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MICROBIOLOGY

TOP Past Exam NEET PG MCQ’s On Microbiology [100+ Solved]

Posted on January 2, 2023

1. E coli causing hemolytic uremic syndrome ?
A. Enteropathogenic
B. Enterotoxigenic
C. Enteroinvasive
D. Enterohemorrhagic

Answer:  D

2. KOH wet mount is prepared for ?
A. Herpes Zoster
B. Candida
C. Gonorrhea
D. Trichomonas vaginalis

Answer:  B

3. Oncogenic DNA virus is ?
A. Retrovirus
B. HBV
C. HIV
D. HTLV

Answer:  B

4. Band form of P malariae is ?
A. Schizoint stage
B. Trophozoite stage
C. Merozoite stage
D. Gametocyte stage

Answer:  B

5. Bifringence polarization microscopy is used for ?
A. Flagella
B. Intracellular structures
C. Capsule
D. Spores

Answer:  B

6. Most common cause of infection due to catheter in urinary tract ?
A. E coli
B. Coagulase negative staphylococci
C. Staph aureus
D. Pseudomonas

Answer:  A

7. Which of the following fungi is/are difficult to isolate culture ?
A. Candida
B. Dermatophytes
C. Cryptococcus
D. Malassezia furfur

Answer:  D

8. Window period in HIV infection ?
A. 1-2 weeks
B. 4-8 weeks
C. 8-12 weeks
D. > 12 weeks

Answer:  B

9. Thermophile bacteria grow at ?
A. 20°C
B. 20-40° C
C. 40-60°C
D. 60-80°C

Answer:  D

10. Which of the following is not a pox virus?
A. Cow pox
B. Molluscum contagiosum
C. Small pox
D. Chicken pox

Answer:  D

11. Metachromatic granules are seen in ?
A. Gardenella vaginali
B. Corynebacteria
C. Argobacterim
D. All of the above

Answer:  D

12. Which of the following is incubated at temperature 40-44 degrees ?
A. Vibrio cholerae
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Vibrio parahemolyticus
D. E coli

Answer:  B

13. Transmission of cholera is through ?
A. Fecally contaminated food
B. Fecally contaminated water
C. Contaminated food by vomits of a case
D. All of the above

Answer:  D

14. Reservoir of plague is ?
A. Domestic rat
B. Wild rat
C. Rat flea
D. Man

Answer:  B

15. IgE binds to which cell ?
A. T cells
B. B cells
C. Mast cells
D. NK cells

Answer:  C

16. Wrong statement about chicken pox/ herpes zoster?
A. Caused by VZV
B. Chicken-pox primary infection
C. Herpes-zoster recurrent infection
D. Latent infection in trigeminal ganglion

Answer:  C

17. Sterols are found in ?
A. Cell wall of Ricketssia
B. Cell membrane of Ricketssia
C. Cell wall of Mycoplasma
D. Cell membrane of Mycoplasma

Answer:  D

18. Double zone of hemolysis is seen in ?
A. Staphylococcus areus
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Answer:  C

19. Mechanism action of botulinum toxin ?
A. Increased cAMP
B. Increased cGMP
C. Inhibition of acetylcholine release
D. Inhibition of noradrenaline release

Answer:  C

20. Serum marker after Hepatitis B vaccination ?
A. Anti-HBsAg
B. Anti-HBeAg
C. Anti-HBcAg
D. HBsAg

Answer:  A

21. Double stranded RNA virus with segmented genome?
A. Influenza
B. Rotavirus
C. Arenavirus
D. Bunyavirus

Answer:  B

22. Culture medium for campylobactor jejuni ?
A. BYCE medium
B. Skirrow’s medium
C. Thayer-Martin medium
D. TCBS medium

Answer:  B

23. All are true about candida except ?
A. Pseudohyphae seen
B. Produce chlamydospore
C. It is a mould
D. It is a dimorphic fungus

Answer:  C

24. Intermediate host for guinea worm ?
A. Fish
B. Man
C. Cyclops
D. Crab

Answer:  C

25. Which of the following hepatitis viruses is a DNA virus ?
A. Hepatitis C virus
B. Hepatitis B virus
C. Delta agent
D. Hepatitis E virus

Answer:  B

26. Most common Nosocomial infection ?
A. Pneumonia
B. UTI
C. Surgical wound infection
D. Nephritis

Answer:  B

27. Method used for acid fast staining ?
A. Robertson’s method
B. Ziehl Neelsen
C. Silver imprignation method
D. Dark ground illumination

