’S ON TRANSDUCTION

MCQ’S ON EMP PATHWAY

Answer: (d)

MCQ’S ON PERISTALSIS

Answer: (d)

MCQ’S ON NEW CROPS

MCQ’S ON PTERIDIUM PTERIS DRYOPTERIS

Answer: (a)

MCQ’S ON CLASS AMPHIBIA

MCQ’S ON CLASS PISCES

MCQ’S ON EMBRYOLOGY

MCQ’S ON TISSUE CULTURE

MCQ’S ON CYTOSKELETON

MCQ’S ON ABA AND OTHER GROWTH REGULATORS

Answer: (a)

MCQ’S ON MULTIPLE ALLELISM

MCQ’S ON MYCOPLASMA

MCQ’S ON REGULATIONS OF GENE EXPRESSION IN EUKARYOTES

MCQ’S ON HARDY WEINBERG LAW

MCQ’S ON GYMNOSPERMS

MCQ’S ON PHYLUM ASCHELMINTHES

MCQ’S OF LAMARCKISM

MCQ’S ON APOPTOSIS

MCQ’S ON MANURES AND FERTILIZERS

MCQ’S ON MITOCHONDRIA

MCQ’S ON PANCREAS

MCQ’S ON ECOLOGICAL SUCCESSION

MCQ’S ON SKELETAL TISSUE

MCQ’S ON INFERTILITY

MCQ’S OF MORPHOLOGY OF RAT

MCQ’S ON VASCULAR TISSUE

MCQ’S ON CONSERVATION OF NATURAL RESOURCES

MCQ’S ON IMPLANTATION AND GASTRULATION

MCQ’S ON MALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM

MCQ’S ON CLEAVAGE BIOLOGY

MCQ’S ON FEMALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM

MCQ’S ON FERTILIZATION

MCQ’S ON ENERGY REQUIREMENT

MCQ’S ON INTERNAL STRUCTURE OF ROOT STEM AND LEAF

MCQ’S ON SALIVARY GLANDS

MCQ’S ON HORMONAL CONTROL DIGESTION

MCQ’S ON DISEASES CAUSED BY BACTERIA

MCQ’S ON DISEASES CAUSED BY VIRUSES

MCQ’S ON DIABETES MELLITUS AND CARDIOVASCULAR DISEASES

MCQ’S ON DISEASES CAUSED BY PROTOZOA

MCQ’S ON HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASE

MCQ’S ON ARTHRITIS AND CANCER

MCQ’S ON METHOD OF BIRTH CONTROL

MCQ’S ON YEAST AND ALBUGO

MCQ’S ON PLANT MOVEMENT

MCQ’S ON ARCHAEBACTERIA

MCQ’S ON HETEROTROPHIC NUTRITION

MCQ’S ON BLOOD GROUPS

MCQ’S ON OSMOREGULATION

MCQ’S ON plastids

MCQ’S ON LICHENS

MCQ’S ON LAC OPERON

MCQ’S ON PENICILLIUM

MCQ’S ON VOLVOX

MCQ’S ON PARTURITION

MCQ’S ON CLIMATE

MCQ’S ON POLIO

MCQ’S ON PEM (Protein–energy malnutrition)

MCQ’S ON Marasmus

MCQs on Micropropagation

Answer: (a)
———————————————————————————————————————————————————–
MCQ’S ON RESPIRATORY QUOTIENT

Answer: (d)
———————————————————————————————————————————————–
MCQ’S ON AVES

Answer: (c)
————————————————————————————————————————————————–
MCQ’S ON FAUNA

Answer: (d)
—————————————————————————————————————————————————-
MCQ’S ON SPECIATION

Answer: (c)
——————————————————————————————————————————————
MCQ’S ON LYMPHOCYTES