Answer:  B

28. Paralysis in polio is characterized by ?
A. Spasticity
B. Symmetrical
C. LMN type
D. Progressive

Answer:  C

29. Drug resistance in Tuberculosis is due to ?
A. Transformation
B. Transduction
C. Conjugation
D. Mutation

Answer:  D

30. All selective media are correctly matched except ?
A. V cholerae – TCBS medium
B. Pseudomonas – Cetrimide agar
C. M tuberculosis – LJ medium
D. Campylobacter – BCYE medium

Answer:  D

31. Not true about Histoplasma capsulatum ?
A. Dimorphic fungus
B. May mimic TB
C. Capsulated
D. Mostly asymptomic

Answer:  C

32. Schizoint are not seen in peripheral blood of which malarial parasites ?
A. P vivax
B. P falciparum
C. P ovale
D. P malariae

Answer:  B

33. Super carrier of HBV shows following serum markers ?
A. HBsAg
B. HbsAg + HBV DNA
C. HbsAg + HBeAg + HBV DNA
D. Anti-HBsAg + HBV DNA

Answer:  C

34. Cold sterilization is ?
A. Sterilization by negative temperature
B. Sterilization by ionizing radiation
C. Sterilization by liquid CO2
D. Sterilization by non-ionizing radiation

Answer:  B

35. Best specimen for anaerobic culture ?
A. Exudates from wound
B. Pus aspirated in vial
C. Swab from wound
D. Mid-stream urine

Answer:  B

36. Aerobic blood culture should be incubated for how many days, before discarding ?
A. 2 days
B. 5 days
C. 10 days
D. 14 days

Answer:  D

37. Infective endocarditis after tooth extraction is probably due to ?
A. Streptococcus viridans
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Staphylococcus aureus

Answer:  A

38. Chronic carrier of typhoid shed bacilli for ?
A. 1-3 weeks after cure
B. 3 weeks to 3 months after cure
C. 3 months – 1 year after cure
D. More than 1 year after cure

Answer:  D

39. Ovoviviparous parasite which is associated with autoinfection ?
A. Ancylostoma duodenale
B. Strongyloides stercoralis
C. Enterobius vermicularis
D. Ascaris

Answer:  B

40. Double stranded RNA virus ?
A. Rotavirus
B. Measles virus
C. Mumps virus
D. Influenza virus

Answer:  A

41. Earliest growth of diphtheria is detect on which media ?
A. Potassium tellurite media with iron
B. McConkey’s agar
C. Dorset egg medium
D. Loeffler’s serum slope

Answer:  D

42. Blood agar is an example of ?
A. Enriched media
B. Indicator media
C. Enrichment media
D. Selective media

Answer:  A

43. Virus causing oropharyngeal carcinoma ?
A. EBV
B. HPV
C. HHV-8
D. HTLV

Answer:  B

44. Temperature required for holding period of 20 minutes in Hot air oven

A. 160° C
B. 170° C
C. 120° C
D. 130° C

Answer:  B

45. Break bone fever is caused by ?
A. Yellow fever
B. Japanese encephlitis
C. Dengue fever
D. KFD

Answer:  C

46. In pontaic fever, which antigen is seen in urine?
A. Lipopolysaccharide-1
B. Lipopolysaccharide-2
C. Lipopolysaccharide-4
D. Lipopolysaccharide-6

Answer:  A

47. Spores of clostridium perfringens are located ?
A. In the middle of cells
B. At the poles of cells
C. Between middle and pole of cells
D. None of the above

Answer:  C

48. Agar media used for Haemophilus influenza ?
A. Blood agar
B. Chocolate agar
C. Tryptose agar
D. BYCE agar

Answer:  B

49. Mechanism of action in pathogenesis of Pseudomembranous colitis by CI difficle ?
A. Due to invasiveness
B. Due to endotoxin
C. Due to exotoxin
D. Due to NM blockade

Answer:  C

50. Virus causing Latent infection (or Latent period is shown by which virus)

A. Rubella
B. HBV
C. Pertussis
D. Rota virus

Answer:  B

51. True regarding arbovirus is all except ?
A. KFD is transmitted by Tick
B. Dengue virus has one Serotype
C. Yellow fever is not seen in India
D. Dengue fever is transmitted by Aedes

Answer:  B

52. Bacteria not affected by streptogramins is ?
A. E. coli
B. Staphylococcuaureus
C. Legionella
D. M. pneumoniae

Answer:  A

53. Smallest Virus is ?
A. Herpes virus
B. Adenovirus
C. Parvovirus
D. Poxvirus

Answer:  C

54. Infectivity of HBV is indicated by ?
A. HBeAg
B. HbsAg
C. HBV DNA
D. Anti HBs Ag

Answer:  A

55. True about CMV are all except ?
A. Most common cause of post-transpinatation infection
B. Most common cause of transplacental infection
C. A non-enveloped DNA virus
D. Produces intranuclear inclusions

Answer:  C

56. Not ture about El Tor biotype of vibrio cholerae?
A. Lower mortality
B. Less SAR
C. Less chances of survival in environment
D. VP (+)

Answer:  C

57. HSV-2 (Herpes simplex) causes ?
A. Oral ulcers
B. Genital ulcers
C. U.T.I.
D. Pharyngitis

Answer:  B

58. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of tetanospasmin ?
A. Inhibition of release of GABA and glycine
B. Inhibition of Ach release from synapse
C. Inhibition of protein synthesis
D. Activation of adenylyl cyclase

Answer:  A

59. Ebola virus belongs to?
A. Picornaviridae
B. Togaviridae
C. Flaviviridae
D. Filoviridae

Answer:  D

60. Bollinger bodies are seen in ?
A. Chickenpox
B. Cowpox
C. Fowlpox
D. Smallpox

Answer:  C

61. All are true regarding Japanese encephalitis except ?
A. Caused by flavivirus
B. Humans are dead-end hosts
C. Transmitted by culex
D. Cattles are amplifier hosts

Answer:  D

62. All are seen with Pneumocystis carini in AIDS except
A. Pneumonia
B. Otic polypoid mass
C. Ophthalmic choroid lesion
D. Meningitis

Answer:  D

63. Antibiotic sensitivity testing can be done using all except
A. E test
B. Kirby-Bauer method
C. Culture agar method
D. Broth dilution method

Answer:  C

64. Type E adverse reaction is
A. Toxicity
B. Augmented effect
C. Teratogenesis
D. Withdrawal reaction

Answer:  D

65. Treponema pallidum was discovered by ?
A. Robert Koch
B. Twort
C. Schaudinn and Hoffman
D. Ellerman

Answer:  C

66. Lactose fermentation is seen in ?
A. Blood agar
B. Chocolate agar
C. MacConkey agar
D. LJ medium

Answer:  C

67. Major immunoglobulin secreted by intestine ?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgD

Answer:  C

68. False about viruses is ?
A. Ribosomes absent
B. Mitochondria absent
C. Motility absent
D. Nucleic acid absent

Answer:  D

69. Arrangement of lens from eye to source of light, in light microscope ?
A. Ocular lens : Subjective lens : Condensor lens
B. Subjective lens : Ocular lens : Condensor len
C. Condensor lens : Sujective lens : Ocular lens
D. Subjecive lens : Condensor lens : Ocular lens

Answer:  A

70. Numbers of variable regions on each light and heavy chain of an antibody ?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Answer:  A

71. Hybridoma technique is used to obtain ?
A. Specific antigen
B. Complement
C. Specific antibody
D. Interleukins

Answer:  C

72. Which is not a DNA virus ?
A. Parvovirus
B. Papovavirus
C. Poxvirus
D. Rhabdovirus

Answer:  D

73. All are sporicidal agents except ?
A. Formaldehyde
B. Glutaraldehyde
C. Ethylene oxide
D. Isopropyl alcohol

Answer:  D

 

74. In blood culture the ratio of blood to reagent is ?
A. 1:5
B. 1:20
C. 1:10
D. 1:100

Answer:  C

75. Sabin feldman Dye test is used to demonstrate infection with ?
A. Filaria
B. Toxoplasma
C. Histoplasma
D. Ascaris

Answer:  B

76. Culture medium used for entamoeba histolytica?
A. Blood agar
B. Philip’s medium
C. CLED medium
D. Trypticase serum

Answer:  B

77. Ascospore is ?
A. Asexual spore
B. Sexual spore
C. Conidia
D. None of the above

Answer:  B

78. Most common staphylococcal phage strain causing hospital infection ?
A. 80/81
B. 79/80
C. 3A/3C
D. 69/70

Answer:  A

79. All of the sterilization methods are properly matched except ?
A. Catgut suture – Radiation
B. Culture media – Autoclaving
C. Bronchoscope – Autoclaving
D. Glassware & syringes – Hot air ove

Answer:  C

80. Endoscope tube is sterilized by?
A. Glutaraldehyde
B. Formalin
C. Autoclaving
D. Boiling

Answer:  A

81. All are true regarding resistance of penicillin in staphylococcus aureus, except ?
A. Penicillinase production is transmitted by transduction
B. Methicillin resistance is due to change in PBP
C. Hospital strains mostly produce type D penicillinase
D. Penicillinase production is plasmid mediated

Answer:  C

82. Which of the following is not capsulated ?
A. Pneumococcus
B. Cryptococcus
C. Meningococcus
D. Proteus

Answer:  D

83. All are true regarding interleukin-1 except ?
A. Primary source is monocyte-macrophage system
B. Endogenous pyrogens
C. Inhibit IL-2 production by T-cells
D. All are true

Answer:  C

84. Which of the following is a superantigen ?
A. Cholera toxin
B. Diphtheria toxin
C. TSST
D. Vero-cytoxin

Answer:  C

85. Thomsen friedensreich phenomenon is ?
A. Red cells infection by CMV
B. Red cell agglutination by all blood group sera
C. Hemolysis of transfused blood
D. Due to B antigen

Answer:  B

86. Most common organism causing URTI in adult?
A. H influenza
B. Stap aureus
C. Strepto pneumonia
D. Streptococcus pyogenes

Answer:  D

87. Street rabies virus cause ?
A. Natural rabies
B. Loboratory passage in rabbit
C. Fatal encephalitis in 6 days
D. Negri bodies not seen

Answer:  A

88. All are true about Helminths, except?
A. Alimentary canal is complete in Nematodes
B. Body cavity is present in trematodes
C. Nematodes have separate sexes
D. Alimentary canal is Present but incomplete

Answer:  B

89. Which of the following amoebae does not have neuropathogenic effect ?
A. Naegleria
B. Acanthamoeba
C. Dientamoeba
D. Bala muthia

90. All of the following are important mechanisms of gene transfer in bacteria, except ?
A. Lateral gene transfer
B. Conjugation
C. Vertical gene transfer
D. Horizontal gene transfer

Answer:  C

91. All are true regarding development of Tcells, except?
A. T-cells are formed in bone marrow
B. Maturation of T-cells take place in thymus
C. T-cell are located in mantle layer of spleen
D. In lymph nodes, T-cells are found in paracortical area

Answer:  C

92. The only ovoviviporous parasite ?
A. Ascaris
B. Strongyloides
C. Enterobius
D. Ancylostome

Answer:  B

93. All organisms shows bipolar staining except ?
A. Calymmatobacter granulomati
B. Y. pestis
C. Pseudomonas mallei
D. H. influenzae

Answer:  D

94. Draughtsman (Concentric Rings) on culture are produced by ?
A. Yersina pestis
B. H. ducreyi
C. B. pertusi
D. Pneumococi

Answer:  D

95. Causative agent for melioidosis is ?
A. Pseudomonas pseudomallei
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Pseudomonas cepacia
D. Pseudomonas mallei

Answer:  A

96. Specific reason to disallow the sample for culture?
A. Sample brought within 2 hr of collection
B. Sample brought in sterile plastic container
C. Sample brought in formalin
D. Sample obtained after cleaning the collection site

Answer:  C

97. Glass vessels and syringes are best sterilised by

A. Hot air oven
B. Autoclaving
C. Irradiation
D. Ethylene dioxide

Answer:  A

98. Spores of bacteria are destroyed by
A. Alcohol
B. Lysol
C. Halogen
D. Ionizing radiation

Answer:  C

99. Cell wall deficient organisms are
A. Chlamydia
B. Mycoplasma
C. Streptococcus
D. Anaerobes

Answer:  B

100. Vaccine is available against which type of meningococcus ?
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type A and C
D. Type B and D

Answer:  C

101. “Citron bodies” boat or leaf shaped pleomorphic organism in an exudate is
A. Cl. welchii
B. Cl. edematiens
C. Cl. septicum
D. Cl. tetani

Answer:  C

102. Swarming growth on culture is characteristic of which Gram positive organism ?
A. Clostridium welchi
B. Clostridium tetani
C. Bacillus cereus
D. Proteus mirabilis

Answer:  B

103. Most common genetic play in Neisseria infection is
A. Male gender
B. HLA b27
C. Complement deficiency
D. IgA deficiency

Answer:  C

104. Heat labile immunoglobulin
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgE
D. IgM

Answer:  C

105. Which is the longest DNA of hepatitis B virus ?
A. P gene
B. X gene
C. S gene
D. C gene

Answer:  A

106. Bacterial count in doudenum
A. 105 per gram
B. 10′ per gram
C. 1010 per gram
D. 10’2 per gram

Answer:  A

107. Capacity of producing IgG starts at what age
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 2 years
D. 3 years

Answer:  A

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